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[High Quality Cisco Questions] Latest Cisco 210-260 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube (Q21-30)

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QUESTION 1
Which results happens when a non-trunking port that is configured with BPDU guard is connected to a device that is transmitting?
A. The port is moved into the spanning-tree blocking state.
B. There port is error-disabled.
C. A routing loop can occur on the network.
D. The port transitions to the connected state.
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN. 210-260 pdf
Which configuration must be configured before the VLAN is configured?
A. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
B. Configure VTP Transparent mode.
C. Enable VTP version 3.
D. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANS.
Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two limitations of LOCAL SPAN are true? 210-260 dumps (Choose Two)
A. The source and destination ports must reside in the same switch or switch stack
B. It can monitor only traffic that ingresses or egresses on the source interface or VLAN.
C. A SPAN session can support multiple destination ports only if they are on the same VLAN.
D. EACH SPAN session supports only one source VLAN or interface.
E. A switch can support only one local SPAN session at a time.
Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which Statement about the default SWITCH Database Management Template is true?
A. Template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses
B. Template maximizes system resources for access control lists.
C. Template maximizes system resources for unicast routing.
D. Template gives balance to all functions
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two prerequisites for HSRP to become active on an interface are true? 210-260 pdf (Choose 2)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled globally.
B. The VIP must be in the same subnet as the primary IP address.
C. A Virtual-MAC address must be configured on the interface.
D. An IP address must be configured on the interface.
E. PIM routing must be disabled on the interface.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol? 210-260 dumps
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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[High Quality Microsoft Questions] The Latest Microsoft MB2-716 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Online Free Update

Latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-716 dumps exam training resources which are the best for clearing MB2-716 exam test. http://www.gotocert.com/mb2-716.html dumps exam questions and answers. The best and most updated Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-716 dumps pdf training materials in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
You import a managed solution that contains a custom entity named Loan. Loan is enabled for customization.
You need to add a new field to the Loan entity.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Open the imported solution, locate the Loan entity, and then add the new field.
B. Create a new solution, add the existing Loan entity, and then add the new field.
C. Modify the Managed Properties of the Loan entity in the imported solution.
D. Open the default solution, locate the Loan entity, and then add the new field.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
You have a Dynamics CHM organization that uses folder tracking. You have a folder named Customers that is currently being tracked- Customers contains a folder for The main contact named Contact1. MB2-716 pdf
A new email message from Contact1 is delivered to your Inbox. You need to identity what will occur when you move the message to the Customer1 folder.
What should you identify?
A. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Customer1 and to Contact1
B. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Contact1 only.
C. An email activity will be created m CRM that has a connection To Customer1 only.
D. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field set to Contact1
E. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field Set to Customer1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You modify the Account form to contain the contain the tabs configured and ordered as shown in the following table.

You need to identify which tabs will be displayed by default on Dynamics CRM for tablets. MB2-716 dumps
Which tabs should you identify?A. only General. Address Info, and Reseller Info
B. only General, Address Info, Reseller Info, and Additional Info
C. only General, Details, Address Info, Reseller Info, and Additional Info
D. only General, Details. Address Info, and Reseller Info
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have a Dynamics CRM organization.
You have a team named Teaml. All of the members of Teaml have identical security roles. A user named User1 has a personal view to display the records owned by Teaml. You need to ensure that all the members of Teaml can use the view.
What should you do?
A. Instruct User1 to assign the personal view to the owner of Teaml.
B. Instruct the owner of Teaml to configure the filter criteria.
C. Instruct User1 to assign the personal view to Teaml.
D. Instruct User1 to configure the filter criteria.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are adding a sub-grid to the Account form that displays data from a custom entity related to the account. You need to identify which items you can use to display the data. Which two items should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a fist
B. a chart
C. a dashboard
D. an iFrame
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You have a recalled product that should no longer be sold. MB2-716 pdf
You need to remove the Product from the available list of products and to prevent any sales from being processed for the product.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Remove the product from the family hierarchy.
B. Modify the open opportunities.
C. Update the price list.
D. Retire the product.
E. Modify the validity date of the product.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
You have a Dynamics CRM organization. The organization does not use CRM for marketing. You need to prevent Marketing from displaying on the Account form navigation.
What should you do?
A. Delete all of the items in the Marketing group.
B. Hide the Marketing group.
C. Minimize the Marketing group.
D. Delete the Marketing group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a Dynamics CRM development environment and a Dynamics CRM production environment. In both environments, your account is assigned the System Customizer security role. In the development environment, you create a custom solution that contains all of the project components deployed to the production environment. The custom solution contains an entity. In the development environment, you open the project solution that you intend to deploy to the production environment. MB2-716 dumps
You see the entity, but not the field.
You need to ensure that you can modify the field in the development environment.
What should you do?
A. Ask the system administrator to assign your user the System Administrator security role, and then modify the system field.
B. In the project solution, add a field to the entity, and then make the modification.
C. In the default solution, make the modification.
D. Use the Add Sub Components action, add the field, and then make the modification.
Correct Answer: C

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[High Quality Cisco Questions] 2017 Latest Cisco 600-510 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube

Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist 600-510 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 600-510 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist. http://www.lead4pass.com/600-510.html Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist 600-510 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

QUESTION 1
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment, operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scoresE. QoS
Correct Answer: AD
600-510
QUESTION 3 600-510
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric?
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.) 600-510
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices
Correct Answer: ACD

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[High Quality Microsoft Questions] Latest Microsoft 70-331 Exam Practice Materials And Youtube

Comprehensive knowledge of Microsoft 70-331 exam practice questions and answers Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
You need to import employee photos into SharePoint user profiles by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Define a mapping for the thumbnailPhoto attribute of the Picture user profile property.
B. Run the Update-SPUserSolution Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run an incremental synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
D. Run a full synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
E. Run the Update-SPProfilePhotoStore Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
F. Define a mapping for the photo attribute of the Picture user profile property.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation:
A: Step 3 below.
D: Step 5 below.
E: Step 6 below.
Note: Importing Images into SharePoint User Profiles My Sites To make the user images that we have uploaded into the thumbnail Photo attribute in Active Directory available in SharePoint we will first need to map it to the Picture property in the User Profile Service Application.
Firstly you will need to go into theUser Profile Service Application.
1. Central Admin > Application Management > Service Applications > Manage Service Applications > User Profile Service Application
2.Then you will need to go into theManage User Propertiessection and edit thePicture property.
3. Next we will map the Active Directory propertythumbnail Phototo thePictureproperty in SharePoint
4.Once the mapping has been applied theManage User Propertiespage will look like this.
5.Now we will need to run aFull User Profile Synchronizationjob so that SharePoint can import theuser images from Active Directory Synchronization > Start Profile Synchronization > Start Full Synchronization
6. Lastly we will need to force SharePoint to update the User Profile Database This will create the thumbnails that are used in My Sites and the User Profile Service. This will need to be run in the SharePoint PowerShell Console with the appropriate My Site permissions.

QUESTION 2 70-331 exam
You create a User Profile Synchronization connection.
You need to grant the necessary permissions to the synchronization account.
What should you do?
A. Grant the account Full Control on the ActiveUsers OU.
B. Grant the account Full Control on the AuthenticatedUsers AD security group.
C. Grant the account Read permission on the domain.
D. Grant the account the Replicate Directory Changes permission on the domain.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that content authors can publish the specified files.
What should you do?
A. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
B. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the authoring web application.
C. Create one authoring site collection. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
D. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You copy the content of the SharePoint installation media and software updates to your hard drive.
You need to meet the setup requirements for future SharePoint server installations.
What should you do? 70-331 exam
A. Extract the content of each file to the Updates folder by running the /extract: command.
B. Upgrade the installation media by running the /lang: command.
C. Extract the content of each file to the Setup folder by running the /extract: command.
D. Extract the content of each file to the PrerequisiteInstallerFiles folder by running the /extract: command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to implement corporate sizing and performance guidelines for general usage scenarios.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 100 milliseconds.
B. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 4 TB.
C. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 20 milliseconds.
D. Limit the number of documents in each document library to 20 million.
E. Limit the number of documents in each content database to 10 million.
F. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 200 GB.
Correct Answer: CEF

Explanation:
C: Network Attached Storage (NAS) is only supported by SharePoint 2013 with iSCSI and if TTFB is less than 20ms.
E: The largest number of items per content database that has been tested on SharePoint Server 2013 is 60 million items, including documents and list items. If you plan to store more than 60 million items in SharePoint Server 2013, you must deploy multiple content databases.
F: We strongly recommended limiting the size of content databases to 200 GB, except when the circumstances in the following rows in this table apply. If you are using Remote BLOB Storage (RBS), the 70-331 exam total volume of remote BLOB storage and metadata in the content database must not exceed this limit.
Note: The use of RBS-enabled content databases larger than 4TB with collaboration sites is not supported.

Reference: http://www.microsoft-technet.com/category/hp-atp-server-solutions-v2

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2017 Real Cisco 210-260 Vce is What You Need To Know about 210-260 Vce Video Study

The Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) exam 210-260 vce is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions. This 210-260 vce tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 186 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 17, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html

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210-260 vce

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QUESTION 11
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has
been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
Correct Answer: A 210-260 vce

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 vce

What is the effect of the given command?
A. It merges authentication and encryption methods to protect traffic that matches an ACL.
B. It configures the network to use a different transform set between peers.
C. It configures encryption for MD5 HMAC.
D. It configures authentication as AES 256.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types? (Choose two.)
A. stop
B. none
C. error
D. all
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentication attempt record to a AAA server?
(Choose two.)
A. start-stop
B. stop-record
C. stop-only
D. stop
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public
address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

210-260 vce

This exam validates skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices. This 210-260 vce also shows competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) course.

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Latest Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Test Questions And Answers – 100% Pass Guarantee

The best and most updated Cisco 300-360 dumps exam training materials online free update. Latest Cisco 300-360 dumps exam practice questions and answers, high quality Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 dumps exam training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION: 1
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?
A. overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
B. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
C. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
D. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which three areas is the engineer most likely expect to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose three.)
A. emergency room
B. magnetic resonance imaging
C. laboratory
D. X-ray radiography
E. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
F. kitchen
Answer: A, C, F
300-360
QUESTION: 3 300-360 dumps
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Answer: A, E

QUESTION: 4
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space.
How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
Answer: D

Explanation:
The rule of thumb coverage plan is 1 AP per 5,000 square feet for data and 1 per 3,000 square feet for voice and location services.

QUESTION: 5
A customer has dual-band devices that they want to use 40 MHz channels. If the customer is using Cisco 3600 Series access points with a 5508 controller. Which setting assists with this change?
A. Enable band select globally.
B. Enable aggressive load balancing.
C. Disable lower data rates on 802 .11G GHz radios.
D. Disable overlapping 802.11G channels.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
An engineer is deploying centralized wireless solution with a 5508 controller. What is the most AP licenses that can be supported?
A. 100
B. 250
C. 1000
D. 500
Answer: D

Explanation:
You can order Cisco 300-360 dumps 5500 Series Controllers with support for 12, 25, 50, 100, 250 or 500 APs as the controller’s base capacity. You can add additional AP capacity through capacity adder licenses available at 25, 50, 100 and 250 AP capacities. You can add the capacity adder licenses to any base license in any combination to arrive at the maximum capacity of 500 APs.

QUESTION: 7
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building. Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Answer: C, D

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100% Pass Guarantee Of 642-887 Exam With Latest Cisco 642-887 Dumps Exam Study Guide

QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA? Cisco 642-887 dumps
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC
642-887
QUESTION 4
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress,classify based on the qos group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two features are used to provide Cisco 642-887 dumps MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
Cisco 642-887 dumps MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and Micosoft 70-413 exam AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.
70-413
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the 70-413 pdf GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.

QUESTION 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the 70-413 vce research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the 70-413 dumps current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations.
Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the 70-413 VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

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QUESTION 28
Which three tasks can you perform with Disk Utility? (Choose three).
A. Erase a CD-RW disk.
B. Determine disk usage by user name.
C. Verify and repair a UFS-formatted disk.
D. Create an encrypted partition on a hard disk.
E. Discover details about top-level directories on a FireWire disk drive.
F. Discover details about a FireWire drive such as size and configuration.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 29
To make a font available to Classic applications, install the font in ______________.
A. /User/Fonts
B. /Library/Fonts
C. /System Folder/Fonts
D. /System Library/Fonts
E. /System Folder/Font Book
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Mac OS X v10.3 administrator named “Certkiller” can view the details of a kernel panic in ____________.
A. /Library/Logs/kp.log
B. /Library/Logs/panic.log
C. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Logs/kp.log
D. /Users/Certkiller /Library/Logs/panic.log
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
A disk image file ___________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. can be encrypted at the time it is created B. has the extension .img or .dmg by default
C. can only be created from the command line
D. is represented by a folder icon when mounted
E. can only be create by the System Administrator
F. may represent a compressed folder and its content

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 32
Disk utility can display _______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. a disk drive capacity
B. a list of partitions on a disk drive
C. the volume format of a mounted partition
D. the number of files in the system folder
E. the number of files on an unmounted partition
F. information about internal drives only, not external drives

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
Suppose you are an administrator named “sandra”. To make a font available for all local users to access, install the font file in ______________.
A. /Users/Sandra/Library/Fonts
B. /System/Library/Fonts
C. /Users/Library/Fonts
D. /Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: D 100-105 dumps
QUESTION 34
The Repair Disk Permissions feature of Disk Utility can ONLY repair permissions_____________________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. on a volume with Mac OS X system software installed.
B. If the computer is booted from the Mac OS X Install disc
C. Of top-level directories, such as /System and /Users only
D. Of user-created files, by restoring them to a previously saved state
E. Of system files, by restoring their permissions to the default configuration

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 35
Which two directories will NOT exist by default on which you have installed Mac OS X v10.3 and added a single user named “Certkiller”? (Choose two.)
A. /Fonts
B. /Applications
C. /Library/Preferences
D. /System/Library/Caches
E. /Users/Certkiller/Documents
F. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Caches
G. /Users/Shared/Library/Caches
Correct Answer: AG QUESTION 36
Disk Utlity with Mac OS X v10.3 allows you to configure drives in RAID configurations of what level(s)?
A. Level 0 only
B. Level 1 only
C. Level 0 or 1
D. Level 1 or 5
E. Level 0, 1, or 5

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 37
By default in Mac OS X v10.3, you can use the Finder to______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Burn a CD
B. Create a disk image file
C. See every file in your home directory
D. To archive multiple items simultaneously using the Archive menu item
E. Empty the trash securely, so that data-recovery software cannot restore the files.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 38
In what order does Mac OS X v10.3 search for resources such as fonts?
A. ~/Library,/Library,/System/Library
B. /Library,~/Library,/System/Library
C. /System/Library,~/Library,/Library
D. ~/Library,/System/Library,/Library
E. /Library,/System/Library, ~/Library

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
You can use ___________ to create disk image files.
A. CpMac
B. Image Disk
C. Disk Utility
D. Image Capture

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
You are currently in the same directory as a file called ” Certkiller 3″. To view this file contents from the command line you can type ____________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat Certkiller 3
B. cat Certkiller \3
C. cat Certkiller \3
D. cat Certkiller \ 3
E. cat ” Certkiller 3″
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 41
Exhibit ls *.* You enter this command in a Terminal Window. Which file names would be listed in the output of the command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Certkiller .exe
B. Index.html
C. Myfile
D. Hello
E. X

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 42
Which command is included with the Mac OS X Developer Tools, but NOT with a default installation of Mac OS X v10.3?
A. du
B. pwd
C. open
D. ditto
E. CpMac

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 43
Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. system_profiler
B. ditto
C. ppen
D. ls

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A Mac OS X v10.3 user can view a file ownership and access permissions by _________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. viewing the file in Column View
B. using the ls -l command in the Terminal utility.
C. Pressing the Verify Permissions button in Disk Utility.
D. Selecting the file and choosing Get Info from the File menu.
E. Selecting the Permissions tab in the Apple System Profiler utility

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 21
Which two statements describe Cisco WLC v7.0 implementation of country codes for RF regulatory domains? (Choose two.)
A. There is a maximum of one per controller.
B. There is a maximum of 12 per controller.
C. There is a maximum of 20 per controller.
D. The AP defaults its RF code selection.
E. The AP is configurable for one RF code per radio.
F. The AP is configurable for one RF code across both radios.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 22
Which two options must match to allow client roaming between wireless controllers? (Choose two.)
A. mobility group name
B. RF group name
C. SNMP community string
D. multicast messaging IP address
E. mobility MAC address
F. Cisco WLC hardware model type
G. Cisco WLC software code version

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
A wireless client is having difficulty associating. What is the most likely cause, given the output of the following debug?
DOT1X-1-MAX_EAPOL_KEY_RETRANS_FOR_MOBILE: MAX EAPOL-Key M1 retransmissions reached for mobile xx:xx:xx:xx:xx
A. Cisco WLC is not requesting authentication.
B. Cisco WLC has no RADIUS entry to direct authentication.
C. Cisco WLC is timing out waiting for authentication.
D. The Cisco WLC authentication type is incompatible with the client.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which two statements correctly describe ClientLink on a Cisco WLC v7.0.116.0? (Choose two.)
A. It is beneficial for bidirectional stream traffic that is sent to wireless clients.
B. It is beneficial for upstream traffic that is sent only to wireless clients.
C. It is beneficial for downstream traffic that is sent only to wireless clients.
D. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 15 clients.
E. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 25 clients.
F. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 30 clients.
G. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 50 clients.
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 25
Which two statements correctly describe ClientLink on a Cisco WLC v7.0.116.0? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on 802.11n APs for 802.11n clients.
B. It is supported on 802.11n APs for 802.11a/g clients.
C. It is supported on non-802.11n APs for 802.11a/b/g clients.
D. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -50 dBm or weaker.
E. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -60 dBm or weaker.
F. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -70 dBm or weaker.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

What does the count of 20 for Handoff Requests Sent represent in the Mobility Statistics output?
A. the number of handoff replies that have been received in response to the requests sent
B. the total number of handoff requests received, ignored, or responses sent
C. the number of handoffs in which the entire client session has been transferred
D. the number of clients that have been associated to the controller and have been announced to the mobility group

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Context-aware usage has been deployed on a Cisco MSE 3310 that is licensed to maximum capacity. Approximately 900 wireless clients are currently being tracked. New services need to be added for 500 RFID tags based on RSSI and 500 RF interferers tracked via CleanAir. What should be changed regarding the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. Add a second Cisco MSE 3310 with a license for RFID tags, and then add a license for CleanAir to either the original or new Cisco MSE.
B. Replace Cisco MSE 3310 with MSE 3355 with a license for CleanAir and tags, and then move the license from Cisco MSE 3310 to MSE 3355 for context-aware.
C. Add a CleanAir and RFID tag license to Cisco MSE 3310.
D. Add only an RFID tag license to Cisco MSE 3310.
E. Add only a CleanAir license to Cisco MSE 3310.
F. Increase only the context-aware license.
G. No license is required.

Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 28
When planning on tracking rogue APs, RFID tags that are based on RSSI, and wireless clients, what is needed for the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. wIPS license, context-aware license, and Cisco RFID tag license only
B. wIPS license, context-aware license, and partner tag engine license only
C. wIPS license and context-aware license only
D. context-aware license only

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What are the recommended RFID timeout configuration values for Cisco WLC v7.0 to ensure that tags are detected?
A. minimum of two times and maximum of four times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
B. minimum of two times and maximum of four times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
C. minimum of three times and maximum of eight times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
D. minimum of three times and maximum of eight times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
E. minimum of 6 times and maximum of 12 times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
F. minimum of 6 times and maximum of 12 times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which option should be the RSSI (dBm) cell edge for a site survey for a wireless network of data, voice, and location services?
A. -65
B. -67
C. -72
D. -75
E. -80

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which changes in context-aware location services using the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 have the greatest impact to reduce the database size?
A. restricting to a single location device type
B. restricting the number of devices that are being tracked
C. restricting the history archive
D. scheduled database cleanup
E. scheduled backup

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
How are licenses purchased regarding the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 for Cisco wireless client tracking, Cisco RFID tracking, and AeroScout RFID tracking?
A. Three separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
B. Two separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.
C. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
D. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which two statements correctly describe implementing RFID tags based on RSSI and TDoA location in Cisco Unified Wireless Network v7.0? (Choose two.)
A. Only one tag engine can be installed and be operational in a Cisco 3300 Series MSE.
B. Two tag engines can be installed, but only one can be operational at any time in a Cisco MSE.
C. Separate tag engines can be installed and run concurrently for RSSI and TDoA in a Cisco MSE.
D. Basic RSSI and TDoA location can be performed by Cisco APs.
E. RSSI tag location can be performed by Cisco APs, but partner sensors are required for TDoA tag location.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 34
What is the list of Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 network location service elements that can be individually enabled or disabled for device tracking and quantity limitation?
A. Clients and Tags only
B. Clients, Rogue APs, Interferers, and Tags only
C. Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
D. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
E. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, Active Tags, and Choke Point Tags

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What is the default username and password for communication between Cisco WCS and the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. cisco and cisco
B. Cisco and Cisco
C. admin and admin
D. root and admin
E. root and password
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36

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