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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps

70-489 exam Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phones. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.

070-489 dumps

QUESTION 12
You need to implement social features.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
dropdown list in the answer area.)

070-489 dumps

070-489 dumps

Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Contoso Ltd
Background
Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production.
Search
The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results.
Search Engine Optimization
The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following 70-489 dumps requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true
Managed Metadata Service (MMS)
The MMS must include three-term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features.
Offices Term Set
The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane.
Cities Term Set
The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical. If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices term set before it can be added to the Cities term set. If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change in the Cities term set.
Features Term Set
You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The 070-489 pdf features term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about each property, such as whether the building is a single-family house or a condominium. The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the Excel file into the term store in each server environment.
Web Application
The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles folder.
Site Collections and Content
The web application includes the following three site collections.
Board Member Site Collection
The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the 70-489 vce site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board members.
Internet Site Collection
Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices. Each office must have its own page on the site. The pages for each office must have the same style and structure. Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office. The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a property. The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company. Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member. The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents, including their contact information, certifications, and picture. When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling. The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their 70-489 vce features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web form that is used specifically for data collection.
The webform must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property.
Agent Site Collection
The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The Agent site collection has the following requirements: The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the website. A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set. 
Page Layouts and Web Parts
Page Layouts
You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements: The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts. The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must display biographical information about the board of directors. You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file. 
Web Parts
The Agent Web Part has the following requirements: The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be used by the Web Part.

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Pass 70-413 Exam With Latest Micosoft 70-413 Exam Questions And Answers

QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and Microsoft 70-413 exam AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for the DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.
70-413
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the 70-413 pdf GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.

QUESTION 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the 70-413 vce research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the 70-413 dumps current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations.
Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the 70-413 VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

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400-051-exam-know
Exam Pattern Give the candidate 120 minutes and they must resolve 90 – 110 questions during this time. The syllabus is predetermined and any applicant with a score of more than 70% (700 points) is eligible for certification.
Examination fee Some candidates have special discounts.
Job ProspectsWired and wireless network work.
It Professional
Network Engineer

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Syllabus Protocols and APIs 12%
Infrastructure and Quality of Services 10%
Call Control and Dial plan 20%
Endpoints, User Management, and Mobility 10%
Edge Services 16%
Media Resources, Meetings, and Call Recording 12%
Collaboration Applications 10%
Evolving Technologies v1.1 10%
Learning materials 1.Instructor-led training: Cisco Expert-Level Training For CCIE Collaboration v2.0 Exams

2.Books:
Study Material Exam Resources
Evolving Technologies Study Resources
CCIE Collaboration Learning Matrix v2.0
Evolving Technology v1.1 Learning Matrix

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Cisco Modeling Labs

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Latest 400-051 Practice Questions for Your Cisco CCIE Collaboration Written Certification Exam

QUESTION 1

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. The snippet is part of a PRT log from a jabber for windows user who is unable to login via Mobile
and Remote Access (MRA).which is the root cause of this issue?
A. The Expressway-E certificate is self-signed.
B. _collab-edge_tls.abc.com DNS SRV record is not created in the external DNS server.
C. The Expressway-E is reachable on port 8443 but it rejects the connection due to client -side certificate issue.
D. The user is trying to login from internal company network.
E. The Expressway-E is not reachable on port 8443 due to firewall or network connectivity issue.
Correct Answer: E
 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q2

A network engineer is troubleshooting a NTP synchronized issue in CUCM. Why is NTP unsynchronized?
A. The NTP server used is a Windows based NTP server.
B. The IOS Command NTP server 172.25.140.151 version 3 is advertising NTPv3.
C. The NTP server stratum is higher than four.
D. A firewall is blocking NTP port 123.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching?
A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Answer-address
E. Incoming called-number
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two file transfer protocols are used to send Call Detail Record flat files to third-party billing servers? (Choose
two.)
A. SCP
B. SFTP
C. TFTP
D. FTP
E. SOAP/HTTPS
F. FTP over SSL
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which dial peer will be selected as the incoming dial-peer?

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q5-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which set of information is replaced when Global Dial Plan Replication is configured?
A. Local and learned directory URIs, enterprise alternate numbers,+E.164 numbers, and SIP route patterns throughout
ILS network.
B. Local and learned directory URIs, route partitions, directory numbers, and calling search space.
C. Local and learned directory URIs, enterprise alternate numbers,+E.164 numbers, and number patterns throughout
ILS network.
D. Local and learned directory URIs, translation patterns, +E.164 numbers, and route patterns throughout ILS network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Company ABC is deploying Mobile and Remote and Remote Access (MRA) to allow employees to login jabber clients
from anywhere on the internet.
What is the first DNS query a jabber client attempts to resolve from outside of the corporate network?
A. DNS A record for _cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com
B. DAS SRV record for _cuplogin._tcp.abc.com
C. DAS SRV record for _ cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com
D. DNS SRV record for _cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com
E. DNS A record for _collab-edge._tls.abc.com
F. DNS SRV record for _ collab-edge._tls.abc.com G) DNS A record for the Expressway-E FQDN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco IOS-EX dial-peer command has the lowest preference for inbound SIP dial-peer matching?
A. Answer-address
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Incoming called-number
E. Incoming called-number e164-pattern-map
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which 802.11e user priority value maps to Per Hop Behavior (PHB) CS3 for classification of voice and video control
traffic?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 5
E. 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When a SIP INMTE destined to [email protected] arrives at a Cisco Meeting Server (CMS), which part of the
Request-URI will CMS use to route the call?
A. [email protected]
B. outbound calls rules
C. sip:[email protected]
D. [email protected]
E. Cciecollab.com
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Assuming all route patterns below are configured on a Cisco UCM, which route pattern will be matched when a user
dials 2001?
A. 200[^2-4]configured with urgent priority
B. 200[1-4] configured with nonurgent priority
C. 200x configured with urgent priority
D. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority
E. 200! Configured with urgent priority.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Company ABC is deploying Mobile and Remote and Remote Access (MRA) to allow employees to login jabber clients
from anywhere on the internet.
Which HTTPS request does a jabber client send after it successfully establishes a secured connection with a Cisco
Expressway-E?
A. get_cucm_uds
B. get_user_config
C. get_services_config
D. get_edge_config
E. get_jabber-config
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two types of patterns are always nonurgent in Cisco Unified Communications Manager version 11.0 (Choose
two.)
A. Voice Mail Directory Number
B. Remote Destination Directory Number
C. Voice Mail Pilot
D. Hunt Pilot
E. Route Pattern
F. Translation Pattern
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Audio detection can be used
A. Only with cameras with built in microphone.
B. In all Axis cameras but an extra intelligent video (IV) module is necessary.
C. Only in quiet areas.
D. For detecting a change in decibel levels.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Outdoor ready cameras in the AXIS Q60 Series typically works with 60 W PoE, if we connect it to 30W PoE it will
A. Work for a limited time.
B. Give picture but impossible to pan and tilt.
C. Work but with limited temperature specification.
D. Work but with limited pan and tilt speed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Why is it recommended to make a list of the Axis network video product serial numbers in an installation?
A. It provides an overview of what equipment has been used
B. The product name can be found inside the serial number
C. It make it is easier to identify the camera in AXIS Camera Management
D. It gives the status of the camera or encoder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there\\’s any way to get more of the aisle and less of the shelves on
the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best suggestion to the retailer?
A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm
B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm
C. Using Axis\\’ Corridor Format
D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
If using H.264 compression, in theory, what could a video containing no l-frames look like?
A. The first P-frame is visible during the whole video
B. A black image is visible during the whole video
C. All moving objects will be visible
D. All non-moving objects will be visible
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
The Axis pixel counter allows a user to
A. Convert pixels to actual distances.
B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.
C. Determine the file size for each video frame.
D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When dealing with a complicated lighting scenario, such as a camera inside looking out through bright windows, which
camera would best adapt to the scene to provide the highest image detail?
A. AXIS M3204
B. AXIS P3304
C. AXIS P5534
D. AXIS Q1604
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When using the view area functionality, each view area has its own video stream and (Choose two)
A. Exposure control setting
B. Text overlay setting
C. User credentials
D. PTZ setting
E. Compression algorithm setting
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A customer wants his video surveillance system to completely cover the perimeter of his property. For the installer to
ensure that the camera system is not subject to sabotage, he should
A. Install more low-priced cameras to cover the complete site.
B. Make sure each camera is seen by at least one other camera.
C. Use PoE, and not a PoE splitter.
D. Install thermal cameras.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which is an advantage of the H.264 compression standard?
A. Bandwidth and storage usage is independent of the amount of motion in the video
B. Compared to Motion JPEG. H.264 video reduces the CPU load when viewing the video
C. In most situations, compared to Motion JPEG. H.264 video reduces bandwidth and storage usage
D. The intra-frame coding makes the video less sensitive to network dropouts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The purpose of a DNS server is to
A. Allocate IP addresses to devices within a network.
B. Allocate MAC addresses to devices within a network.
C. Translate host names such as www.axis.com to IP addresses.
D. Translate host names such as www.axis.com to MAC addresses.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Where is the best place to mount a camera with a fixed iris?
A. Outside, on a pole
B. Inside, in a room with large windows
C. Outside, in a shadowed position
D. Inside, in a room with very strong light sources
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft MCSA (Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate)

The MCSA Windows Server 2016 consists of the following exams:

  • 70-740 – Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
  • 70-741 – Networking with Windows Server 2016
  • 70-742 – Identity with Windows Server 2016

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MCSA 70-742 Guide: Prepare & Pass 70-742 Certification Exam With Pass4itsure 70-742 Dumps

Exam 70-740 is an exam you must pass!

Vendor:Microsoft
Exam Code:70−740
Exam Name:Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Related Certification(s):MCSA

You are kept in the loop with all the exam information.(https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-740.aspx)

Practice, practice, practice! ( Microsoft MCSA 70-740 )

This will help you understand how much time you need to answer in each section and will prepare you for the format and type of questions you are asking.

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1
that uses a single VHDX file VM1 is configured shown in the following table You plan to use VM1 as a virtual Machine
Template to deploy shielded virtual machines You need to ensure that VM1 can be used to deploy shielded virtual
machines What should you run?

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q1

A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has ab external virtual switch named
Switch1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 has one network adapter.
The network adapter connects to Switch1.
You need to limit the maximum network bandwidth available to VM1 to 100 Mbps. The solution must limit the bandwidth
for VM1 only.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetAdapter
B. Set-VMNetworkAdapter
C. Set-VM
D. Set-NetAdapterVmq
E. Set-NetworkSwitchPortProperty
Correct Answer: B
The Set-VMNetworkAdapterVlan cmdlet configures virtual LAN settings for the traffic through a virtual network adapter.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Set-NetAdapter cmdlet sets the basic properties of a network adapter such as virtual LAN (VLAN) identifier (ID)
and MAC address.
C: The Set-VM cmdlet configures a virtual machine.
D: The Set-NetAdapterVmq cmdlet sets the virtual machine queue (VMQ) properties of a network adapter. VMQ is a
scaling networking technology for Hyper-V switch that improves network throughput by distributing processing of
network traffic for multiple virtual machines among multiple processors. References:
http://www.itprotoday.com/virtualization/restrict-bandwidth-virtual-machine https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/powershell/module/hyper-v/set-vmnetworkadaptervlan?view=win10-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/powershell/module/netadapter/set-netadapter?view=win10-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/powershell/module/hyper-v/set-vm?view=win10-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/powershell/module/netadapter/set-netadaptervmq?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Windows Application proxy role
service installed.
You plan to deploy Remote Desktop Gateway (RD Gateway) services. Clients will connect to the RD Gateway services
by using various types of devices including Windows, iOS and Android devices.
You need to publish the RD Gateway services through the Web Application Proxy.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You plan to use Windows Server Backup to back up all of the data on Server1. You create a new volume on Server1.
You need to ensure that the new volume can be used as a backup target. The backup target must support incremental
backups.
Solution: You mount the volume to C:\Backup, and you format the volume by using exFAT.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains 25 servers that run Windows
Server 2016.
You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You plan to manage the servers by using Windows Admin Center.
You install Windows Admin Center on one of the servers.
You need to ensure that connections to Windows Admin Center are authenticated by using multi-factor authentication
(MFA).
What should you do first?
A. Install an extension to Windows Admin Center
B. Configure Allowed groups
C. Register the gateway to Azure AD
D. Import a certificate by using Windows Admin Center
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/manage/windows-admin-center/configure/user-accesscontrol

QUESTION 6
In this section, you\\’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem Each question presents a
unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the
solutions
might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q6

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4 Server1 must resolve queries
from all other DNS clients Solution From Windows PowerShell on Setver1, you run the Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor
cmdtel Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a Scale-Out File Server that has a share named Share 1. Sharel contains a virtual disk trie named Diskl.vhd.
You plan to create a guest failovcr cluster.
You need to ensure thai you can use the virtual disk as a shared virtual disk for the guest failove* Cluster.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Oplimize-VHD
B. Convert-VHD
C. Set-VHO
D. Optimtze-VHDSet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
In this section, you\\’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem Each question presents a
unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the
solutions
might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q8

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries
from all other DNS clients.
Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies (NLMP).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a sQUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
eries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,white
others might not have a correct solution.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named
App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consume more than 4 GB of memory. Solution:
You create a performance counter data collector.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has several servers that run Windows Server 2016. Contoso has a Hyper-V
environment that uses failover clustering and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). The environment contains
several
Windows containers and several virtual machines.
The WSUS deployment contains one upstream server that is located on the company’s perimeter network and several
downstream servers located on the internal network. A firewall separates the upstream server from the downstream
servers.
You plan to deploy a human resources application to a new server named HRServer5. HRServer5 contains a
FAT32-formatted data volume.
The CIO of Contoso identifies the following requirements for the company’s IT department:
1.Deploy a failover cluster to two new virtual machines.
2.Store all application databases by using Encrypted File System (EFS).
3.Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
4.Produce a report that lists the processor time used by all of the processes on a server named Server1 for five hours.
5.Encrypt all communication between the internal network and the perimeter network, including all WSUS communications.
6.Automatically load balance the virtual machines hosted in the Hyper-V cluster when processor utilization exceeds 70
percent.
Which networking mode should you configure for the Windows containers?
A. 12tunnel
B. 12bridge
C. network address translation (NAT)
D. transparent
Correct Answer: D
From the scenario:
Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
Transparent mode supports static or dynamic (using external DHCP server) IP allocation and assignment from IP
addresses within container host\\’s network prefix.
Incorrect Answers:
A: L2Tunnel mode is reserved for private and public cloud deployments when containers are running on a tenant VM.
B: L2Bridge mode only supports static IP assignment.
C: NAT is the default network mode and attaches containers to a private IP subnet. This mode supports dynamic IP
allocation and assignment but by Host Networking Service (HNS) from internal NAT subnet prefix.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/container-networking/advanced
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Containers/Windows-Container-Networking/ba-p/382298

QUESTION 11
You have just finished installing Windows Server 2016 on a new server.
Your colleague has informed you that its essential that you must activate Windows Server.
Which of the following command line tools can be used to Activate Windows Server?
A. Netdom C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato
B. Netsh C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato
C. Ocsetup C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato
D. Cscript C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato
Correct Answer: D
The correct answer is Cscript C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato

QUESTION 12
You have a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster 1 that contains four nodes named Server1, Server2, Server3,
Server4, Cluster1 hosts 40 virtual machines that are distributed evenly across the nodes.
Server1 and Server2 are located in a data center in Madrid. Server3 and Server4 are located in a data center in
Barcelona.
You need to ensure that when you pause a node in the other data center.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer present part of the solution.
A. Run the New-Cluster Fault Domain cmdlet.
B. Run the Add-Cluster Group cmdlet.
C. Configure a file share witness for each data center.
D. Run the Set-Cluster Fault Domain cmdlet.
E. Create an Active Directory site for each data center.
F. Change the quorum configuration of the cluster to Node Majority.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual
machine named VM1.
Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and
vSwitch3. You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q13

You need to ensure that VM1 will retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1. What
should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell on VM1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterTeamMapping cmdlet.
B. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings on VM1.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, add the adapter named Ethernet to the NIC team.
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/nic-teaming

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The Microsoft Certification 70-742 exam will impress your resume and will definitely increase your value. But that doesn’t mean you can understate Windows Server 2016. The preparation process plays a crucial role in achieving good end results, and the task is easily accomplished by 70-742 Real Exam Dumps on Pass4itsure. They are the same as real exams and are very trustworthy.Go https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-742.html.

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Now You Know ! | About Microsoft 70-742 Exams

70-742-exam-know

The Microsoft 70-742 exam covers installation, storage, and computing for Windows Server 2016. This exam tests the candidate’s ability to install, configure, and manage Windows Server 2016.should also be familiar implemented and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) ), and Web Application proxy.

Exam Pattern Give the candidate 3 hours and they must resolve 40-60 questions during this time. The syllabus is predetermined and any applicant with a score of more than 70% (700 points) is eligible for certification.
Examination fee $165.Some candidates have special discounts, including Microsoft Certified Trainers, Microsoft Partner Network Program members, and others.
Job ProspectsSystem Administrator
System Engineer
It Professional
Network Engineer
Network Administrato

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Have you applied for the Windows Server 2016 certification exam and are looking for enough help to pass the exam and get the best results?Do you know why many candidates are unable to pass the Microsoft 70-742 certification exam? This is because they lack an appropriate course of action.

Syllabus 1.Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)

2.Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)

3.Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)

4.Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)

5.Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
Learning materials 1.Instructor-led training: 20742A: Identity with Windows Server 2016

2.Books: Exam Ref 70-742 Identity with Windows Server 2016

3.Practice tests: Take a Microsoft Official Practice Test for Exam 742

4. Effective dumps: Pass4itsure70-742 Exam Questions & Answers

5.Video: Latest MCSA 70-742 dumps Practice test Questions and answers

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Pass4itsure MCSA team of experts regularly monitors every update Microsoft makes to your exams and strives to keep 70-742 PDF dumps up to date. After completing the full 70-742 dump course, you will be fully familiar with the structure of the Windows Server 2016 certification exam, which will help you maintain a healthy confidence.

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains 10 domains. The root domain
contains a global catalog server named DC1.
You remove the global catalog server role from DC1.
You need to decrease the size of the Active Directory database on DC1.
Solution: You stop the NTDS service on DC1. You run defrag.exe, and then start the NTDS service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You need to run ntdsutil.exe with the `compact to\\’ option.
References: https://theitbros.com/active-directory-database-compact-defrag/
  

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You are troubleshooting a folder access issue for User1.
You need a list of groups to which User1 is either a direct member or an indirect member.
Solution: You run Get-ADUser –Identity User1 –Property MemberOf.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The Get-ADUser cmdlet does not include the MemberOf property. The command above is, therefore, not valid.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/addsadministration/get-aduser?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service
installed.
You publish an application named App1 by using the Web Application Proxy.
You need to change the URL that users use to connect to App1 when they work remotely.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q3-2

The Set-WebApplicationProxyApplication cmdlet modifies settings of a web application published through Web
Application Proxy. Specify the web application to modify by using its ID. Note that the method of preauthentication
cannot be changed. The cmdlet ensures that no other applications are already configured to use any specified
ExternalURL or BackendServerURL. References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/itpro/powershell/windows/wap/setwebapplicationproxyapplication

QUESTION 4
Your company has a marketing department.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two top-level organizational units (OUs) named MKT_Comps and MKT_Users. MKT_Comps
contains the computer accounts for the computers in the marketing department. MKT_Users contains the user accounts
for
the users in the marketing department.
You link a new Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to MKT_Comps.
You need to deploy a VPN connection to all of the users who sign in to the marketing department computers. The users
must be able to modify the VPN connection settings.
Where in GPO1 should you create the settings for the VPN connection?
A. Computer Configuration/Policies/Administrative Templates/Network/network Connections
B. User Configuration/Policies/Administrative Templates/Network/Network Connections
C. User Configuration/Preferences/Control Panel Settings/Network Options
D. Computer Configuration/Preferences/Control Panel Settings/Network Options
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. IPAM uses a Windows Internal Database.
You install Microsoft SQL Server on Server1.
You plan to move the IPAM database to SQL Server.
You need to create a SQL Server login for the IPAM service account.
For which user should you create the login? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q5-2

References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/yagmurs/2014/07/31/moving-ipam-database-fromwindows-internaldatabase-wid-to-sql-server-located-on-the-same-server/

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an administrative
workstation named WKS1 that runs Windows 10.
You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
You download a custom administrative template that contains the following files:
App1.admx App1.adml You need to ensure that you can configure GPO1 by using the settings in the new administrative
template.
To where should you copy each file? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Web1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to list all the SSL certificates on Web1 that will expire during the next 60 days.
Solution: You run the following command.
Get-ChildItem Cert:\LocalMachine\Trust |? { $_.NotAfter It (Get-Date).AddDays( 60 ) } Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For you convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an
Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q8

Group1 and Group2 contain only user accounts.
Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computer3
that runs Windows 10. Computer3 is currently in a workgroup.
An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain.
From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com
domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1. An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the
SetADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected]
End of repeated scenario.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can convert Group1 to a global group.
What should you do?
A. Add Admin1 to the Enterprise Admin group.
B. Remove all the member from Group1.
C. Modify the Security settings of Group1.
D. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
A partner organization has an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Adatum.com contains an Active Directory Rights Management (AD RMS) cluster installed on a server named
adat1.adatum.com.
Contoso.com contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster installed on a server named
cont1.contoso.com.
You need to allow the AD RMS cluster in adatum.com to accept rights account certificates (RACs) from contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. In contoso.com, import the trusted user domain file from adat1.adatum.com
B. In adatum.com, import the trusted publishing domain file from adat1.adatum.com
C. In contoso.com, import the trusted publishing domain file from cont1.contoso.com
D. In adatum.com, import the trusted user domain file from cont1.contoso.com
Correct Answer: D
References: https://winintro.ru/rms_help.en/html/59c802d0-3982-432c-b06f-3e148dca0166.htm

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located in the perimeter network. You install the Active Directory
Federation Services server role on Server1. You create an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm by using
a certificate that has a subject name of sts.contoso.com.
You need to enable certificate authentication from the Internet on Server1.
Which two inbound TCP ports should you open on the firewall? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. 389
B. 443
C. 3389
D. 8531
E. 49443
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named litwarenc.com and
contoso.com. The contoso.com domain contains two domains controllers named LON-DC01 and LON-DC02.
The domain controllers are located in a site named London that is associated to a subnet of 192.168.10.0/24
You discover that LON-DC02 is not a global catalog server. You need to configure LON-DC02 as a global catalog
server.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the LON-DC02 computer account in Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the NTDS
settings.
B. From the Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-ADOptionalFeature cmdlet.
C. From Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the NTDS Settings object of the London site.
D. From the properties of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU) in Active Directory Users and Computers,
modify the Security settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2016.
You have a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 has two nodes named Server1 and Server2. All the optional
features in Active Directory are enabled.
A junior administrator accidentally deletes the computer object named Cluster1.
You discover that Cluster1 is offline.
You need to restore the operation of Cluster1 in the least amount of time possible.
What should you do?
A. Run the Enable-ADAccount cmdlet from Windows PowerShell.
B. Perform an authoritative restore by running ntdutil.exe.
C. Perform a tombstone reanimation by running ldp.exe.
D. Recover a deleted object from the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named
contoso.com.
The main office contains three domain controllers. Each branch office contains one domain controller.
You discover the new settings in the Default Domain Policy are not applied in one of the branch offices, but all other
Group Policy objects (GPOs) are applied.
You need to check the replication of the Default Domain Policy for the branch office.
What should you do from a domain controller in the main office?
A. From Group Policy Management, click Default Domain Policy under Contoso.com, and then open the Scope tab.
B. From a command prompt, run dcdiag.exe.
C. From a command prompt, run repadmin.exe.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-GPOReport cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft exam certification information

Exam MS-200: Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-200.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

Skills measured

  • Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
  • Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
  • Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)

Microsoft other Certification ms-200 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do?
A. Create a recovery database on another Exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery
database.
B. On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07.
C. Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15.
D. On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then
restore a backup of the database.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains four Mailbox servers.
You are decommissioning a Mailbox server named EX01.
When you attempt to remove one of the mailbox databases from EX01, you receive a warning message that the
database still contains mailboxes.
You run Get-Mailbox -Server EX01 and confirm that all user mailboxes are hosted on other servers.
You need to remove the mailbox database.
What should you do first?
A. Disable circular logging.
B. Move the arbitration mailboxes to another server.
C. Run eseutil /p.
D. Stop the Microsoft Exchange Information Store service.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization.
Users access their email by using a URL of https://mail.contoso.com.
You are installing a new Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server to replace an existing Exchange Server 2016 server.
You need to secure all the Exchange services by using a certificate. The solution must minimize warnings on client
computers.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization for contoso.com that has two Internet-facing servers named
EX01 and EX02.
In the public DNS zone, you have two MX records for contoso.com.
You discover that all email sent to the organization is delivered to EX01. However, when EX01 is down for maintenance,
email messages are delivered successfully to EX02.
You need to ensure that email is delivered to both EX01 and EX02 during normal operations.
What should you modify?
A. the priority of the MX records
B. the properties of the Receive connector on EX01
C. the properties of the Receive connector on EX02
D. the weight of the MX records
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two Active Directory sites in London and Toronto. The London site contains a Mailbox server
named LONEX01. The Toronto site contains a Mailbox server named TOREX01.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that uses a namespace of contoso.com.
You need to ensure that all email sent to an email domain named fabrikam.com flows through the Toronto site.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
You manage a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has 3,000 users. Each user has a company-provided
mobile device that uses Exchange ActiveSync.
You discover that devices running a specific operating system version contain a bug that causes the excessive
consumption of resources on the Exchange servers.
You need to prevent the devices from accessing email until the devices are updated.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-ActiveSyncDeviceAutoblockThreshold
B. Set-MobileDeviceMailboxPolicy
C. New-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule
D. Set-CasMailbox
Correct Answer: C
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/devices/new-activesyncdeviceaccessrule?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You need to configure the virtual directories to meet the technical requirements.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q7

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pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains two Mailbox servers as shown in the following
table.

pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q8

EX01 fails. You do not know how long it will take to recover EX01.
You need to provide all affected users with the ability to send and receive email as quickly as possible.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q8-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/high-availability/disaster-recovery/dial-tone-recovery?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription for a company named Fabrikam,Inc. The company uses an Exchange Online
tenant that has an email domain named fabirkam.com.
Fabrikam works with a partner company Contoso, Ltd. that uses an email domain named contoso.com.
A new security policy at Contoso states that any email sent from partners to Contoso employees must use TLS
encryption.
You need to ensure that email sent from Fabrikam to Contoso uses TLS.
What should you create in the tenant?
A. a new connector that specifies the contoso.com SMTP domain
B. a remote domain named contoso.com
C. a new connector that specifies the fabrikam.com SMTP domain
D. a remote domain named fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: A
Configure a Send connector in Fabrikam to point to Contoso.

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a shared mailbox named Inquiries.
You need to configure Inquiries to meet the following requirements:
A user named User1 must have full access to the mailbox without having permissions to send email messages.
A user named User2 must be able to send email messages that appear to come from the mailbox.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. The company\\’s IT department has a monitoring
application that generates email message alerts.
You need to configure Exchange to accept messages from the monitoring application. The solution must ensure that
messages are accepted regardless of their size.
You create a new Receive connector scoped to the IP address of the server used by the monitoring application.
Which two actions should you perform next? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add the Exchange servers permission group to the Receive connector.
B. Add the Exchange users permission group to the Receive connector.
C. Grant the Ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Any-Recipient right to the NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON user account.
D. Set the authentication mechanism to ExternalAuthoritative.
E. Add the Anonymous users permission group to the Receive connector.
Correct Answer: CE
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/connectors/allow-anonymous-relay?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server named EX01. You run the command as shown in the
following exhibit.pass4itsure ms-200 exam question q12

What is the effect of the configuration?
A. The message tracking log files will be retained for 30 days, and then they will be purged.
B. The message tracking log files will be purged immediately.
C. The message tracking log files will be retained until the directory size limit is exceeded.
D. The message tracking log files will be retailed for 365 days, and then they will be purged.
Correct Answer: C
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-logs/configure-message-tracking?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What
should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
B. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox
databases on each server.
C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
D. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the
databases on another server.
Correct Answer: D

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cisco CCDP 300-320 Online Exam Practice Questions

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QUESTION 1
An OSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors?
A. 100
B. 80
C. 60
D. 50
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What two features are inherent advantages of MPLS VPN services? (Choose two.)
A. service providers can provide additional services
B. virtual private networks segment traffic and ensure privacy
C. easier to troubleshoot than Layer 2 WAN technologies
D. faster data transfer speeds at lower costs
E. functions without Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 3
Two companies want to merge their OSPF networks, but they run different OSPF domains. Which option must be
created to accomplish this requirement?
A. OSPF virtual link to bridge the backboneareas of the two companies together
B. Area on the ASBR of each company with the same area ID to bridge the networks together
C. redistribute routes between domains
D. NSSA on the ASBR of each company
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will result in the most efficient
use of which technology?
A. Layer 3 switching in the core
B. Network Admission Control (NAC)
C. IP telephony (voice and video) services
D. ACLs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is designing an address plan based on network applications. Which application presents the
greatest need for its own address block?
A. IP telephony
B. management
C. multicast
D. physical security
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer wants to ensure that common services communicate to several applications in various EPGs. Which two
features within Cisco ACI accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. filter
B. contract
C. application profile
D. bridge domain
E. tenant
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 7
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco NAC Appliance design is the most scalable in large Layer 2-to-distribution implementation?
A. Layer 2 out-of-band
B. Layer 2 in-band
C. Layer 3 out-of-band
D. Layer 3 in-band
Correct Answer: B
https://www.safaribooksonline.com/library/view/foundation-learning-guide/9780132652933/ch08.html “Layer 2 In-Band
Designs The Layer 2 in-band topology is the most common deployment option.
[…]
This is the most scalable design in large L2-to-distribution environments, because this design can be transparently
implemented in the existing network supporting multiple access layer switches. It supports all network infrastructure
equipment. The Cisco NAS supports per- user ACLs.”

 

QUESTION 9
Which three options are benefits of using VRFs within an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplifies configuration and troubleshooting
B. enables partitioning of network resources
C. enhances security between user groups
D. provides additional redundancy at Layer 3
E. allows for routing and forwarding separation
F. improves routing protocol convergence
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 10
OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when
utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)
A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area
E. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 11
A large-scale IP SLA deployment is causing memory and CPU shortages on the routers in an enterprise network. Which
solution can be implemented to mitigate these issues? (E)
A. An offline router for disaster recovery
B. a CPE device that is managed by the network provider
C. A shadow router
D. A standby router for failover operation
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which technology can block ports to provide a loop-free topology and does not contain a port state named “listening?”
A. VLAN
B. RPVST+
C. VSS
D. STP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which three virtualization categories are in campus networks? (Choose three.)
A. Layer 2 virtualization
B. Layer 3 clustering
C. network virtualization
D. device virtualization
E. network clustering
F. device clustering
Correct Answer: CDF

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication? 
A. Password and passphrase 
B. Fingerprint and retina scan 
C. Hardware token and smartphone 
D. Smart card and PIN 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol? 
A. Document sharing software 
B. Instant messaging software 
C. Conferencing software 
D. Email software 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally protected slogan of a business? 
A. Contract 
B. Patent 
C. Copyright 
D. Trademark 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was
performed? 
A. Data correlation 
B. Data manipulation 
C. Data gathering 
D. Data definition 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants
to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen. Which of the following should be set up to
accomplish this? 
A. Encryption 
B. Compression 
C. Permissions 
D. Auditing 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be
completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue? 
A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN. 
B. Enable task scheduling. 
C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values. 
D. Review the fault tolerance configurations. 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands
should the administrator use? 
A. SELECT 
B. INSERT 
C. DELETE 
D. UPDATE 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following data types should a developer use when creating a variable to hold a postal code? 
A. Integer 
B. String 
C. Float 
D. Boolean 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern? 
A. Eavesdropping 
B. Impersonating 
C. Destructing 
D. Altering 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by
Internet browsing? 
A. Turn on private browsing 
B. Delete browsing history on program close. 
C. Notify when downloads are complete. 
D. Configure prompting before downloading content. 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a
computer program to solve problems. Which of the following is being developed? 
A. Algorithm 
B. Software 
C. Pseudocode 
D. Flowchart 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible. The data does not need to
remain persistent. Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data? 
A. Flat file 
B. Memory 
C. Relational database 
D. Solid state drive 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A desktop administrator just connected a printer to a workstation, but the workstation does not recognize the printer.
Which of the following does the workstation MOST likely need for the printer to function? 
A. Permission 
B. Ink cartridge 
C. USB cable 
D. Driver 
Correct Answer: D

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About the exam

The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:

  • Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
  • Identifying common software applications and their purpose
  • Using security and web browsing best practices

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Which option describes how this Cisco IOS SIP gateway, with an analog phone attached to its FXS port, handles an incoming informational SIP 180 response message without SDP?
A. It will enable early media cut-through.
B. It will generate local ring back.
C. It will do nothing because the message is informational.
D. It will terminate the call because this is an unsupported message format.
E. It will take the FXS port offhook.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) feature allows you to specify whether 180 messages with Session Description Protocol (SDP) are handled in the same way as 183 responses with SDP. The 180 Ringing message is a provisional or
informational response used to indicate that the INVITE message has been received by the user agent and that alerting is taking place. The 183 Session Progress response indicates that information about the call state is present in the
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Prior to this feature, Cisco gateways handled a 180 Ringing response with SDP in the same manner as a 183 Session Progress response; that is, the SDP was assumed to be an indication that the far end would send early media. Cisco
gateways handled a 180 response without SDP by providing local ringback, rather than early media cut-through. This feature provides the capability to ignore the presence or absence of SDP in 180 messages, and as a result, treat all 180
messages in a uniform manner. The SIP–Enhanced 180 Provisional Response Handling feature allows you to specify which call treatment, early media or local ringback, is provided for 180 responses with SDP.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/cube/configuration/guide/vb_book/vb_book/ vb_1506.html

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Which number is sent as the caller ID when a user at extension 5001 places a call that matches this translation profile?
A. 14087775001
B. +4087775001
C. 4087750001
D. +14087775001
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When someone dials 5001, it will match rule 2 because it exactly starts with 5(five) using the ^ sign and ends with [0-9] followed by $. In replace pattern you can see +1408777 & \0 means all set of match pattern. Thus, +14087775001.

 

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profile is also known as best-effort video on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3?
A. homogeneous
B. guaranteed-audio
C. rendezvous
D. heterogeneous
E. flex mode video
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video).
As the name suggests, when Guaranteed Audio Conferences is configured, the system attempts to display video for all participants; however, it does not guarantee that the video of all participants is displayed. For those participants whose
video is not displayed, participants are downgraded to audio-only and the profile guarantees preservation of the audio portion of the call. This option gives you added flexibility because the DSPs are not all reserved when the profile is created;
the system attempts to reserve them when this profile is activated with an actual conference. For example:
dspfarm profile 1 conference video guaranteed-audio codec h264 vga codec h264 4cif
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video- conferencing-isr-routers/qa_c67-649850.html

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls rang both phones and were answered by IP phone 2.
Which option describes what will happen to the third incoming call?
A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call.
B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call.
C. Only IP phone 1 rings and can answer the call.
D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100.
E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As we can see busy-trigger-per-button set to 2 in voice register pool 1(IP Phone 1). So, IP Phone 1’s channel is free for receiving incoming calls and right now IP Phone 2 is busy answering call.

 

QUESTION 5
Which SIP message element is mapped to QSIG FACILITY messages being tunneled across a SIP trunk between two Cisco IOS gateways?
A. SIP UPDATE
B. SIP OPTIONS
C. SIP SUBSCRIBE
D. SIP INFO
E. SIP NOTIFY
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mapping of QSIG Message Elements to SIP Message Elements
This section lists QSIG message elements and their associated SIP message elements when QSIG messages are tunneled over a SIP trunk.

QSIG FACILITY/NOTIFY/INFO
<—>
SIP INFO

QSIG SETUP
<—>
SIP INVITE

QSIG ALERTING
<—>
SIP 180 RINGING

QSIG PROGRESS
<—>
SIP 183 PROGRESS

QSIG CONNECT
<—>
SIP 200 OK

<—>
SIP BYE/CANCEL/4xx—6xx Response
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/sip/configuration/guide/15_0/sip_15_0_book/tunneling_qsig.html

 

QUESTION 6
Which two types of line codes are configurable for an E1 PRI controller on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.)
A. CRC4
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. HDB3
E. ESF
F. SF
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configuring an NM-xCE1T1-PRI Card for an E1 Interface Perform this task to select and configure an NM-xCE1T1-PRI network module card as E1.
SUMMARY STEPS
1. enable
2. configure terminal
3. card type e1 slot
4. controller e1 slot / port
5. linecode {ami | hdb3}
6. framing {crc4 | no-crc4}
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/interface/configuration/12-4/ir-12-4- book/ir-12-port-chann-nm.html

 

QUESTION 7
Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)
A. It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
B. Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
C. It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
D. Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
E. It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
F. The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configure box-to-box redundancy when you:

Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active/standby (only the master CSS processes flows)

Can configure a dedicated Fast Ethernet (FE) link between the CSSs for the VRRP heartbeat
Do not configure box-to-box redundancy when you:

Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active-active (both CSSs processing flows). Use VIP redundancy instead.

Cannot configure a dedicated FE link between the CSSs.

Require the connection of a Layer 2 device between the redundant CSS peers

 

QUESTION 8

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, and the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2.
Which option describes what will happen to the fourth incoming call?
A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call.
B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call.
C. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call.
D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100.
E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IP Phone 1 & 2 both have busy-trigger-per-button configured to 3 & 2 respectively. So, the 4th incoming call will get forwarded to 2100 as busy-triggers are exceeding in IP Phones.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_cr/c me_c1ht.html#wp1570384096

 

QUESTION 9
Which statement describes the question mark wildcard character in a SIP trigger that is configured on Cisco Unity Express?
A. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9.
B. It matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9.
C. It matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
D. It matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
E. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9, when used within square brackets.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Table 5-2 Trigger Pattern Wildcards and Special Characters
Character
Description
Examples
X
The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9.
The trigger pattern 9XXX matches all numbers in the range 9000 through 9999.
!
The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9.
The trigger pattern 91! matches all numbers in the range 910 through
91999999999999999999999999999999.
?
The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
The trigger pattern 91X? matches all numbers in the range 91 through
91999999999999999999999999999999.
+
The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
The trigger pattern 91X+ matches all numbers in the range 910 through
91999999999999999999999999999999.
[ ]
The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values.
The trigger pattern 813510[012345] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105.

The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values.
The trigger pattern 813510[0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105.
^
The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values.
Ensure that it is the first character following the opening bracket ([).
Each trigger pattern can have only one ^ character.
The trigger pattern 813510[^0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135106

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true?
A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs.
B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones.
C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN.
D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone.
E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs.
Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support.
Mid-calls are either of the following:

Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with the phone.

Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered.
Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN.
State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?
A. FXS
B. E&M
C. BRI
D. FXOE. DID
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configuring FXS and FXO Voice Ports to Support Caller ID To configure caller-ID on FXS and FXO voice ports, use the following commands beginning in global configuration mode:
Command
Purpose
Step 1
Router(config)# caller-id enable
Enables caller ID. This command applies to FXS voice ports that send caller-ID information and to FXO ports that receive it. By default caller ID is disabled.
Note
If the station-id or a caller-id alerting command is configured on the voice port, these automatically enable caller ID, and the caller-id enable command is not necessary.
Step 2
Router(config-voiceport)# station-id name name
Configures the station name on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station name on an FXO port of a router for which
incoming Caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber
line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. The name argument is a character string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station. Note This command applies only to caller-ID
calls, not Automatic Number Identification (ANI) calls. ANI supplies calling number identification only.
Step 3
Router(config-voiceport)# station-id number number
Configure the station number on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station number on an FXO port of a router for which
incoming caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber
line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. If the caller-ID station number is not provided by either the incoming PSTN caller ID or by the station number configuration, the calling
number included with the on-net routed call is determined by Cisco IOS software by using a reverse dial-peer search. In this case, the number is obtained by searching for a POTS dial-peer that refers to the voice-port and the destination-
pattern number from that dial-peer is used. Number is a string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station telephone or extension number.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/voice/configuration/guide/fvvfax_c/vvfclid.ht ml

 

QUESTION 12
Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?
A. sequential
B. peer
C. longest idle
D. parallel
E. overlay
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set
whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox.
The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

 

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?
A. o
B. c
C. w
D. x
E. :
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

 

QUESTION 14
Which codec is supported on the Cisco PVDM2 DSP modules but not on the PVDM3 DSP modules?
A. G.728
B. G.729B
C. G.729AB
D. G.723
E. G.726
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All codecs that are supported on the PVDM2 are supported on the PVDM3, except that the PVDM3 does not support the G.723 (G.723.1 and G.723.1A) codecs. The PVDM2 can be used to provide G.723 codec support or the G.729 codec
can be as an alternative on the PVDM3
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/1900/software/configuration/guide/Sof tware_Configuration/pvdm3_config.html

 

QUESTION 15
Which message is used by a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway to send periodic keepalives to its call agent?
A. CRCX
B. AUCX
C. NTFY
D. RQNT
E. 200 OK
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The gateway maintains this connection by sending empty MGCP Notify (NTFY) keepalive messages to Cisco CallManager at 15-second intervals. If the active Cisco CallManager fails to acknowledge receipt of the keepalive message within
30 seconds, the gateway attempts to switch over to the next highest order Cisco CallManager server that is available.
If none of the Cisco CallManager servers respond, the gateway switches into fallback mode and reverts to its default H.323 session application for basic call control support of IP telephony activity in the network.

 

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Which two statements about calls that match dial-peer voice 7 voip are true? (Choose two.)
A. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 use G.711.
B. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 have the Diversion header removed from SIP Invites.
C. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 use NOTIFY-based, out-of-band DTMF relay.
D. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 are marked with DSCP 32.
E. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 are marked with DSCP 34.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Dial peer 7 refers to SIP profile 102, which we can see is configured to have the Diversion header removed from SIP Invites.
Dial peer 7 marks traffic with AF41, which is equivalent to DSCP 34.

 

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam questionWhich two statements about the show command output are true? (Choose two.)
A. T1 0/2/1 terminates Q.921 signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.
B. T1 0/0/0 terminates Q.921 signaling on the gateway.
C. T1 0/0/0 terminates SIP Signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.
D. T1 0/0/0 terminates Q.931 signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.
E. T1 0/2/1 terminates Q.931 signaling on the gateway.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As you can see the T1 0/0/0:23 interface is active in layer 1,2(multi frame established) & 3,it means Q.931 signaling terminates at gateway and using backhauled technique q931 messages are going to CUCM server.
But in case of T1 0/2/1 port multi frames are not established in layer 2.So, it’s not configured properly & doesn’t backhauling q931 messages to CUCM

 

QUESTION 18
When multiple greetings are enabled on Cisco Unity Express, which greeting will take the highest precedence?
A. standard
B. meeting
C. busy
D. closed
E. internal
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Meeting greeting has the highest priority because it is set by the user when he doesn’t want to take the call and notices the caller he is online.

 

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational.
Which option describes what will happen to an incoming call that entered the call queue but all members of the hunt group are in Do Not Disturb status?
A. The call is forwarded to extension 2120.
B. The call is forwarded to extension 2220.
C. The call is forwarded to extension 2003.
D. The call is disconnected with user busy.
E. The call is forwarded to extension 2100.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because all members of hunt group are unavailable or activate DnD and incoming queued call will forward to voicemail using the param voice-mail 2220 command.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/bacd/configuration/guide/cme 40tcl/40bacd.html#wpmkr1105714

 

QUESTION 20
Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.)
A. homogeneous
B. rendezvous
C. guaranteed-audio
D. scheduled
E. guaranteed-video
F. ad-hoc
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Q. What video conferences are supported?
A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice- video-conferencing-isr-routers/qa_c67-649850.html

 

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam questionWhich out-of-dialog SIP OPTIONS ping response put dial-peer tag 1111 into its current operational state?
A. 501 Not Implemented
B. 504 Server Time-out
C. 408 Request Timeout
D. 486 Busy Here
E. 503 Service Unavailable
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIP 503 Service Unavailable is commonly seen in a VoIP network when a SIP device (such as a SIP server) is knowingly unable to process a call. Typically when this happens the endpoint that originated the Invite will try the next available
host it receives in the SIP Contact header.

 

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam questionThe exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
at the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone received an IP address in the correct subnet and with a correct subnet mask from the DHCP
server, but never completed registration with Cisco Unified CM. Assuming the IP phone is correctly defined on Unified CM, which two statements the network components are true? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address of the IP phone is 01ec44761e3e7d.
B. The IP address of the DHCP server is 10.101.15.1.
C. The MAC address of the VLAN 101 interface is 01ec44761e3e7d.
D. The MAC address of the IP phone is ec44761e3e7d.
E. There is no IP connectivity between the VLAN 101 interface of the branch router and the ip-helper address that is configured on this interface.
F. Based on the information provided, we cannot conclude if there is IP connectivity between the IP phone and Cisco Unified CM.Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In the logs the only information that we get is about the mac address of the IP phone because the IP phone is raising the boot request.

 

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

How many simultaneous outbound calls are possible with this Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration on these two phones?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ephone is configured as octo line so maximum call number is 8 and it will be divided between lines.

 

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibitpass4itsure 400-051 exam questionYour customer sent you this debug output, captured on a Cisco IOS router (router A), to troubleshoot a problem where all H.323 calls that originate from another Cisco IOS router (router B) are being dropped almost immediately after arriving
at router A. What is the reason for these disconnected calls?
A. Calls were unsuccessful because of internal, memory-related problems on router A.
B. Calls were rejected because the called number was denied on a configured class of restriction list on router A.
C. Calls were rejected because the VoIP dial peer 1002 was not operational.
D. Calls were unsuccessful because the router B IP address was not found in the trusted source IP address list on router A.
E. Calls were rejected by router A because it received an admission reject from its gatekeeper because of toll fraud suspicion.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trusted source IP address list on router is a list which secures the connectivity of router if it is enabled then we need to give the trusted entry for any route to reach.

 

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

How many simultaneous inbound calls can be handled by these two IP phones?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
E. 10
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The line is configured as shared line so it will support maximum two calls at a time.

 

QUESTION 26
How many signaling bits are there in each T1 time slot using channel associated signaling with Super Frame?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 12
Correct Answer: B
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Each T1 CAS has 24 channels that can transmit 8 bits per channel each. This gives us a total of 192 bits. The T1 has one additional bit for framing, bringing the total to 193 bits. Two types of line coding can be used on a T1 CAS. The first
type of line coding is called Super Frame (SF). This is an older and less – efficient type of framing. Super Frame bundles 12 of these 193 – bit frames together for transport. It then uses the even ?numbered frames as signaling bits. The T1
CAS signaling then looks at every sixth frame for signaling information. This comes out to be 2 bits that are referred to as the A and B bits, which reside in frames 6 and 12.

 

QUESTION 27
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express hunt group mechanisms keep track of the number of hops in call delivery decisions? (Choose two.)
A. sequential
B. peer
C. longest idle
D. parallel
E. overlay
F. linear
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Peer configures hunting in a circular manner among the hunt group member DNs and starts with the DN to the right of the last DN to ring.
Longest-idle specify hunting on the DN which is idle for a longest period of time and the call will go to that DN of the hunt Group.
Reference: http://ccievoice.ksiazek.be/?p=690

 

QUESTION 28
In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones?
A. idle
B. seized
C. alerting
D. ringing
E. connected
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a second time disables SNR.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html

 

QUESTION 29
Which statement about what happens to a Cisco IOS SIP VoIP dial-peer that never received any responses to its out-of-dialog OPTIONS ping is true?
A. Its admin state will be up but operational state will be down.
B. Its admin and operational state will be down.
C. Its admin and operational state will remain up.
D. Its admin state will be up but operational state will be “busy-out”.
E. Its admin and operational state will be “busy-out”.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can check the validity of your dial peer configuration by performing the following tasks:
If you have relatively few dial peers configured, you can use the show dial-peer voice command to verify that the configuration is correct. To display a specific dial peer or to display all configured dial peers, use this command. The following is
sample output from the show dial-peer voice command for a specific VoIP dial peer:
router# show dial-peer voice 10
VoiceOverIpPeer10
tag = 10, dest-pat = \Q’,
incall-number = \Q+14087′,
group = 0, Admin state is up, Operation state is down Permission is Answer,
type = voip, session-target = \Q’,
sess-proto = cisco, req-qos = bestEffort,
acc-qos = bestEffort,
fax-rate = voice, codec = g729r8,
Expect factor = 10,Icpif = 30, VAD = disabled, Poor QOV Trap = disabled, Connect Time = 0, Charged Units = 0
Successful Calls = 0, Failed Calls = 0
Accepted Calls = 0, Refused Calls = 0
Last Disconnect Cause is “”
Last Disconnect Text is “”
Last Setup Time = 0
To show the dial peer that matches a particular number (destination pattern), use the show dialplan number command. The following example displays the VoIP dial peer associated with the destination pattern 51234:
router# show dialplan number 51234
Macro Exp.: 14085551234
VoiceOverIpPeer1004
tag = 1004, destination-pattern = \Q+1408555….’, answer-address = \Q’,
group = 1004, Admin state is up, Operation state is up type = voip, session-target = \Qipv4:1.13.24.0′, ip precedence: 0 UDP checksum = disabled
session-protocol = cisco, req-qos = best-effort, acc-qos = best-effort,
fax-rate = voice, codec = g729r8,
Expect factor = 10, Icpif = 30,
VAD = enabled, Poor QOV Trap = disabled
Connect Time = 0, Charged Units = 0
Successful Calls = 0, Failed Calls = 0
Accepted Calls = 0, Refused Calls = 0
Last Disconnect Cause is “”
Last Disconnect Text is “”
Last Setup Time = 0
Matched: +14085551234 Digits: 7
Target: ipv4:172.13.24.0

 

QUESTION 30
Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)
A. The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
B. Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
C. Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
D. Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
E. Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones.
F. The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.ht ml

 

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Which option describes how this Cisco IOS SIP gateway, with an analog phone attached to its FXS port, handles an incoming informational SIP 180 response message with SDP?
A. It will enable early media cut-through.
B. It will generate local ring back.
C. It will do nothing because the message is informational.
D. It will terminate the call because this is an unsupported message format.
E. It will take the FXS port offhook.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?
A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
B. TEI_ASSIGNED
C. AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT
D. STANDBY
E. INITIALIZED
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you
troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.

 

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

IP phone 1 has the MAC address 11111.1111.1111, while IP phone 2 has the MAC address 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, while the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2. What will
happen to the fourth incoming call?
A. Both phones will ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call.
B. Both phones will ring and either phone can answer the call.
C. Only IP phone 2 will ring and can answer the call.
D. Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2100.
E. Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2200.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In shared line configuration phone share the same line so it is possible for any phone to answer the call.

 

QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

How many calls, inbound and outbound combined, are supported on the IP phone?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 12
E. 50
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Output incomplete to figure out the answer

 

QUESTION 35
In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM-12 DSP hardware based on?
A. C542
B. C549
C. C5510
D. C5421
E. C5409
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
NM-HDV has five SIMM sockets (called Banks) that hold the PVDM-12 cards. Each PVDM- 12 card contains three TI 549 DSPs.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/7x/uc7_0/media.html

 

QUESTION 36
Which enrollment method does a Cisco IOS VPN router trustpoint use to install a Certificate Authority Proxy Function certificate for LSC validation of a Cisco IP phone client?
A. HTTP proxy server
B. certificate authority server URL
C. terminal
D. self-signed
E. registration authority
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Router(config)#crypto pki trustpoint CAPF
enrollment terminal
authorization username subjectname commonname
revocation-check none
Router(config)#crypto pki authenticate CAPF
Router(config)#
Things to Note:
The enrollment method is terminal because the certificate has to be manually installed on the Router.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/authentication- authorization-accounting-aaa/116313-configure-anyconnect-00.html

 

QUESTION 37
Which three options are valid per-session video conference participants supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose three.)
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 9
F. 12
G. 16
Correct Answer: BDG
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The integrated video conferencing services use the same DSP resources on PVDM3s that are used for widely deployed ISR G2 voice capabilities. These modules, in conjunction with Cisco IOS Software, perform audio and video mixing,
video transcoding for certain resolutions, and other functions for video endpoints. PVDM3 modules support flexible media resources and conference profile management to maximize capacity with predictable end-user experiences. Both
homogenous and heterogonous video conferences are supported. A homogenous conference refers to one in which participants connect to the ISR G2 with devices that support the same video format attributes (for example, the same codec,
resolution, frame rate, and bit rate). A heterogeneous conference refers to one in which participants can connect to a conference bridge with devices that support different video format attributes. Each conference allows 4-, 8-, or 16-party
participants.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice- video-conferencing-isr-routers/data_sheet_c78-649427.html

 

QUESTION 38
Which two are characteristics of jitter buffers? (Choose two.)
A. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by turning variable network delays into constant delays at the destination end systems.
B. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by turning variable network delays into constant delays at the sending systems.
C. The role of the jitter buffer is to balance the delay and the probability of interrupted playout due to late packets.
D. The role of the jitter buffer is to queue late packets and reorder out-of-order packets.
E. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by queuing packets into constant delays at the sending systems.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Jitter buffers are used to remove the effects of jitter so that asynchronous packet arrivals are changed to a synchronous stream. The jitter buffer trades off between delay and the probability of interrupted playout because of late packets
(discard).
Reference: http://www.appneta.com/blog/jitter-voip/

 

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam questionThe exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager serverat the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone could not register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. You have confirmed that the IP
phone received an IP address in the correct subnet and with a correct subnet mask from the DHCP server. Assuming the IP phone is correctly defined on Unified CM, which two statements about the network components are true? (Choose
two.)
A. The MAC address of the IP phone is 01ec44761e3e.
B. The IP address of the DHCP server is 10.101.15.1.
C. The MAC address of the VLAN 101 interface is ec44761e3e7d.
D. The IP address of the VLAN 101 interface is 10.101.15.1.
E. There is IP connectivity between the VLAN 101 interface of the branch router and the ip- helper address that is configured on this interface.
F. There is IP connectivity between the IP phone and the ip-helper address on the VLAN 101 interface.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As we can see from the logs given first line relate that dhcp request is being relayed. So it clarifies there must be ip helper address commend given by the admin on interface vlan 101. Now we can see from the second line that giaddress is
set as source address of vlan 101 by the dhcp as 10.101.15.1 to unicast the dhcp request

 

QUESTION 40
Assume the IP address of Cisco Unity Express is 10.1.1.1. Which URL provides Cisco Unity Express end users with a GUI interface to access and manage their messages and mailbox settings?
A. http://10.1.1.1/Web/Common/Login.do
B. http://10.1.1.1/ciscopca
C. http://10.1.1.1/user
D. http://10.1.1.1/inbox
E. http://10.1.1.1/
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
For user access cisco unity has predefined url and it is http://10.1.1.1/user

 

QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit?
A. e&m-wink-start
B. e&m-delay-dial
C. e&m-delay-dial
D. e&m-lmr
E. e&m-fgd
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can’t send ANI.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html

 

QUESTION 42
Which two analog telephony signaling methods are most vulnerable to glare conditions? (Choose two.)
A. FXS Loop-start
B. FXO Ground-start
C. E&M Wink-start
D. E&M Delay-dial
E. E&M Immediate-start
F. E&M Feature Group D
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The loop start signaling method is more common and is typically used by residential phone lines. When a voice port is configured with loop start signaling, the device (telephone) closes the circuit loop that signals the CO voice port to provide
dial tone; an incoming call is signaled on the CO by supplying a predefined voltage on the line. The loop start signaling method has one main disadvantage in that it has no method of preventing both sides of the connection from attempting to
seize the line at the same time; this condition is referred to as glare. Because of this, loop start signaling is typically not used on high demand circuits.
With immediate-start, the calling side of the connection seizes the line by going off hook on the E-lead and address information is sent using dual-tone multifrequency (DTMF) digits. Immediate start signaling is vulnerable to glare just like loop-
start signaling.

 

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a call in queue that was not answered by any member of the hunt group after the maximum amount
of time allowed in the call queue expires?
A. The call will be forwarded to extension 2120.
B. The call will be forwarded to extension 2220.
C. The call will be forwarded to extension 2003.
D. The call will be disconnected with user busy.
E. The call will be forwarded to 2100.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As we can see in the configuration 2220 is configured as voice mail forwarding extension so the call will forward to voice mail.

 

QUESTION 44
Which two statements about the restrictions for support of H.239 are true? (Choose two.)
A. SIP to H323 video calls using H.239 are not supported.
B. Redundancy for H.323 calls is not supported.
C. H.239 calls are not supported over intercluster trunks with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. H.239 is not supported with third-party endpoints.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports a maximum of three video channels when using H.239.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Restriction for Support for H.239
The Support for H.239 feature has the following restrictions:
Interworking SIP-H.323 Video calls using H.239 is not supported.
Redundancy for H.323 calls is not supported.
A fast-start request cannot include a request to open an H.239 additional video channel as it is not supported.
H.239 systems based on H.235 is not supported.
The SBC does not support call transfer for H.323 calls. When an H.323 endpoint is placed on hold, it closes its media as well as video channels.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/sbcu/2_xe/sbcu_ 2_xe_book/sbc_h239.html

 

QUESTION 45
Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router without having to shut and no shut the ports?
A. THL tone sweep
B. original tone sweep
C. ECAN test
D. inject-tone local sweep
E. remote loop
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically
for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test
requires minimal supervision.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance-choice.html

 

QUESTION 46
Which digital modulation method is used to transmit caller ID information on analog FXS ports on Cisco IOS routers?
A. DTMF
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. MF
E. pulse dialing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Link:-http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/vcr1/vcr1-cr-book/vcr-c4.html

 

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Which ds0-group option should you select to send automated number identification information on outbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit?
A. e&m-fgd
B. e&m-fgd
C. fgd-eana
D. e&m-delay-dial
E. fgd-os
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E&M signaling is often the preferred option for CAS because it avoids glare, it provides answer/disconnect supervision and it can receive Automatic Number Identification (ANI) with FGD and send ANI with FGD-EANA. In other words, you can
have 1 channel-group for incoming calls and 1 channel-group for outgoing calls.

 

QUESTION 48
In Channel Associated Signaling on a T1 circuit using Extended Super Frame, how many signaling bits does each T1 timeslot have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 12
E. 24
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Each T1 channel carries a sequence of frames. These frames consist of 192 bits and an additional bit designated as the framing bit, for a total of 193 bits per frame. Super Frame (SF) groups twelve of these 193 bit frames together and
designates the framing bits of the even numbered frames as signaling bits. CAS looks specifically at every sixth frame for the timeslot’s or channel’s associated signaling information. These bits are commonly referred to as A- and B-bits.
Extended super frame (ESF), due to grouping the frames in sets of twenty-four, has four signaling bits per channel or timeslot. These occur in frames 6, 12, 18, and 24 and are called the A-, B-, C-, and D-bits respectively.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/digital-cas/22444-t1-cas- ios.html

 

QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

How many inbound calls can be handled simultaneously between ephone 1 and ephone 2 before a user busy tone is returned?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because hunt stop channel is set to 6 as it enables call hunting to up to six channels of this ephone-dn and remaining 2 channels are available for outgoing call features.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_cr/c me_e1ht.html

 

QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam questionThe exhibit shows an outgoing SIP 401 response message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to a SIP VoIP service provider gateway. Which action can the Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems administrator use to
change the response to “200 OK”?
A. Make sure the gateway IP address of the SIP VoIP service provider is defined correctly in Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk.
B. Enable OPTIONS ping on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk.
C. Disable OPTIONS ping on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk.
D. Create an SIP response alias to force outgoing 401 messages to “200 OK”.
E. Disable digest authentication on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because Right now CUCM challenges the identity of a SIP user agent and must configure digest credentials for the application user in CUCM or you have to disable it for stop challenging by CUCM.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/security/9_0_1/secugd/CUCM_ BK_CCB00C40_00_cucm-security-guide-90/CUCM_BK_CCB00C40_00_cucm-security- guide_chapter_011010.html

 

QUESTION 51
In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM2-32 DSP hardware based on?
A. C5441
B. C549
C. C5510
D. C5421
E. Broadcom 1500
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Table 6-2 DSP Resources on Cisco IOS Hardware Platforms with C5510 Chipset Hardware Module or Chassis
DSP Configuration
Maximum Number of Voice Terminations (Calls) per DSP and per Module
Medium Complexity
(8 calls per DSP)
High Complexity
(6 calls per DSP)
Flex Mode1
(240 MIPS per DSP)
VG-224
Fixed at 4 DSPs
N/A
24 calls per platform
Supported codecs:

G.711 (a-law, mu-law)

G.729a
N/A
NM-HD-1V2
Fixed at 1 DSP
4 calls per NM
4 calls per NM
240 MIPS per NM
NM-HD-2V
Fixed at 1 DSP
8 calls per NM
6 calls per NM
240 MIPS per NM
NM-HD-2VE
Fixed at 3 DSPs
24 calls per NM
18 calls per NM
720 MIPS per NM
NM-HDV2
NM-HDV2-2T1/E1
NM-HDV2-1T1/E1
1 to 4 of:
PVDM2-83 (½ DSP)PVDM2-16 (1 DSP)PVDM2-32 (2 DSPs)PVDM2-48 (3 DSPs)PVDM2-64 (4 DSPs)
Calls per PVDM:
48162432
Calls per PVDM:
36121824
MIPS per PVDM:
120240480720960
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42media.html

 

QUESTION 52
Which Cisco packet voice and video digital signal processor 3 can be used for video mixing on a Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2?
A. PVDM3-16
B. PVDM3-32
C. PVDM3-64
D. PVDM3-128
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All the PVDM3 types (that is, PVDM3-16, PVDM3-32, PVDM3-64, PVDM3-128, PVDM3- 192, and PVDM3-256) support switched-only video conferences. Only PVDM3-128 and higher modules support video conferencing with video mixing,
transcoding and transrating.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video- conferencing-isr-routers/data_sheet_c78-649427.pdf

 

QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational.
How much time does a member of the hunt group have to answer a queue call that is ringing on their extension?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
E. 40 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As you can see the timeout 10 sec in ephone-hunt 1 means hunt group membes have to answer the queued call within 10 sec.

 

QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

This output was captured on a Cisco IOS gateway shortly after it became the active Cisco Unified Border Element in a box-to-box redundancy failover.How many calls are native to this Cisco Unified Border Element?
A. 9
B. 12
C. 19
D. 31
E. 40
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Total no of calls =28+12=40.
So, native calls are =40-9=31.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified- communications/unified-border-element/112095-cube-hsrp-config-00.html.

 

QUESTION 55
Which two responses from a SIP device, which is the only remote destination on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with OPTIONS ping enabled, cause the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”? (Choose two.)
A. 503 Service Unavailable
B. 408 Request Timeout
C. 505 Version Not Supported
D. 504 Server Timeout
E. 484 Address Incomplete
F. 404 Not Found
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The remote peer may be marked as Out of Service if it fails to respond to OPTIONS, if it sends 503 or 408 responses, or if the Transport Control Protocol (TCP) connection cannot be established. If at least one IP address is available, the
trunk is In Service; if all IP addresses are unavailable, the trunk is Out of Service.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_5_1/ccmcfg/bccm- 851-cm/b06siprf.html

 

QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 400-051 exam question

Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a new call that enters the call queue when there are already two calls in queue?
A. The call will be forwarded to extension 2120.
B. The call will be forwarded to extension 2220.
C. The call will be forwarded to extension 2003.
D. The call will be disconnected with user busy.
E. The call will be forwarded to 2100.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
That is because queue over flow is forwarded to 2003 and maximum number of calls in queue is configured as two.

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