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QUESTION 1
A user reports network resources can no longer be accessed. The PC reports a link but will only accept static IP
addresses. The technician pings other devices on the subnet, but the PC displays the message Destination
unreachable. Which of the following are MOST likley the causes of this issue? (Select TWO).
A. Damaged cables
B. Crosstalk
C. Bent pins
D. TX/RX reverse
E. VLAN mismatch
F. Duplex mismatch
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 2
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP
offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following
utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a secure way to connect to a device?
A. RSH
B. TFTP
C. SNMPv2
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The network optimization process used to allow reasonable use of data, voice, and video on the same network
infrastructure is called:
A. CARP
B. QoS
C. Traffic shaping.
D. Fault tolerance.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A network technician is installing a new network switch is looking for an appropriate fiber optic patch cable. The fiber
optic patch panel uses a twist-style connector. The switch uses a SFP module. Which of the following connector types
should the fiber patch cable have?
A. LC
B. ST
C. SC
D. MTRJ
E. MTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A network technician needs to set up an access method for Ann, a manager, to work from home. Ann needs to locally
mapped corporate resources to perform her job. Which of the following would provide secure access to the corporate
resources?
A. Utilize an SSH connection to the corporate server.
B. Use TFTP to transfer files to corporate resources.
C. Allow RDP through an external firewall.
D. Connect utilizing client-to-site VPN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes how a layer 2 switch functions?
A. Switches packets within the same subnet based on MAC addresses
B. Switches packets between different subnets based on IP addresses
C. Switches packets between different subnets based on MAC addresses
D. Switches packets between different subnets based on MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which of the following devices, if implemented, would result in decreased administration time of an 802.11 network
running centralized authentication services? (Choose two.)
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Wireless controller
D. RADIUS server
E. Multilayer switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
A technician is setting up a firewall on the network that would show a public IP address out to the Internet and assign
private IP addresses to users inside the network. Which of the following processes should be set up?
A. Port security
B. MAC filtering
C. ACL
D. NAT
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A network technician notices that most of the nodes in the 10.10.74.0/23 address space return either 1 or 2 node hop
after running a tracert, however, some of the new servers are showing a hop count larger than
A. New servers are being provisioned in the cloud.
B. Those servers have host-based firewalls.
C. Some of the servers are configured to use different gateways.
D. Part of the subnet is configured to use different VLANs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
In the past, users brought personal laptops to the office to bypass some of the security protocols on their desktops. Due
to new security initiatives, management has asked that users not be allowed to attach personal devices to the network.
Which of the following should a technician use to BEST meet this goal?
A. Shut down unused ports on switches
B. Upgrade firmware on network devices
C. Allow only secure protocols on the network
D. Disable unnecessary services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A consulting company was hired to project and deploy a new datacenter in a different city. This new facility must have
the same components installed as the current datacenter to be ready to take over all the network services as soon as
the primary site becomes unavailable. Which of the following describes what will be deployed in the new location?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Off-site backup
E. Infrastructure as a service
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1 

200-201 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
A. SSH
B. TCP
C. TLS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

200-201 exam questions-q2

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on
the Internet. After collecting this packet capture the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the
communication.
Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?
A. Base64 encoding
B. transport layer security encryption
C. SHA-256 hashing
D. ROT13 encryption
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data availability
B. data normalization
C. data signature
D. data protection
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?
A. internet
B. transport
C. application
D. data link
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which event artifact is used to identity HTTP GET requests for a specific file?
A. destination IP address
B. TCP ACK
C. HTTP status code
D. URI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?
A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator
B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access
C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator
D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?
A. identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities
B. detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code
C. conducts vulnerability scans on the network
D. manages a list of reported vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?
A. any potential danger to an asset
B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the application
C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design
D. the individuals who perform an attack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system?
A. application-level blacklisting
B. host-based IPS
C. application-level whitelisting
D. antivirus
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including
email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected
machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.
Which testing method did the intruder use?
A. social engineering
B. eavesdropping
C. piggybacking
D. tailgating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. colo?ur
B. col[0-8]+our
C. colou?r
D. col[0-9]+our
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its
integrity?
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)
Updated: Nov 12, 2020
Q&As: 80

QUESTION 1
Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic URL filtering
B. advanced analytics
C. dynamic data analysis
D. intrusion analysis
E. reputation analytics
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
What does remote access use to verify identity?
A. MFA
B. Agents
C. Remote Access VPN
D. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which two attack vectors are protected by Visibility and Enforcement? (Choose two.)
A. Cloud
B. Mobile
C. Endpoints
D. Email
E. Web
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
What do customers receive when implementing TrustSec?
A. SL decryption enabling secure communications on and off company networks
B. Context-aware access enhancing the forensic capabilities available to their IT team
C. Device profiling and onboarding, enabling businesses to control company role policies across all network services 1
D. Dynamic role-based access control that enables them to enforce business role policies across all network services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
How does AMP\\’s file reputation feature help customers?
A. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
B. It increases the accuracy of threat detection with Big Data analytics
C. It enables point in time detection through a one-to-one engine
D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)
A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)
A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. pxGrid
B. Cisco Security Connector
C. Duo
D. Stealthwatch
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which feature of Cognitive Intelligence can separate statistically normal traffic from anomalous traffic?
A. Event classification
B. Anomaly detection
C. Anomaly modeling
D. Trust modeling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What are two capabilities of Cisco\\’s NGFW Identity Based Policy Control feature? (Choose two.)
A. security enforced at the DNS layer
B. access to multiple data layers
C. access to Trojan downloader
D. see and share malware details
E. threats stopped from getting in and spreading
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
What are two solutions for Cisco Cloud Security? (Choose two.)
A. cloud data security
B. cloud-delivered security
C. advanced network security
D. intrusion prevention
E. cloud security
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
What are three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose three )
A. Roaming Security
B. Advanced Threat
C. Cloud Security
D. D loT Security .
E. Voice and Collaboration
F. Firewalls
Correct Answer: BCD

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CiscoExam Name
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700-765 (80 Q&As)Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

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Cisco CCNP 300-410 Practice Test Questions Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from the
192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address:
10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 ospf database command and is presented with the
output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q3

A. link-local
B. area
C. As (OSPF domain)
D. reserved
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the output of the following command: show ip vrf
A. Show\\’s default RD values
B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF
C. Show\\’s routing protocol information associated with a VRF.
D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not
correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?
A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q6

Refer to the exhibit. An IP SLA was configured on router R1 that allows the default route to be modified in the event that
Fa0/0 loses reachability with the router R3 Fa0/0 interface. The route has changed to flow through router R2. Which
debug command is used to troubleshoot this issue?
A. debug ip flow
B. debug ip sla error
C. debug ip routing
D. debug ip packet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q7

A. The flow exporter is configured but is not used.
B. The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.
C. The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.
D. The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both spoke-tospoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q8

A. Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3.
B. Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
C. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
D. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3.
E. Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for
several service provides. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local
networks to all SP neighbors?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q10

An engineer is monitoring reachability of the configured default routes to ISP1 and ISP2. The default route from ISP1 is
preferred if available. How is this issue resolved?
A. Use the icmp-echo command to track both default routes
B. Use the same AD for both default routes
C. Start IP SLA by matching numbers for track and ip sla commands
D. Start IP SLA by defining frequency and scheduling it
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/200785-ISP-Failover-with-default-routes-using-I.html

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q11

An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired.
Which command fixes the issue?
A. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1
B. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2
C. R1(config)#ip sla track 1
D. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1
Correct Answer: D
Note: By default Static Router AD value-1 hence ip route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0. 1.1.1.1 track 1 means AD-1 which must be
less than of back up route AD.
Define the backup route to use when the tracked object is unavailable.
!— The administrative distance of the backup route must be greater than
!— the administrative distance of the tracked route.
!— If the primary gateway is unreachable, that route is removed
!— and the backup route is installed in the routing table
!— instead of the tracked route.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/200785-ISP-Failover-with-default-routes-using-I.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-generation-firewalls/118962-configureasa-00.html

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration must be configured on the spoke A router to enable a dynamic
DMVPN tunnel with the spoke B router?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?
A. It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
C. It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables
D. It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft Fundamentals DP-900 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
When provisioning an Azure Cosmos DB account, which feature provides redundancy within an Azure region?
A. multi-master replication
B. Availability Zones
C. automatic failover
D. the strong consistency level
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics of real-time data processing? Each correct answer present a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Data is processed as it is created.
B. Low latency is expected
C. High latency acceptable
D. Data is processed periodically
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Your company has a reporting solution that has paginated reports. The reports query a dimensional model in a data
warehouse. Which type of processing does the reporting solution use?
A. stream processing
B. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
C. batch processing
D. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Match the tools to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate tool from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each tool may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
Your company is designing a data store tor internet-connected temperature sensors. The collected data will be used to
analyze temperature trends. Which type of data store should you use?
A. relational
B. columnar
C. graph
D. time series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q6.QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of the Azure Cosmos DB Table API as compared to Azure Table storage?
A. supports partitioning
B. provides resiliency if art Azure region fads
C. provides a higher storage capacity
D. supports a multi-master model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Match the Azure data factory components to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each component
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q8

QUESTION 9
You have the following SQL query.

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NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q9-3

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet.
You recently changed your external IP address.
After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure.
What is a possible cause of the issue?
A. a database-level firewall
B. role-based access control (RSAC)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Domain Name Service (DNS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have an e-commerce application that reads and writes data to an Azure SQL database. Which type of processing
does the application use?
A. stream processing
B. batch processing
C. Online Analytical Processing (OLTP)
D. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Match the types of workloads to the appropriate scenarios.
To answer, drag the appropriate workload type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each workload
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 10 You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet. You recently changed your external IP address. After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure. What is a possible cause of the issue? A. a database-level firewall B. role-based access control (RSAC) C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) D. Domain Name Service (DNS) Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 You have an e-commerce application that reads and writes data to an Azure SQL database. Which type of processing does the application use? A. stream processing B. batch processing C. Online Analytical Processing (OLTP) D. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Match the types of workloads to the appropriate scenarios. To answer, drag the appropriate workload type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each workload type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:

QUESTION 13
You need to develop a solution to provide data to executives. the solution must provide an interactive graphic interface,
depict various key performance indications, and support data exploration by using drill down. What should you use in
Microsoft Power BI?
A. a dashboard
B. Microsoft Power Apps
C. a dataflow
D. a report
Correct Answer: B

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Prepare for your Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification with free AZ-900 exam questions updated.

QUESTION 1
You have an on-premises network that contains 100 servers.
You need to recommend a solution that provides additional resources to your users. The solution must minimize capital
and operational expenditure costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a complete migration to the public cloud
B. an additional data center
C. a private cloud
D. a hybrid cloud
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q3-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/manage-resource-groups-portal
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/bandwidth/

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a Canadian government contractor
B. a European government contractor
C. a United States government entity
D. a United States government contractor
E. a European government entity
Correct Answer: CD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government

QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises application that sends email notifications automatically based on a rule.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure.
You need to recommend a serverless computing solution for the application.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a web app
B. a server image in Azure Marketplace
C. a logic app
D. an API app
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q7-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-upgrade-azure-subscription https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/billing/billing-spending-limit

 QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1.
You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1. VNET1 is deleted
automatically.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. is moved automatically to another resource group
C. continues to function normally
D. is now a read-only object
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

QUESTION 9
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple
subscriptions.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Management groups
C. Azure policies
D. Azure App Service plans
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
You plan to deploy a critical line-of-business application to Azure.
The application will run on an Azure virtual machine.
You need to recommend a deployment solution for the application. The solution must provide a guaranteed availability
of 99.99 percent.
What is the minimum number of virtual machines and the minimum number of availability zones you should recommend
for the deployment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

maeeonline az-900 exam questions-q12-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/availability-zones/az-overview

QUESTION 13
A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 customized virtual machines each week.
Thirty of the virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and 20 of the virtual machines run Ubuntu Linux.
You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the
virtual machines.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances
B. Azure virtual machine scale sets
C. Azure DevTest Labs
D. Microsoft Managed Desktop
Correct Answer: C

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Looking For ISC CISSP test questions 1-12

QUESTION 1
When can a security program be considered effective?
A. Audits are rec/Jarty performed and reviewed.
B. Vulnerabilities are proactively identified.
C. Risk is lowered to an acceptable level.
D. Badges are regiiartv performed and validated
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Changes to a Trusted Computing Base (TCB) system that could impact the security posture of that system and trigger a
recertification activity are documented in the
A. security impact analysis.
B. structured code review.
C. routine self assessment.
D. cost benefit analysis.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
What is the MOST effective method of testing custom application code?
A. Negative testing
B. White box testing
C. Penetration testing
D. Black box testing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
How is remote authentication Dial-In user service (RADIUS) authentication accomplished?
A. It uses clear text and shared secret keys.
B. It uses clear text and firewall rules.
C. It relies on Virtual Private Networks (VPN).
D. It relies on asymmetric encryption keys.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated?
A. The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured
B. A penetration test of the network will fail
C. The network is compliant to industry standards
D. All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which one of the following effectively obscures network addresses from external exposure when implemented on a
firewall or router?
A. Network Address Translation (NAT)
B. Application Proxy
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2
D. Address Masking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating
System (OS) bugs?
A. Check arguments in function calls
B. Test for the security patch level of the environment
C. Include logging functions
D. Digitally sign each application module
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Even though a particular digital watermark is difficult to detect, which of the following represents a way it might still be
inadvertently removed?
A. Truncating parts of the data
B. Applying Access Control Lists (ACL) to the data
C. Appending non-watermarked data to watermarked data
D. Storing the data in a database
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
A software scanner identifies a region within a binary image having high entropy. What does this MOST likely indicate?
A. Encryption routines
B. Random number generator
C. Obfuscated code
D. Botnet command and control
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following
is a PRIMARY security concern?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Ownership
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?
A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack?
A. parameterized database queries
B. whitelist input values
C. synchronized session tokens
D. use strong ciphers
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
What MUST each information owner do when a system contains data from multiple information owners?
A. Provide input to the Information System (IS) owner regarding the security requirements of the data
B. Review the Security Assessment report (SAR) for the Information System (IS) and authorize the IS to operate.
C. Develop and maintain the System Security Plan (SSP) for the Information System (IS) containing the data
D. Move the data to an Information System (IS) that does not contain data owned by other information owners
Correct Answer: C

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Effective EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer
cryptography.
Correct Answer: signature
A digital signature is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography. A digital signature
not only validates the sender\\’s identity, but also ensures that the document\\’s contents have not been altered. It
verifies that the source and integrity of the document is not compromised since the document is signed. A digital
signature provides the following assurances: Authenticity, Integrity, and Non-repudiation. Microsoft Office 2007 Excel
and Word provide a feature known as Signature line to insert a user\\’s digital signature on a document.


QUESTION 2
Which of the following layers refers to the higher-level protocols used by most applications for network communication?
A. Transport layer
B. Link layer
C. Application layer
D. Internet layer
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to
assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Contingency plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Business continuity plan
D. Continuity of Operations Plan
Correct Answer: A
A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often
devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans
include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem,
emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They
are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with
minimum cost and disruption. Answer option D is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that
ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible. Answer option B
is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and
should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other
IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel,
facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for ITrelated infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option C is incorrect. Business continuity planning (BCP) is the
creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or
completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The
logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. The BCP lifecycle is as follows:

Maeeonline 312-38 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
Which of the following forms of recognition of the sender can inform the data receiver of all segments that have arrived
successfully?
A. negative acknowledgment
B. the cumulative reset
C. with block
D. None
E. selective acknowledgment
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a worldwide organization whose mission is to create, refine and promote internet safety
standards?
A. None
B. SPROUT
C. ANSI
D. IEEE
E. WASC
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 6
Which of the following cables is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light?
A. Coaxial cable
B. Twisted pair cable
C. Plenum cable
D. Fiber optic cable
Correct Answer: D
Fiber optic cable is also known as optical fiber. It is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light. It
is of cylindrical shape and consists of three concentric sections: the core, the cladding, and the jacket. Optical fiber
carries much more information than conventional copper wire and is in general not subject to electromagnetic
interference and the need to retransmit signals. Most telephone company\\’s long-distance lines are now made of optical
fiber. Transmission over an optical fiber cable requires repeaters at distance intervals. The glass fiber requires more
protection within an outer cable than copper. Answer option B is incorrect. Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in
which two conductors (the forward and return conductors of a single circuit) are twisted together for the purposes of
canceling out electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. It consists of the following twisted pair cables:
Shielded Twisted Pair: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) is a special kind of copper telephone wiring used in some business
installations. An outer covering or shield is added to the ordinary twisted pair telephone wires; the shield functions as a
ground. Twisted pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers to the telephone
company. Shielded twisted pair is often used in business installations. Unshielded Twisted Pair: Unshielded Twisted
Pair (UTP) is the ordinary wire used in home. UTP cable is also the most common cable used in computer networking.
Ethernet, the most common data networking standard, utilizes UTP cables. Twisted pair cabling is often used in data
networks for short and medium length connections because of its relatively lower costs compared to optical fiber and
coaxial cable.UTP is also finding increasing use in video applications, primarily in security cameras. Many middle to highend cameras include a UTP output with setscrew terminals. This is made possible by the fact that UTP cable bandwidth
has improved to match the baseband of television signals. Answer option A is incorrect. Coaxial cable is the kind of
copper cable used by cable TV companies between the community antenna and user homes and businesses. Coaxial
cable is sometimes used by telephone companies from their central office to the telephone poles near users. It is also
widely installed for use in business and corporation Ethernet and other types of local area network. Coaxial cable is
called “coaxial” because it includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation)
by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis. The outer channel serves as a ground. Many
of these cables or pairs of coaxial tubes can be placed in a single outer sheathing and, with repeaters, can carry
information for a great distance. It is shown in the figure below:

Maeeonline 312-38 exam questions-q6

Answer option C is incorrect. Plenum cable is cable that is laid in the plenum spaces of buildings. The plenum is the
space that can facilitate air circulation for heating and air conditioning systems, by providing pathways for either heated/
conditioned or return airflows. Space between the structural ceiling and the dropped ceiling or under a raised floor is
typically considered plenum. However, some drop ceiling designs create a tight seal that does not allow for airflow and
therefore may not be considered a plenum air-handling space. The plenum space is typically used to house the
communication cables for the building\\’s computer and telephone network.protocols.
Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These are invalid tags.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to
prevent interruptions to normal business activity?
A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Business Continuity Plan
C. Contingency Plan
D. Continuity of Operations Plan
Correct Answer: B
BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes.
The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to
normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan
for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a
predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan.
Answer option C is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong.
Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could
happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions
resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for
initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious
incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer option A is incorrect. Disaster recovery
planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for
resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A
business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis
communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related
infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option D is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the
preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government
operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization\\’s
essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where
normal operations are unattainable.

QUESTION 9
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.The is a communication protocol that communicates information between the
network routers and the multicast end stations.
Correct Answer: IGMP
The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communication protocol that communicates information between
the network routers and the multicast end stations. It allows the receivers to request a multicast data stream from a
specific group address. However, multicast traffic is sent to a single MAC address but is processed by multiple hosts.
The IGMP allows an end station to connect to a multicast group and leave it, while being connected to the group address. It can be effectively used for gaming and showing online videos. Although it does not actually act as a
transport protocol, it operates above the network layer. It is analogous to ICMP for unicast connections. It is susceptible
to some attacks, so firewalls commonly allow the user to disable it if not needed.


QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS
infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management?
A. ANSI
B. IEEE
C. ITU
D. ICANN
Correct Answer: D
ICANN stands for Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers. ICANN is responsible for managing the
assignment of domain names and IP addresses. ICANN\\’s tasks include responsibility for IP address space allocation,
protocol identifier assignment, top-level domain name system management, and root server system management
functions. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is a non-profit organization that oversees the
allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server
system management. Answer option B is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an
organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. Answer
option C is incorrect. The International Telecommunication Union is an agency of the United Nations which regulates
information and communication technology issues. ITU coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum,
promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits, works to improve telecommunication infrastructure in the
developing world and establishes worldwide standards. ITU is active in areas including broadband Internet, latestgeneration wireless technologies, aeronautical and maritime navigation, radio astronomy, satellite-based meteorology,
convergence in fixed-mobile phone, Internet access, data, voice, TV broadcasting, and next-generation networks.
Answer option A is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the
development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of
the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). Longestablished computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
and the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).

QUESTION 11
A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides an
attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform war dialing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ToneLoc
B. Wingate
C. THC-Scan
D. NetStumbler
Correct Answer: CA
THC-Scan and ToneLoc are tools used for war dialing. A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone
numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides the attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Answer option D is
incorrect. NetStumbler is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a,
802.11b, and 802.11g standards. It detects wireless networks and marks their relative position with a GPS. It uses an
802.11 Probe Request
that has been sent to the broadcast destination address.
Answer option B is incorrect. Wingate is a proxy server.

QUESTION 12
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A network is a local area network (LAN) in which all computers are connected
in a ring or star topology and a bit- or tokenpassing scheme is used for preventing the collision of data between two
computers that want to send messages at the same time.
Correct Answer: Token Ring
A Token Ring network is a local area network (LAN) in which all computers are connected in a ring or star topology and
a bit- or token-passing scheme is used in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that want to send
messages at the same time. The Token Ring protocol is the second most widely-used protocol on local area networks
after Ethernet. The IBM Token Ring protocol led to a standard version, specified as IEEE 802.5. Both protocols are used
and are very similar. The IEEE 802.5 Token Ring technology provides for data transfer rates of either 4 or 16 megabits
per second. Working: Empty information frames are constantly circulated on the ring. When a computer has a message
to send, it adds a token to an empty frame and adds a message and a destination identifier to the frame. The frame is
then observed by each successive workstation. If the workstation sees that it is the destination for the message, it
copies the message from the frame and modifies the token back to 0. When the frame gets back to the originator, it
sees that the token has been modified to 0 and that the message has been copied and received. It removes the
message from the particular frame. The frame continues to circulate as an empty frame, ready to be taken by a
workstation when it has a message to send.

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Table of Contents:

  • EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam Video
  • Latest EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Pdf Dumps From Google Drive
  • Effective EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam Practice Questions
  • Pass4itsure Reason for selection

EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam Video

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Effective EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What are the security risks of running a “repair” installation for Windows XP?
A. There are no security risks when running the “repair” installation for Windows XP
B. Pressing Shift+F1 gives the user administrative rights
C. Pressing Ctrl+F10 gives the user administrative rights
D. Pressing Shift+F10 gives the user administrative rights
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Identify the framework that comprises of five levels to guide agency assessment of their security programs and assist in
prioritizing efforts for improvement: A. Information System Security Assessment Framework (ISSAF)
B. Microsoft Internet Security Framework
C. Nortells Unified Security Framework
D. Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Julia is a senior security analyst for Berber Consulting group. She is currently working on a contract for a small
accounting firm in Florida; They have given her permission to perform social engineering attacks on the company to see
if their in-house training did any good. Julia calls the main number for the accounting firm and talks to the receptionist.
Julia says that she is an IT technician from the company\\’s main office in Iowa; She states that she needs the
receptionist\\’s network username and password to troubleshoot a problem they are having. Julia says that Bill
Hammond, the CEO of the company, requested this information. After hearing the name of the CEO, the receptionist
gave Julia all the information she asked for. What principal of social engineering did Julia use?
A. Reciprocation
B. Friendship/Liking
C. Social Validation
D. Scarcity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following equipment could a pen tester use to perform shoulder surfing?
A. Binoculars
B. Painted ultraviolet material
C. Microphone
D. All the above
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which of the following protocols cannot be used to filter VoIP traffic?
A. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)
B. Real-time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP)
C. Session Description Protocol (SDP)
D. Real-Time Publish Subscribe (RTPS)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Firewall is an IP packet filter that enforces the filtering and security policies to the flowing network traffic. Using firewalls
in IPv6 is still the best way of protection from low level attacks at the network and transport layers. Which one of the
following cannot handle routing protocols properly?
A. “Internet-router-firewall-net architecture”
B. “Internet-firewall-router-net architecture”
C. “Internet-firewall/router(edge device)-net architecture”
D. “Internet-firewall -net architecture”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What are placeholders (or markers) in an HTML document that the web server will dynamically replace with data just
before sending the requested documents to a browser?
A. Server Side Includes
B. Sort Server Includes
C. Server Sort Includes
D. Slide Server Includes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Variables are used to define parameters for detection, specifically those of your local network and/or specific servers or
ports for inclusion or exclusion in rules. These are simple substitution variables set with the var keyword. Which one of
the following operator is used to define meta-variables?
A. “$”
B. “#”
C. “*”
D. “?”
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of IDS is being
used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which vulnerability assessment phase describes the scope of the assessment, identifies and ranks the critical assets,
and creates proper information protection procedures such as effective planning, scheduling, coordination, and
logistics?
A. Threat-Assessment Phase
B. Pre-Assessment Phase
C. Assessment Phase
D. Post-Assessment Phase
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages occur in many situations, such as whenever a datagram cannot
reach the destination or the gateway does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram. Each ICMP message
contains three fields: type, code, and checksum. Different types of Internet Control Message Protocols (ICMPs) are
identified by a TYPE field.
If the destination is not reachable, which one of the following are generated?
A. Type 8 ICMP codes
B. Type 12 ICMP codes
C. Type 3 ICMP codes
D. Type 7 ICMP codes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which one of the following scans starts, but does not complete the TCP handshake sequence for each port selected,
and it works well for direct scanning and often works well through firewalls?
A. SYN Scan
B. Connect() scan
C. XMAS Scan
D. Null Scan
Correct Answer: A

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