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Question No : 1
Which of the following is the most significant reason that domestic governments and international organizations seek to eliminate cartels?
A. The increased sales price reduces the amount of corporate tax revenues payable to the government.
B. True competition keeps prices as low as possible, thus increasing efficiency in the marketplace.
C. Small businesses cannot survive or grow without government protection.
D. The economic stability of developing countries depends on a global free market.
Answer: B

Explanation:
A cartel is an organization of sellers (e.g., the oil cartel OPEC) who undertake joint action to maximize members’ profits by controlling the supply, and therefore the price, of their product. Under the laws of many nations, such collusive conduct is illegal when engaged in by firms subject to those laws. The reason is that, as a result of the monopolistic and anticompetitive practices of cartels, supply is lower, prices are high, competition is restrained, and the relevant industry is less efficient. Accordingly, governmental and international organizations seek to protect consumers and the health of the domestic and global economy through anti-cartel efforts.

Question No : 2
When a multinational firm decides to sell its products abroad, one of the risks the firm faces is that the government of the foreign market charges the firm with dumping. Dumping occurs when
A. The same product sells at different prices in different countries.
B. A firm charges less than the cost to make the product so as to enter or win a market.
C. Lower quality versions of the product are sold abroad so as to be affordable.
D. Transfer prices are set artificially high so as to minimize tax payments.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Dumping is an unfair trade practice that violates international agreements. It occurs when a firmcharges a price (1) lower than that in its home market or (2) less than the cost to make
the product. Dumping may be done to penetrate a market or as a result of export subsidies.

Question No : 3
A global firm
A. Has achieved economies of scale in the firm’s domestic market.
B. Plans, operates, and coordinates business globally.
C. Relies on indirect export.
D. Tends to rely more on one product market.
Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Kotler, “Global firms plan, operate, and coordinate their activities on a worldwide basis.” Thus, a global firm secures cost or product differentiation advantages not available to domestic firms.

Question No : 4
A firm expands into international markets to
A. Be in foreign markets.
B. Eliminate foreign competition
C. Pursue new, higher-profit opportunities.
D. Preclude piracy of the firm’s products.
Answer: C

Explanation:
A firm may decide to go abroad for many reasons, for example, to respond to a competitive challenge in its home country by another global firm, to pursue opportunities yielding greater profits, to achieve economies of scale, to diversify, or to follow customers who need international service.

Question No : 5
A firm wishing to become global must consider how many national markets to enter. A firm should enter fewer national markets when
A. Communication adaptation costs are low.
B. The product need not be adapted.
C. Entry costs are low.
D. The first countries chosen are heavily populated and have high incomes.
Answer: D

Explanation:
According to Ayal and Zif, the following are factors indicating that few national markets should be entered:
(1)
entry costs are high;

(2)
market control costs are high;

(3)
product adaptation costs are high;

(4)
communication adaptation costs are high;

(5)
the first countries selected have large populations, high incomes, and high income growth;

(6)
a dominant firm can erect high entry barriers.

Question No : 6
The least risky method of entering a market in a foreign country is by
A. Indirect exports.
B. Licensing.
C. Direct exports.
D. Direct investments.
Answer: A

Explanation:
An indirect export strategy operates through intermediaries, such as home-country merchants who buy and resell the product, home-country agents who negotiate
transactions with foreign buyers fora commission, cooperatives that represent groups of sellers, and export-management firms that receive fees for administering the firm’s export efforts. Indirect export requires lower investment than direct export and is less risky because of the intermediaries’ expertise.

Question No : 7
An advantage of a direct investment strategy when entering a foreign market is
A. Reduction in the capital at risk.
B. Shared control and responsibility.
C. Assurance of access when the foreign country imposes domestic content rules.
D. Avoidance of interaction with the local bureaucracy.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Direct investment has many advantages:
(1)
cheaper materials or labor,

(2)
receipt of investment incentives from the host government,

(3)
a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country,

(4)
control of the investment,

(5)
a better image in the host country,

(6)
market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.

Question No : 8
A firm that moves from not exporting on a regular basis to establishing plants in foreign countries has
A. Globalized.
B. Nationalized.
C. Glocalized.
D. Internationalized.
Answer: D

Explanation:
The internationalization process is of crucial interest to nations that wish to encourage local firms to grow and to operate globally. According to Swedish researchers, it involves the following steps:
(1)
Lack of regular exports;

(2)
export via independent agents with a few markets, with later expansion to more countries;

(3)
creation of sales subsidiaries in larger markets;

(4)
establishment of plants in foreign countries.

Question No : 9
Which strategy for a global marketing organization is based on a portfolio of national markets?
A. reaction of a division to manage international marketing.
B. A multinational strategy.
C. A global strategy.
D. Creation of an export department
Answer: B

Explanation:
International marketing efforts take three basic forms:creation of an export department, creation of a division to manage international marketing, or global organization. The latter encompasses genuinely worldwide functions, e.g., manufacturing, marketing, finance, and logistics. Thus, worldwide operations are the organization’s focus, not merely that of a department or division of a national firm. A global organization may follow a multinational, global, or glocal strategy. A multinational strategy adopts a portfolio approach. Its emphasis is on national markets because the need for global integration is not strong. The product is customized for each market and therefore incurs higher production costs. Decision making is primarily local with a minimum of central control. This strategy is most effective given large differences between countries. Also, exchange rate risk is reduced when conducting business in this manner.

Question No : 10
Which strategy for a global marketing organization balances local responsiveness and global integration?
A. Global.
B. Multinational.
C. Glocal.
D. Transnational.
Answer: C

Explanation:
A glocal strategy combines some elements of local responsiveness or adaptation with some elements of global integration. Successful telecommunications firms are examples of balancing these elements. Local responsiveness is indicated when local product tastes and preferences, regulations, and barriers are significant. Global integration is indicated when demand is homogeneous and economies of productive scale are large.

Question No : 11
The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a common currency has been adopted by the nations of:
A. NAFTA.
B. Mercosul.
C. APEC.
D. The European Union.
Answer: D

Explanation:
The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The euro is the common currency of the European Union.

Question No : 12
The three major factors favoring globalization are
A. Cultural, commercial, and technical.
B. Flexibility, proximity, and adaptability.
C. Political, technological, and social.
D. Ambition, positioning, and organization.
Answer: C

Explanation:
The new economy is driven by the digital revolution that facilitates international commerce by providing capabilities that did not exist a relatively few years ago. It is also driven by such political events as the fall of the Soviet Union, the participation of China in the world economic system, the emergence of the European Union, and the creation of other regional free trade zones. These technological and political factors are intertwined with social changes, for example, greater concern for the rights of women and minorities; the advance of multilingualism; and the convergence of tastes in fashion, music, and certain other cultural factors. Accordingly, these factors favor globalization by reducing trade barriers, reducing cost of coordination, increasing economies of scale, and encouraging standardization and global branding.

Question No : 13
Which method of expanding into international markets is most likely the riskiest?
A. A local storage and sale arrangement.
B. Local component assembly.
C. Direct investment.
D. Joint venture.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Direct investment has many advantages:
(1)
cheaper materials or labor,

(2)
receipt of investment incentives from the host government,

(3)
a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country,

(4)
control of the investment,

(5)
a better image in the host country,

(6)
market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.

Question No : 14
Which strategy for a global marketing organization emphasizes relatively strong central control?
A. Global.
B. Multinational.
C. Creation of an international division.
D. Global
Answer: A

Explanation:
A global strategy regards the world as one market. The product is essentially the same in all countries. Central control of the production process is relatively strong. Faster product development and lower production cost are typical.

Question No : 15
Which of the following is a regional free-trade zone currently limited to South American nations?
A. APEC
B. Mercosul.
C. The Triad Market.
D. NAFTA.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Mercosul is a free-trade agreement among South American nations. They include Argentina, Brazil, Uruguay, and Paraguay. Chile and Bolivia are associate members.

Question No : 16
A country has a comparative advantage in international trade when
A. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of natural resources.
B. It has an absolute advantage with respect to at least one input to production.
C. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of transportation and other geographic factors.
D. It produces whatever it can produce most efficiently.
Answer: D

Explanation:
A country has a comparative advantage when it can achieve a lower cost of production due to a focus on and a cooperative specialization in a particular product. The greatest advantage from trade is obtained when each nation specializes in producing what it can produce most efficiently. If nations specialize and then exchange with others, more is produced and consumed than if each nation tries to be self-sufficient. Specialization of labor is beneficial for individuals; the same principle applies to nations.

Question No : 17
Michael E Porter developed what is popularly known as the diamond model for determining national advantages in the global business environment. According to this model.
A. Factor conditions are production advantages that are nature-made or inherited.
B. Foreign markets exert less influence than home markets on a firm’s ability to detect demand trends.
C. Reliance on related and supporting industries in the home country weakens a firm’s international competitiveness.
D. Cooperation with domestic competitors clearly aids international competitiveness.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Home demand conditions determine the inherent demand for goods or services that originate within the home country. Porter believes that home markets exert a much higher influence on a firm’s ability to recognize consumer trends than those in a foreign market. Moreover, home demand offsets innovation and product development. Home demand is a function of
(1)
the mixture of customer needs and wants,

(2)
their scope and growth rate,

(3)
the means by which domestic preferences are communicated to international markets. Moreover, a national advantage is achieved when home demand provides more timely and clear trend indicators to domestic firms than to foreign firms.

Question No : 18
A. U.S firm most likely may decide to enter the Australian market because of
B. Geography.
C. The unmet needs of an undeveloped country.
D. Psychic proximity.
E. Population.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Attractiveness of a foreign market is a function of such factors as geography, income, climate, population, and the product. Another major factor is the unmet needs of a developing nation, for example, China or India. Entry into a market abroad may be based on many factors, for example, psychic proximity. Thus, a first-time venture abroad might be in a market with a related culture, language, or laws.
Question No : 19
Firms that sell products worldwide are most likely to have the lowest costs with a marketing mix that is
A. Adapted to each market.
B. Standardized for all markets.
C. A combination of new and adapted products in each market.
D. A combination of standardized products and adapted promotions.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Firms that operate globally must choose a marketing program after considering the need for adaptation to local circumstances. The possibilities lie on a continuum from a purely standardized marketing mix to a purely adapted marketing mix. The former chooses to standardize products, promotion, and distribution. The latter adapts the elements of the mix to each local market. Worldwide standardization of all elements should be the lowest cost marketing strategy. However, even well established global brands ordinarily undergo some adaptation to local markets.

Question No : 20
A firm sells the same product in different countries and uses the same promotion methods. According to keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, this firm has adopted a strategy of
A. Straight extension.
B. Product adaptation.
C. Product invention.
D. Dual adaptation.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Using a straight extension strategy, a higher profit potential exists because virtually no changes are made in the products or its promotion. There is a downside potential if foreign consumers are not familiar with this type of product or do not readily accept it.
Question No : 21
A firm wishing to sell its well-known brand of men’s clothing in a certain foreign country redesigned the products because of the greater average size of consumers in that country. However, the firm retained the same basic advertising campaign. According to Keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, this firm has adopted a strategy of
A. Straight extension.
B. Product adaptation.
C. Forward invention.
D. Backward invention.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Using a product adaptation strategy, a firm makes changes to the product for each market but not its promotion. This can reduce profit potential but may also provide a marketing advantage by taking into account local wants and needs.

Question No : 22
A firm that manufactures refrigerators sold ice boxes in urban areas of less developed countries. Many residents lacked electricity to power refrigerators but could purchase blocks of ice from local vendors for use in ice boxes. According to Keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, this firm adopted a strategy of
A. Product adaptation.
B. Dual adaptation.
C. Backward invention.
D. Forward invention.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Using a product invention strategy, a new product is created specifically for a certain country or regional market. A product may either include advancements for developed countries or have certain elements removed in places where a lower cost is a key selling point. Thus, an ice box, a precursor of the modern refrigerator, is a backward invention.

Question No : 23
Gray market activity is in essence a form of arbitrage. To prevent this activity by their distributors, multinational firms:
I. Raise prices charged to lower-cost distributors.
II. Police the firms’ distributors.
III.
Change the product.

A.
I only.

B.
I and II only.

C.
II and Ill only.

D.
I, II, and Ill.
Answer: D

Explanation:
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying to make a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. These activitiesclearly lower the profits in some markets of the multinational firm that was the initial seller. One response is to monitor the practices of distributors and retaliate if necessary. A second response is to charge higher prices to the low-cost distributors to reduce their incentives to participate in a gray market. A third response is to differentiate products sold in different countries, e.g., by adapting the product or offering distinct service features.

Question No : 24
A firm buys new computer equipment from bankrupt companies and resells it in foreign markets at prices significantly below those charged by competitors. The firm is
A. Engaged in dumping.
B. Engaged in price discrimination.
C. Operating in a gray market.
D. Operating in a black market.
Answer: C

Explanation:
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying to make a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. In essence, the seller firm in this case was exploiting a price difference between markets.

Question No : 25
A firm ships its product to a foreign subsidiary and charges a price that may increase import duties but lower the income taxes paid by the subsidiary. The most likely reason for these effects is that the:
A. Price is an arm’s-length price.
B. Price is a cost-plus price.
C. Transfer price is too low.
D. Transfer price is too high.
Answer: D

Explanation:
A transfer price is the price charged by one subunit of a firm to another. When the subsidiarybuyer is in a foreign country, the higher the transfer, the higher the potential tariffs.However, the tax levied on a subsequent sale by the subsidiary will be lower because of its higher acquisition cost.

Question No : 26
A global firm establishes a cost-based price for the firm’s product in each country. The most likely negative outcome is that this pricing strategy will
A. Set too high a price in countries where the firm’s costs are high.
B. Overprice the product in some markets and underprice the product in others.
C. Create a gray market.
D. Result in dumping.
Answer: A

Explanation:
A firm may set a cost-based price in each market with a standard markup. In a region or country where costs are high, this strategy may result in prices that are too high to be competitive within the local market.

Question No : 27
A firm sells its product in a foreign market for a much higher price than in the firm’s home market. The reason is most likely:
A. Price elasticity of demand.
B. Dumping.
C. Gray market activity.
D. Price escalation.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Price escalation is caused by an accumulation of additional costs, e.g., currency fluctuations; transportation expenses; profits earned by importers, wholesalers, and retailers; and import duties.

Question No : 28
A firm sold the same product in many foreign countries but changed the ad copy to allow for language and cultural differences. According to teegan’s model of adaptation strategies, the firm adopted a strategy of:
A. Product adaptation.
B. Communication adaptation.
C. Dual adaptation.
D. Straight extension.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Communication adaptation is a strategy that does not change the products, but advertising and marketing campaigns are changed to reflect the local culture and beliefs. For example, a firm may use one message but with changes in language, name, and colors. It may use a consistent theme but change the ad copy in each market. Another option is for a firm to devise a group of ads from which each market may choose the most effective. Still another option is to develop promotion campaigns locally.

Question No : 29
A firm that sells in foreign markets should consider all aspects of how products move from the firm to ultimate users. Where in the whole channel are marketing mix decisions most likely made?
A. Export department of the seller firm.
B. Import department of the buyer firm.
C. Channels within nations.
D. Channels between nations.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Distribution channels are a necessity to ensure that goods are successfully transferred from the production facility to end users. These channels include three distinct links that must work smoothly together.
1.
The international marketing headquarters (export department of international division) is where decisions are made with regard to the subsequent channels and other aspects of the marketing mix.

2.
Channels between nations carry goods to foreign borders. They include air, land, sea, or rail transportation channels. At this stage, in addition to transportation methods, intermediaries are selected (e.g., agents or trading companies) and financing and risk management decisions are reached.

3.
Channels within nations take the goods from the border or entry point to the ultimate users of the products. Among nations, the number of levels of distribution, the types of channels, and the size of retailers vary substantially.
Question No : 30
The inherent attractiveness of a national market is most likely increased by which factor?
A. The firm’s strategic position.
B. The market’s exclusion from a regional free trade zone.
C. Unmet needs of a developing nation.
D. Product adaptation is costly.
Answer: C

Explanation:
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What is required to use Desktop and Mobile Architecture for System Hardware (DASH) or HP computer systems?
A. The system must be bootable to Windows
B. The system must have an HP_T0OLS utility partition
C. A specialized USB key must be connected
D. Special DASH hardware must be built in to computer
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
On which standard 15 Desktop and Mobile Architecture for System Hardware (DASH) based?
A. DMTF
B. IEEE
C. UEFI
D. USB 2.0
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
How do you access HP System Diagnostics (UEFI) on an HP computer’?
A. Press the F2 key at the BIOS system Startup Menu
B. Use a local CD ROM disk that contains the UEFI system files
C. Press the F8 key after the BIOS system Startup Menu displays
D. Navigate to the \HP_TOOLS directory of the boot disk and run SystemDiags.exe.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
How can you run HP Vision Diagnostics? (Select two)
A. from a USB Key
B. from a CD ROM disk
C. as a Web-browser hosted Java application
D. as an installed Windows executable application

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QUESTION 1
What does it mean when a device supply reaches the <Supply> Very Low state?
A. The user must replace the specified supply
B. The HP Premium Protection warranty on that supply has ended
C. The specified supply is at or below 20%.
D. The device will not accept any new print jobs until the specified supply is replaced

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
When is it NOT possible to return a newly-installed fuser to HP as new or to install it in another device as unused’?
A. immediately upon installation
B. after 50 pages have printed
C. after 100 pages have printed
D. after 500 pages have printed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
What is one characteristic of the control panel on the HP LaserJet Enterprise 600 M601, M602, and M603 Series Printer?
A. It is designated as a Customer Self-Repair (CSR) part
B. It is not designated as a CSR part
C. It contains a monochrome, graphical display
D. It is a touchscreen graphical display

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
For which reason should a used inter-connect board (ICB) never be installed in another engine’?
A. Each ICB contains device-specific data, which would corrupt critical values in another engine.
B. The ICB is hard-keyed tothe device it is installed onand attempting to install it in another engine could damage the ICB
C. The ICB installs an encrypted Key on the formatter Replacing theICB corrupts the formatter Keynrequiring a formatter replacement.
D. There is a risk that the low voltage power supply would burn an ICB that is not factory calibrated to it.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
What monitors the remaining toner level in a print cartridge?
A. the DC controller via the high-voltage power supply
B. the inter-connect board via the low-voltage power supply
C. the formatter via the toner collection unit
D. the hard disk via the toner collection unit

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the maximum envelope capacity of the optional envelope feeder for the HP LaserJet Enterprise

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QUESTION NO: 1
How many motors do HP LaserJet 5200 series printers contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
What printer drivers are included on the inbox CD for the HP LaserJet 5200 series printer? Select THREE.
A. Linux
B. PCL 5e
C. PostScript 3
D. PCL 6
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 3
When removing/replacing the assembly, for which internal assembly must you first remove the cartridge door unit?
A. control panel assembly
B. laser/scanner assembly
C. face down delivery unit
D. cassette-paper pickup unit
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following are customer self-repair parts? Select THREE.
A. tray 1 pickup roller
B. formatter
C. memory DIMMs
D. main fan duct
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 5
The HP LaserJet 5200L comes with which two of the following? Select TWO.
A. 500-sheet input tray
B. one open DIMM slot
C. duplex unit
D. hi-speed USB 2.0 port
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
What type of page would you print for information about jams, loading trays, or supported media types and sizes?
A. Show Me How
B. Configuration
C. Device Information
D. Self-help
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
Which unit, or units, must be removed when removing the high-voltage power supply?
A. cartridge door unit
B. registration unit
C. both the cartridge door unit and the registration unit
D. neither the cartridge door unit nor the registration unit
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
What is the heaviest paper supported in trays 2 and 3 on the HP LaserJet 5200 series printer?
A. 75 g/m2 (20 lb)
B. 90 g/m2 (24 lb)
C. 120 g/m2 (32 lb)
D. 199 g/m2 (53 lb)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
What happens if the formatter and DC controller are replaced at the same time?
A. The NVRAM remains blank and the printing device needs to be reset.
B. The ‘Save and Restore’ feature does not properly store new memory on the NVRAM.
C. The printing device perceives the DC controller as being reused, and rejects the new controller.
D. The printing device does not recognize the newly applied serial number, and does not come to a ‘Ready’ state during power-up.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
After a formatter is replaced, how much time is needed after the device comes to ‘Ready’ for the NVRAM settings to be rewritten?
A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 7 minutes
Answer: C

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Which Task Automation discovery questions should you ask an IT executive in order to uncover a Database and Middleware Management pain point? (Select two.)
A. What challenges do you have in maintaining the patching and upgrading of your database and middleware estate?
B. Do you have the ability to integrate database fault, availability, performance, and configuration management?
C. Do you have challenges securing the environments that host your database systems?
D. How do you guarantee that your database-related service desk tickets are prioritized?
E. Are you heavily reliant on senior Database administrators and proprietary scripting mechanisms?

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
A customer has purchased Server Automation Ultimate Edition and also uses HP Operations Manager.
What is a natural up-sell for this customer?
A. HP Operations Orchestration
B. HP Quality Center
C. HP Performance Center
D. HP Vertica

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which customer profile is the best target for HP Software Task Automation solutions? (Select three.)
A. customers who want to provide traceability from performance requirements to defects
B. customers looking to pinpoint the root causes of application issues
C. customers struggling to patch their Oracle database estate on a regular basis
D. customers with 2.000+ Windows/Linux servers
E. customers with high database-to-administrator ratios
F. customers with low server-to-administrator ratios

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software Database and Middleware Automation solution? (Select two.)
A. error-prone and resource-intensive patching of the Oracle database estate
B. no visibility from the database layer down to the spindle layer
C. no system in place to capture time value of data, coupled with immediate rich analytics insight
D. unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
E. senior database administrators who are highly reliant on scripting mechanisms

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Which HP Server Automation Premium value best resonates with the persona involved in Task Automation?
A. comprehensive and continuous compliance auditing and remediation
B. integration of server monitoring and universal log management, further reducing the time to troubleshoot tough-to-diagnose problems
C. prevention of issues by detecting bottlenecks and obtaining an accurate picture of end-to-end system performance
D. virtualization of production network conditions to accurately emulate and test application performance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which discovery questions should you ask an IT executive to uncover Task Automation opportunities? (Select two.)
A. Are you able to trace real user transactions across application tiers to speed resolution times?
B. Do you have the ability to integrate server fault, availability, performance, and configuration management?
C. Are you looking to accelerate query performance with a column-oriented, pattern-matching technology?
D. What are your challenges regarding regulatory and enterprise standard compliance fulfilment?
E. How quickly and easily can you deploy security patches?

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 7
What is the primary capability of the HP Server Automation Ultimate Edition solution that differentiates HP from its competitors?
A. Server Automation Ultimate Edition is highly scalable, managing 100,000+ servers.
B. Server Automation Ultimate Edition provides regulatory compliance for globally distributed data centers.
C. Server Automation Ultimate Edition enables the distribution of Microsoft security updates.
D. Server Automation Ultimate Edition automates server lifecycle management.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software Cloud and Automation Suite Ultimate Edition solution? (Select two.)
A. unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
B. no log management solution to collect, unify, and search machine data
C. no system to manage software and infrastructure components along with associated relationships and dependencies
D. inability to trace real user transactions across application tiers to speed resolution times
E. inability to audit Cisco routers down to the keystroke change level

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Server Automation Premium Edition solution? (Select two.)
A. The patching of the Oracle database estate is resource-intensive.
B. Fulfilling PCI compliance requirements in a timely manner is impossible.
C. There is no tracking of storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level.
D. Mean time to repair (MTTR) of network devices is too long, resulting in failed SLAs.
E. Change execution is slow and error-prone.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10

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QUESTION 1
What is a main difference between Performance Center and LoadRunner?
A. It allows management of all test users, resources, and assets in a centralized way.
B. It allows scheduling a delayed test start, even if the test operator is away.
C. It allows dynamic distribution of test load to different Load Generators
D. It allows concurrent load testing by different members of the team, provided more than one controller is licensed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which action can you perform from the Load Test Run page?
A. Identify the location for the load test results.
B. View online monitor graphs.
C. Establish the correct ramp-up rate for each Vuser group.
D. Enable diagnostics for a limited percentage of running Vusers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which components can you check by using the System Health of ALM? (Select three.)
A. All client-side standalone installations, like VuGen or Analysis
B. ALM database
C. One or more Performance Center Hosts
D. MIListener Installations
E. One or more Performance Center Servers
F. ALM platform
G. clients that access the ALM user site

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 4
What should you do when reserving timeslots? (Select two.)
A. Always create ad-hoc timeslots
B. Add all hosts with any status to a timeslot.
C. Add monitor profile.
D. Add at least 15 minutes to collate results in your timeslot.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
When is monitoring data collected for the analysis?
A. At the end of the load test
B. As designed in Tools > Options
C. As designed in Controller Options
D. As designed in Timeslot Options
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which services are required to be up and running on all PC servers and hosts before you install Performance Center?
A. IPSEC Services, RPC, and NTLM Security support provider
B. IPSEC Services, Distributed Transaction Coordinator, and RPC
C. NTLM Security support provider Task Manager, and RPC
D. Remote Registry Service. IPSEC Services, and Distributed Transaction Coordinator

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What information is required to add a Performance Center Server in the Lab Management?
A. Proxy port
B. Internal URL
C. Local machine key
D. Password

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What is System Health Orphan Run Task?
A. A manual task that runs on demand and identifies orphan test runs during the active timeslot.
B. A scheduled task that runs, by default, four times per hour and identifies orphan test runs during the active timeslot.
C. A scheduled task that runs, by default, one time per minute and identifies orphan test runs during the active timeslot.
D. A scheduled task that runs, by default, four times per hour and identifies orphan test runs during and outside the active timeslot.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which step or piece of information is mandatory when creating a project? (Select two)
A. Project domain
B. Set a Vuser limit.
C. Create a single Project Administrator.
D. Assign more than one Project Administrator.
E. Project name
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
To create a monitor profile, which steps are necessary? (Select three)
A. Install or configure monitoring components on the server machine
B. Configure Proxy Settings.
C. Configure SiteScope.
D. Add Monitors to the profile.
E. Configure DNS
F. Create Test Resources from the Test Resources module.
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 11
How is secure communication accomplished between the ALM platform and the Performance Center components?
A. Via encryption, based on a predetermined passphrase
B. Via a dedicated Virtual Private Network
C. Via encryption, based on the user’s own password
D. Via a 24-digit password

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Aside from the required pre-installation software, which type of software does a Performance Center machine need?
A. Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. Strawberry Perl 5.10.1
C. VuGen Standalone software
D. VuGen and Analysis Standalone software

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which tool enables you to set the initial security settings locally on each host?
A. Site Administration
B. Host Security Manager
C. Lab Management
D. Host Security Setup utility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which step is part of the load test launch process?
A. Collate temporary results from Load Generators.
B. Reserve Timeslots
C. Analyze the Application Under Test.
D. Identify top time transactions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
What is a general run time setting for all protocols?
A. Proxy
B. Speed simulation
C. Pacing
D. Browser settings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which information can be found in PC usage reports? (Select two.)
A. breakdown of virtual user type utilized in the load tests
B. resource usage on the PC host machines during test runs
C. number of virtual users utilized by each project
D. working hours by each PC user g] overall license usage

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which steps are required to set the license key in Performance Center? (Select two.)
A. Add License Key.
B. Update License Host location.
C. Log in to the Lab Management.
D. Log in to the Performance Center Server.
E. Log in to the Performance Center Host.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 18
What is the tuning recommendation for improving Load-Generator performance on Linux?
A. Increase file descriptors.
B. Decrease file descriptors.
C. Decrease process entries.
D. Reduce swap space.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
What does the feature implemented in the Patch Management User Interface enable?
A. Any user with the right permissions to upload a patch to the system andthen install the patch on the appropriate host or server
B. Any user with access to the Lab Management section to upload a patch, and any administrator to install it on the appropriate host or server
C. Any administrator to upload a patch to the system and to then let any user install the patch on the appropriate host or server
D. Any administrator to check the HP official support website, alerting the support staff of new patch releases

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
Why can the “Initialize Vuser before ramp up” setting be beneficial?
A. It ensures network connectivity between the Controller and hosts.
B. It ramps-up to the optimum amount of Vusers before the load test runs.
C. It reduces CPU utilization and gets realistic load test results.
D. It executes any appropriate login code in the Vuser Action section.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Which model describes Test Resources usage by LoadRunner and Performance Center?
A. A LoadRunner Controller Scenario and a Performance Center Test are not interchangeable.
B. A LoadRunner Controller can open a Performance Center Test, but not vice versa.
C. A LoadRunner Controller Scenario and a Performance Center Test are interchangeable.
D. A LoadRunner Controller can open a Performance Center Test Set, but not vice versa. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Where can a Performance Center user create Service Level Agreement (SLA) thresholds?
A. Results viewed in Analysis
B. Reports in Excel
C. Test Designer and Analysis
D. Test Designer in Test Plan
E. Test Set options in Test Lab

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
Which step is recommended as part of the ALM patch upgrade process on hosts?
A. Upload project scripts.
B. Rename host.
C. Delete test results.
D. Reserve hosts in maintenance timeslots.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Where can you check permissions for a user group in Performance Center?
A. Site Administration module
B. Lab Management module
C. User Site module
D. Directly in the database

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
In order to perform an analysis of run results, what must you first do with them?
A. Collect
B. Collate
C. Mediate
D. Transactionalize
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which template is valid for Trend Reports?
A. Trend by BSM data Template
B. Trend by Monitor Measurements Template
C. SiteScope Monitors Template
D. Trend by Quality Attributes Template
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
What does Performance Center Test use Topology to do?
A. Restrict user access to AUT hosts
B. Upload files to Topology servers C. Manage an inventory of AUT hosts
D. Define performance monitors by integrating with HP SiteScope

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
What is required to install Performance Center Server and Hosts?
A. A configured DNS server
B. Security passphrases set up on all machines
C. Full administrative privileges on the machines
D. IIS configured on all machines

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
What does PAL stand for?
A. Performance Analysis Lifecycle
B. Performance Application Lifecycle
C. Personalized Application Lifecycle
D. Production Application Lifecycle

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
What is run status on the Load Test page if the timeslot setting of Collate Only was used for post-run analysis settings?
A. No Run
B. Failed Creating Analysis Data
C. Finished
D. Before Creating Analysis Data

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
After Performance Center is installed, the administrator should perform a progression of steps to verify that the installation was successful. Which step is correct to include in this verification process?
A. Create a new project in Site Administration and select the ALM Lab Extension.
B. Enable the Check ALM Server in the System Health Check box in Lab Management.
C. Log into Site Administration and verify that the PC_ENABLED Site Configuration parameter is set to.
D. Import the ALM Upgrade Verification Project and execute all tests successfully.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
What is an example of a service level agreement (SLA) defined in the transaction volume metrics?
A. Expected database thread count
B. Server operating system patch levels
C. Maximum web server memory usage
D. peak hour transaction count Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Your customer has a requirement for trending and alerting information of their HP StoreOnce Backup system. How can your customer perform this function?
A. Install StoreOnce Enterprise Manager
B. Configure SNMP alerting.
C. Install HP OneView.
D. Configure reporting within the StoreOnce GUI.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You need to implement the Secure Erase functionality on an HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system. Which targets meet the requirements? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI VTL
B. Service Set
C. NAS
D. Node
E. Catalyst

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3
You need to replace a motherboard on an HP StoreOnce Multi-node couplet. Where do you find important information to note, required from the original motherboard, which you will need after the replacement?
A. Node Serial Number on the label
B. SAAP within the Controller Utility
C. UUID in the StoreOnce BIOS
D. Activation Key in the iL04 GUI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You want to add more drives to an existing D6000 Drawer for an HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system. How can you add the additional storage? (Select two.)
A. #hardware add storage
B. #hardware enable storage
C. #hardware update storage
D. #if hardware discover storage
E. #hardware set storage

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
Your customer has data security requirements. Which features provided by the HP StoreOnce Security Package will help the customer meet this requirement? (Select two.)
A. Secure Erase
B. in-flight backup encryption
C. secure host presentation
D. data-at-rest encryption
E. Encryption Key Management

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
When configuring an HP StoreOnce 4900 Backup system, your customer requires a fault tolerant network bond due to their network restrictions. Which bonding mode would best fit this situation?
A. Mode 1 (Active-Backup)
B. Mode 3 (Active-Passive)
C. Mode4 (LACP)
D. Mode 6 (Balance-ALB)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which features are offered in the HP StoreOnce 4900 and 6500 Backup systems? (Select two.)
A. active health logs in support tickets
B. high density storage units
C. Open Systems storage integration
D. 42U l-rack with intelligent rack position system
E. 512GB Smart memory (32 x 16GB)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
After installing an HP StoreOnce 4900 Backup system, you want to check the component firmware. Which CLI command should you use?
A. firmware state
B. component update check
C. hardware show firmware
D. system show components

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your customer wants to add their HP StoreOnce Backup device to an Active Directory domain. How can this task be completed?
A. from the StoreOnce WMI, from the NAS menu tree
B. from the CLI, using the system add security command
C. from the StoreOnce WMI, from the Catalyst menu tree
D. from the CLI, using the system set config command

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A customer has three HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system couplets and wants to use the complete security feature set on four target devices. The customer needs to clarify which licenses to use and to activate within the StoreOnce CLI. What is the correct licensing for this environment?
A. one Security Appliance license per node pair, and one for the disk drawer
B. four security licenses, one for each store you want to encrypt
C. one data-at-rest and one Secure Erase license per node
D. three licenses of the StoreOnce Security Suite, one per couplet
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which option is a characteristic of the Cisco flexible deployment model?
A. cloud options only
B. on-premises options only
C. choice of either cloud or on-premises options
D. on-premise and hybrid options

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which option does Cisco use to deliver its collaboration offering to provide a consistent and secure experience for users?
A. New Collaborative Workspace
B. Cisco Collaboration Cloud
C. Cisco Network
D. Cisco Telepresence

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which two options are strategic elements that Cisco uses to meet market requirements? (Choose two.)
A. incorporating some social networking elements
B. secure intercompany communication
C. expanding collaboration to future devices
D. flexible consumption models
E. unified interface for collaboration and instant messaging

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which type of dilemma must partners understand to help better position Cisco WebEx solutions?
A. the maintenance of the current infrastructures and applications
B. the dramatic shifts in technology and the pace at which it is accelerating
C. assigning IT representatives to keep up with current technologies
D. keeping track of individual performance within an organization

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which benefit does the Cisco Collaboration Cloud provide due to it’s core-edge design and service-oriented architecture?
A. higher costs
B. scalability and performance
C. a single data center hub
D. single-layer security

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which option is one benefit of Cisco WebEx Connect and Cisco WebEx web collaboration to organizations?
A. create persuasive multimedia presentations
B. business agility and productivity after taking out infrastructure
C. single, consistent experience across PC, Mac, tablets, and mobile phones
D. meet lead goals and product launch dates

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which question is the best to ask an executive sponsor of an organization when qualifying them for the Cisco WebEx service?
A. How important is a having a single provider of conferencing and audio services to your organization?
B. What is most important to you in deploying and managing an instant messaging experience?
C. How often do local employees travel with devices that are not supported by your IT department?
D. What is your vision for collaboration across your organization?

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two services does the Cisco collaboration portfolio offer to meet the needs of a changing workforce? (Choose two.)
A. session management
B. enterprise social software
C. policy and security management
D. mobile applications
E. content management

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
What is the minimum number of invoices that the FTP Invoice delivery option can provide for partner and reseller accounts?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which option is one advantage of the on-premises deployment option?
A. minimal purchase and set-up costs
B. leverage the existing IP network
C. rapid deployment
D. monthly subscription-based model of pricing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which business complexity example is best described as consumerization trend?
A. managing tools and helping people find the correct content in a secure location when needed
B. employees bringing in new devices and applications into work

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QUESTION NO: 1
Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah wants greater control over the appearance and presentation of Web pages. She wants the ability to precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages. How will she accomplish this?
A. Use the Database Design wizard.
B. Make two templates, one for the index page and the other for all other pages.
C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
D. Make a template and use it to create each Web page.
Answer: C Explanation: Sarah should use the Cascading Style Sheet (CSS) while creating Web pages. This will give her greater control over the appearance and presentation of the Web pages and will also enable her to precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages.

QUESTION NO: 2
You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system. You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit option?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D Explanation: Audit account management is one of the nine audit settings that can be configured on a Windows computer. This option is enabled to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the computer where the auditing is configured. These events include the following: Creating a user account Adding a user account to a group

Renaming a user account Changing password for a user account This option is also used to audit
the changes to the domain account of the domain controllers.

QUESTION NO: 3
John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D Explanation: According to the scenario, John will use “nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25” to detect the operating system of the we-are-secure server. Here, -v is used for verbose and -O is used for TCP/IP fingerprinting to guess the remote operating system. John may also use the DNS name of we-are-secure instead of using the IP address of the we-are-secure server. So, he can also use the nmap command “nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com “. Answer: C is incorrect. “nc -v -n
208.100.2.25 80” is a Netcat command, which is used to banner grab for getting information about the

QUESTION NO: 4
You check performance logs and note that there has been a recent dramatic increase in the amount of broadcast traffic. What is this most likely to be an indicator of?
A. Misconfigured router
B. DoS attack
C. Syn flood
D. Virus
Answer: B Explanation: There are several denial of service (DoS) attacks that specifically use broadcast traffic to flood a targeted computer. Seeing an unexplained spike in broadcast traffic could be an indicator of an attempted denial of service attack. Answer: D is incorrect. Viruses can cause an increase in network traffic, and it is possible for that to be broadcast traffic. However, a DoS attack is more likely than a virus to cause this particular problem. Answer: C is incorrect. A syn flood does not cause increased broadcast traffic. Answer: A is incorrect. A misconfigured router could possibly cause an increase in broadcast traffic. However, this a recent problem, the router is unlikely to be the issue.
QUESTION NO: 5
You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
B. wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
C. wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
D. wc -c file1.txt >error.txt
Answer: C
Explanation: According to the scenario, you will use the wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt command to
accomplish the task. The 2> operator is an error redirector, which, while running a command,
redirects the error (if it exists) on the specified file. Answer: B, D are incorrect. The > or 1>
redirector can be used to redirect the output of the wc -c file1.txt file to the error.txt file; however,
you want to write the errors in the error.txt file, not the whole output. Answer: A is incorrect. The >>
operator will redirect the output of the command in the same manner as the > or 1> operator.
Although the >> operator will not overwrite the error.txt file, it will append the error.txt file.
QUESTION NO: 6
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1

D. *.* @192.168.0.1

Answer: A Explanation: According to the scenario, John will make the following entry in the syslog.conf file to forward all the kernel messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1: kern.* @192.168.0.1 Answer: D is incorrect. This entry will forward all the messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Answer: B is incorrect. This entry will not forward any message to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Answer: C is incorrect. This entry will not forward any kernel message to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1.

QUESTION NO: 7
John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we- are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat –r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat –an
Answer: D Explanation: According to the scenario, John will use the netstat -an command to accomplish the task. The netstat -an command is used to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the numerical form. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer: A is incorrect. The netstat -e command displays the Ethernet information. Answer: B is incorrect. The netstat -r command displays the routing table information. Answer: C is incorrect. The netstat -s command displays per-protocol statistics. By default, statistics are shown for TCP, UDP and IP.

QUESTION NO: 8
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the We- are-secure network. Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?

A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation: Kismet can sniff IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n-based wireless network traffic.

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
A. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.
B. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
C. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
D. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
Answer: A,B Explanation: Traceroute is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. This tool also records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router that can be used to find any faulty router along the path. Answer: C, D are incorrect. Traceroute does not perform polymorphic shell code attacks. Attacking tools such as ADMutate areused to perform polymorphic shell code attacks.

QUESTION NO: 10
George works as an office assistant in Soft Well Inc. The company uses the Windows Vista operating system. He wants to disable a program running on a computer. Which of the following Windows Defender tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Allowed items

B. Quarantined items
C. Options
D. Software Explorer
Answer: D Explanation:
Software Explorer is used to remove, enable, or disable a program running on a computer. Answer: A is incorrect. Allowed items contains a list of all the programs that a user has chosen not to monitor with Windows Defender. Answer: C is incorrect. Options is used to choose how Windows Defender should monitor all the programs running on a computer. Answer: B is incorrect. Quarantined items is used to remove or restore a program blocked by Windows Defender.
QUESTION NO: 11
You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. The company’s management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients. You are required to accomplish the following tasks: The wireless network communication should be secured. The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps: Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication. What will happen after you have taken these steps?
A. Both tasks will be accomplished.
B. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
C. The wireless network communication will be secured.
D. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
Answer: C Explanation: As 802.1x and WEP are configured, this step will enable the secure wireless network communication. For authentication, you have configured the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol. This protocol can be used for authentication on wireless networks, but it cannot use a public key infrastructure (PKI). No certificate can be issued without a PKI. Smart cards cannot be used for authentication without certificates. Hence, the laptop users will not be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.

QUESTION NO: 12
You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You want to print the super block and block the group information for the filesystem present on a system. Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. e2fsck
B. dump
C. dumpe2fs
D. e2label
Answer: C Explanation: In Unix, the dumpe2fs command dumps the filesystem superblock and blocks the group information. Answer: B is incorrect. In Unix, the dump command is used to back up an ext2 filesystem. Answer: A is incorrect. The e2fsck command is used to check the second extended file system (E2FS) of a Linux computer. Syntax: e2fsck [options] <device> Where, <device> is the file name of a mounted storage device (for example, /dev/hda1). Several options are used with the e2fsck command. Following is a list of some important options:

C:\Documents and Settings\user-nwz\Desktop\1.JPG
Answer: D is incorrect. In Unix, the e2label command is used to change the label of an ext2 filesystem.

QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following is a wireless auditing tool that is used to pinpoint the actual physical location of wireless devices in the network?
A. KisMAC
B. Ekahau
C. Kismet
D. AirSnort
Answer: B Explanation: Ekahau is an easy-to-use powerful and comprehensive tool for network site surveys and optimization. It is an auditing tool that can be used to pinpoint the actual physical location of wireless devices in the network. This tool can be used to make a map of the office and then perform the survey of the office. In the process, if one finds an unknown node, ekahau can be used to locate that node. Answer: D is incorrect. AirSnort is a Linux-based WLAN WEP cracking tool that recovers encryption keys. AirSnort operates by passively monitoring transmissions. It uses Ciphertext Only Attack and captures approximately 5 to 10 million packets to decrypt the WEP keys. Answer: C is incorrect. Kismet is a Linux-based 802.11 wireless network sniffer and intrusion detection system. It can work with any wireless card that supports raw monitoring (rfmon) mode. Kismet can sniff 802.11b, 802.11a, 802.11g, and 802.11n traffic. Kismet can be used for the following tasks: To identify networks by passively collecting packets To detect standard named networks To detect masked networks To collect the presence of non-beaconing networks via data traffic Answer: A is incorrect. KisMAC is a wireless network discovery tool for Mac OS X. It has a wide range of features, similar to those of Kismet, its Linux/BSD namesake and far exceeding those of NetStumbler, its closest equivalent on Windows. The program is geared toward network security professionals, and is not as novice- friendly as similar applications. KisMAC will scan for networks passively on supported cards – including Apple’s AirPort, and AirPort Extreme, and many third-party cards, and actively on any card supported by Mac OS X itself. Cracking of WEP and WPA keys, both by brute force, and exploiting flaws such as weak scheduling and badly generated keys is supported when a card capable of monitor mode is used, and packet reinjection can be done with a supported card. GPS mapping can be performed when an NMEA compatible GPS receiver is attached. Data can also be saved in pcap format and loaded into programs such as Wireshark.
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
Answer: A Explanation: Magic Lantern works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger. Answer: C is incorrect. Alchemy Remote Executor is a system management tool that allows Network Administrators to execute programs on remote network computers without leaving their workplace. From the hacker’s point of view, it can be useful for installing keyloggers, spyware, Trojans, Windows rootkits and such. One necessary condition for using the Alchemy Remote Executor is that the user/attacker must have the administrative passwords of the remote computers on which the malware is to be installed. Answer: B is incorrect. The KeyGhost keylogger is a hardware keylogger that is used to log all keystrokes on a computer. It is a tiny device that clips onto the keyboard cable. Once the KeyGhost keylogger is attached to the computer, it quietly logs every key pressed on the keyboard into its own internal Flash memory (just as with smart cards). When the log becomes full, it overwrites the oldest keystrokes with the newest ones. Answer: D is incorrect. SocketShield provides a protection shield to a computer system against malware, viruses, spyware, and various types of keyloggers. SocketShield provides protection at the following two levels: 1.Blocking: In this level, SocketShield uses a list of IP addresses that are known as purveyor of exploits. All http requests for any page in these domains are simply blocked. 2.Shielding: In this level, SocketShield blocks all the current and past IP addresses that are the cause of unauthorized access.
QUESTION NO: 15
You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D Explanation: In Unix, the /etc/sysconfig/init file is used to set terminal characteristics and environment variables. Answer: B is incorrect. In Unix, the /proc/net file contains status information about the network protocols. Answer: C is incorrect. In Unix, the /etc/sysconfig/network- scripts/ifcfg-interface file is the configuration file used to define a network interface. Answer: A is incorrect. In Unix, the /etc/sysconfig/routed file is used to set up the dynamic routing policies.

QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While auditing the company’s network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk

D. Detection risk
Answer: D Explanation: Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer: A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means “the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder”. Answer: B is incorrect. Inherent risk, in auditing, is the risk that the account or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer: C is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly.

QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following statements are true about locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler if you are using a Laptop integrated with Wi-Fi compliant MiniPCI card? (Choose two)
A. These tools can determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
B. These tools can determine the authorization status of an access point.
C. These tools cannot detect rogue access points if the victim is using data encryption.
D. These tools detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802.11 frequency bands.
Answer: B,D Explanation: WLAN discovery software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler can be used to detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802 frequency bands. However, if the victim is using non-IEEE 802.11 frequency bands or unpopular modulations, these tools might not detect rogue access. NetStumbler, kismet, or MacStumbler also gives the authorization status of an access point. A Rogue access point (AP) is set up by the attackers in an Enterprise’s network. The attacker captures packets in the existing wireless LAN (WLAN) and finds the SSID and security keys (by cracking). Then the attacker sets up his own AP using the same SSID and security keys. The network clients unknowingly use this AP and the attacker captures their usernames and passwords. This can help the attacker to intrude the security and have access to the Enterprise data. Answer: A, C are incorrect. The WLAN software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler can search rogue access points even when the victim is using data encryption. However, these tools cannot determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
QUESTION NO: 18
A Web developer with your company wants to have wireless access for contractors that come in to work on various projects. The process of getting this approved takes time. So rather than wait, he has put his own wireless router attached to one of the network ports in his department. What security risk does this present?
A. None, adding a wireless access point is a common task and not a security risk.
B. It is likely to increase network traffic and slow down network performance.
C. This circumvents network intrusion detection.
D. An unauthorized WAP is one way for hackers to get into a network.
Answer: D
Explanation: Any unauthorized Wireless Access Point (WAP) is a serious security breach. Its
configuration might be very unsecure. For example it might not use encryption or MAC filtering,
thus allowing anyone in range to get on the network.
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following allows the use of multiple virtual servers using different DNS names resolved by the same IP address?
A. HTTP 1.1
B. JAVA
C. HTML
D. VPN
Answer: A

Explanation: HTTP 1.1 allows the use of multiple virtual servers, all using different DNS names resolved by the same IP address. The WWW service supports a concept called virtual server. A virtual server can be used to host multiple domain names on the same physical Web server. Using virtual servers, multiple FTP sites and Web sites can be hosted on a single computer. It means that there is no need to allocate different computers and software packages for each site. Answer: D is incorrect. VPN stands for virtual private network. It allows users to use the Internet as a secure pipeline to their corporate local area networks (LANs). Remote users can dial-in to any local Internet Service Provider (ISP) and initiate a VPN session to connect to their corporate LAN over the Internet. Companies using VPNs significantly reduce long-distance dial-up charges. VPNs also provide remote employees with an inexpensive way of remaining connected to their company’s LAN for extended periods. Answer: B is incorrect. Java is an object oriented programming language developed by Sun Microsystems. It allows the creation of platform independent executables. Java source code files are compiled into a format known as bytecode (files with .class extension). Java supports programming for the Internet in the form of Java applets. Java applets can be executed on a computer having a Java interpreter and a run-time environment known as Java Virtual Machine (JVM). Java Virtual Machines (JVMs) are available for most operating systems, including UNIX, Macintosh OS, and Windows. Answer: C is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page.

QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following is Microsoft’s implementation of the file and application server for the Internet and private intranets?
A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
B. Internet Server (IS)
C. WWW Server (WWWS)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D Explanation: Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS) is a WeA, Bpplication server for the Internet and private intranets. IIS receives requests from users on the network using the World Wide Web (WWW) service and transmits information using the Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP). IIS uses Microsoft Transaction Server (MTS) to provide security, performance, and scalability with server side packages.
QUESTION NO: 21

Which of the following encryption modes are possible in WEP?
A. 128 bit encryption
B. No encryption
C. 256 bit encryption
D. 40 bit encryption
Answer: A,B,D Explanation: WEP supports three encryption modes, i.e., no encryption, 40 bit encryption, and 128 bit encryption. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It has two components, authentication and encryption. It provides security, which is equivalent to wired networks, for wireless networks. WEP encrypts data on a wireless network by using a fixed secret key. WEP incorporates a checksum in each frame to provide protection against the attacks that attempt to reveal the key stream. Answer: C is incorrect. WEP does not support 256 bit encryption.

QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following responsibilities does not come under the audit process?
A. Reporting all facts and circumstances of the irregular and illegal acts.
B. Planning the IT audit engagement based on the assessed level of risk.
C. Reviewing the results of the audit procedures.
D. Applying security policies.
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: According to the standards of ISACA, an auditor should hold the following responsibilities: Planning the IT audit engagement based on an assessed level of risk. Designing audit procedures of irregular and illegal acts. Reviewing the results of the audit procedures. Assuming that acts are not isolated. Determining why the internal control system failed for that act. Conducting additional audit procedures. Evaluating the results of the expanded audit procedures. Reporting all facts and circumstances of the irregular and illegal acts. Distributing the report to the appropriate internal parties, such as managers. Answer: D is incorrect. The auditor is not responsible for applying security policies.
QUESTION NO: 23
You are responsible for a large network that has its own DNS servers. You periodically check the log to see if there are any problems. Which of the following are likely errors you might encounter in the log? (Choose three)
A. The DNS server could not create FTP socket for address [IP address of server]
B. The DNS server could not create an SMTP socket
C. Active Directory Errors
D. The DNS server could not create a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket
E. The DNS server could not initialize the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) service
Answer: C,D,E Explanation: There are a number of errors one could find in a Windows Server 2003 DNS log. They are as follows: The DNS server could not create a Transmission Control Protocol. The DNS server could not open socket for address. The DNS server could not initialize the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) service. The DNS server could not bind the main datagram socket. The DNS Server service relies on Active Directory to store and retrieve information for Active Directory- integrated zones. And several active directory errors are possible. Answer: B is incorrect. DNS Servers do not create FTP connections. Answer: A is incorrect. DNS Servers do not create SMTP connections.

QUESTION NO: 24
TCP/IP stack fingerprinting is the passive collection of configuration attributes from a remote device during standard layer 4 network communications. The combination of parameters may then be used to infer the remote operating system (OS fingerprinting), or incorporated into a device fingerprint. Which of the following Nmap switches can be used to perform TCP/IP stack fingerprinting?
A. nmap -sS
B. nmap -sU -p
C. nmap -O -p
D. nmap -sT Explanation:
Answer: C Explanation: The nmap -O -p switch can be used to perform TCP/IP stack fingerprinting. Nmap is a free open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing. It is used to discover computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a “map” of the network. Just like many simple port scanners, Nmap is capable of discovering passive services. In addition, Nmap may be able to determine various details about the remote computers. These include operating system, device type, uptime, software product used to run a service, exact version number of that product, presence of some firewall techniques and, on a local area network, even vendor of the remote network card. Nmap runs on Linux, Microsoft Windows etc. Answer: B is incorrect. The nmap -sU -p switch can be used to perform UDP port scanning. Answer: A is incorrect. The nmap -sS switch is used to perform a TCP half scan. TCP SYN scanning is also known as half-open scanning because in this a full TCP connection is never opened. Answer: D is incorrect. The nmap -sT switch is used to perform a TCP full scan.
QUESTION NO: 25
You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Linux-based network. The company needs to provide secure network access. You have configured a firewall to prevent certain ports and applications from forwarding the packets to the company’s intranet. What does a firewall check to prevent these ports and applications from forwarding the packets to the intranet?
A. The network layer headers and the session layer port numbers
B. The application layer port numbers and the transport layer headers
C. The transport layer port numbers and the application layer headers
D. The presentation layer headers and the session layer port numbers
Answer: C Explanation:
A firewall stops delivery of packets that are not marked safe by the Network Administrator. It checks the transport layer port numbers and the application layer headers to prevent certain ports and applications from forwarding the packets to an intranet. Answer: D, A, and B are incorrect. These are not checked by a firewall.
QUESTION NO: 26
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. You want to run two programs, foo and bar. You also want to ensure that bar is executed if and only if foo has executed successfully. Which of the following command sequences will John use to accomplish the task?

A. foo; bar;
B. foo || bar;
C. foo | bar;
D. foo && bar;
Answer: D Explanation: According to the scenario, John will execute the foo && bar; command. Because of the && operator, bar will execute if and only if foo completes successfully. Answer: A is incorrect. The foo; bar; command sequence will run foo and bar in a sequential manner, but the successful completion of the first command does not matter. Answer: B is incorrect. The foo || bar; command sequence will run the bar if and only if foo fails to complete successfully. Answer: C is incorrect. In the foo | bar; command sequence, the output of the foo command will be the input for the bar command.

QUESTION NO: 27
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He is configuring the Apache Web server settings. He does not want the commands being used in the settings to be stored in the history. Which of the following commands can he use to disable history?
A. history !!
B. set +o history
C. history !N
D. set -o history
Answer: B Explanation: According to the scenario, John can use the set +o history command to disable history. Answer: D is incorrect. John cannot use the set -o history command to accomplish his task. This command is used to enable disabled history. Answer: A is incorrect. John cannot use the history !! command to accomplish his task. This command is used to see the most recently typed command. Answer: C is incorrect. John cannot use the history !N command to accomplish his task. This command is used to display the Nth history command.

QUESTION NO: 28
You are the Network Administrator for a software development company. Your company creates

various utilities and tools. You have noticed that some of the files your company creates are getting deleted from systems. When one is deleted, it seems to be deleted from all the computers on your network. Where would you first look to try and diagnose this problem?
A. Antivirus log
B. IDS log
C. System log
D. Firewall log
Answer: A
Explanation: Check the antivirus log and see if it is detecting your file as a virus and deleting it.
All antivirus programs have a certain rate of false positives. Since the file is being deleted from all
computers, it seems likely that your antivirus has mistakenly identified that file as a virus. Answer:
D is incorrect. The firewall log can help you identify traffic entering or leaving your network, but
won’t help with files being deleted. Answer: B is incorrect. An IDS log would help you identify
possible attacks, but this scenario is unlikely to be from an external attack. Answer: C is incorrect.
Your system log can only tell you what is happening on that individual computer.
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following statements about a screened host is true?
A. It facilitates a more efficient use of the Internet connection bandwidth and hides the real IP addresses of computers located behind the proxy.
B. It is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network.
C. It provides added security by using Internet access to deny or permit certain traffic from the Bastion Host.
D. It provides a physical connection between computers within a network.
Answer: C Explanation: A screened host provides added security by using Internet access to deny or permit certain traffic from the Bastion Host. Answer: D is incorrect. A network interface card provides a physical connection between computers within a network. Answer: B is incorrect. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) or perimeter network is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network. It is the boundary between the Internet and an internal network, usually a combination of firewalls and bastion hosts that are gateways between inside networks and outside networks. DMZ provides a large enterprise network or corporate network the ability to use the Internet while still maintaining its security. Answer: A is incorrect. A proxy server facilitates a more efficient use of the Internet connection bandwidth and hides the real IP addresses of computers located behind the proxy.
QUESTION NO: 30
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He notices that UDP port 137 of the We-are-secure server is open. Assuming that the Network Administrator of We-are-secure Inc. has not changed the default port values of the services, which of the following services is running on UDP port 137?
A. HTTP
B. TELNET
C. NetBIOS
D. HTTPS
Answer: C Explanation: NetBIOS is a Microsoft service that enables applications on different computers to communicate within a LAN. NetBIOS systems identify themselves with a 15-character unique name and use Server Message Block, which allows Remote directory, file and printer sharing, etc. The default port value of NetBIOS Name Resolution Service is 137/UDP. Answer: A is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a client/server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when a client application or browser sends a request to the server using HTTP commands, the server responds with a message containing the protocol version, success or failure code, server information, and body content, depending on the request. HTTP uses TCP port 80 as the default port. Answer: D is incorrect. The default port of HTTPS is TCP/443. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) protocol is a protocol used in the Universal Resource Locater (URL) address line to connect to a secure site. If a site has been made secure by using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) then HTTPS, instead of HTTP protocol, should be used as a protocol type in the URL. Answer: B is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default.

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QUESTION 1
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company wants to encrypt its e-mails. Which of the following will you use to accomplish this?
A. PPTP
B. IPSec

C. PGP
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have created a folder named Report. You have made David the owner of the folder. The members of a group named JAdmin can access the folder and have Read, Write, and Execute permissions. No other user can access the folder. You want to ensure that the members of the JAdmin group do not have Write permission on the folder. Also, you want other users to have Read permission on the Report folder.
Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. chmod 777 report
B. chown david.jadmin report
C. chmod 555 report
D. chmod 754 report

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. You are designing a data backup plan for your company’s network. The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data.
Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this?
A. Take a full backup daily with the previous night’s tape taken offsite.
B. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation.
C. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays. Keep Monday’s backup offsite.
D. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes.
E. Take a full backup on Monday and a differential backup on each of the following weekdays. Keep Monday’s backup offsite.
F. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which port category does the port 110 fall into?
A. Well known port
B. Dynamic port
C. Private port
D. Application port

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability, and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which they are executed?
A. System registry
B. Group Policy
C. Application virtualization
D. System control

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
On which of the following OSI model layers does IPSec operate?
A. Physical layer
B. Network layer
C. Data-link layer
D. Session layer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He is currently working on his C based new traceroute program. Since, many processes are running together on the system, he wants to give the highest priority to the cc command process so that he can test his program, remove bugs, and submit it to the office in time.
Which of the following commands will John use to give the highest priority to the cc command process?
A. nice -n 19 cc -c *.c &
B. nice cc -c *.c &
C. nice -n -20 cc -c *.c &
D. nice cc -c *.c
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You work as a Network Administrator for World Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have configured a Linux Web server on the network. A user complains that the Web server is not responding to requests. The process list on the server shows multiple instances of the HTTPD process. You are required to stop the Web service.
Which of the following commands will you use to resolve the issue?
A. killall httpd
B. endall httpd
C. kill httpd
D. end httpd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following applications cannot proactively detect anomalies related to a computer?
A. Firewall installed on the computer
B. NIDS
C. HIDS
D. Anti-virus scanner

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to change the startup shell of Maria from bash to tcsh.
Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. usermod -s
B. chage
C. usermod -u
D. useradd -s
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 11
SSL session keys are available in which of the following lengths?
A. 40-bit and 128-bit.
B. 64-bit and 128-bit.
C. 128-bit and 1,024-bit.
D. 40-bit and 64-bit.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following is referred to as Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)?
A. Electrical line noise
B. Spike
C. Transient
D. Brownout

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which of the following services resolves host name to IP Address?
A. Computer Browser
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. WINS
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which of the following protocols allows an e-mail client to access and manipulate a remote e-mail file without downloading it to the local computer?
A. IMAP
B. SNMP

C. POP3
D. SMTP Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which of the following groups represents the most likely source of an asset loss through the inappropriate use of computers?
A. Visitors
B. Customers
C. Employees
D. Hackers

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which of the following books deals with confidentiality?
A. Purple Book
B. Orange Book
C. Red Book
D. Brown Book

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which of the following is used to allow or deny access to network resources?
A. Spoofing
B. ACL
C. System hardening

D. NFS
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. For testing purposes, you have configured a default IP-table with several filtering rules. You want to reconfigure the table. For this, you decide to remove the rules from all the chains in the table.
Which of the following commands will you use?
A. IPTABLES -D
B. IPTABLES -A
C. IPTABLES -h

D. IPTABLES -F
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
Which of the following utilities provides an efficient way to give specific users permission to use specific system commands at the root level of a Linux operating system?
A. Snort
B. Apache
C. SSH

D. SUDO
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
Which of the following items are examples of preventive physical controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Biometric access controls
B. Closed-circuit television monitors
C. Fire extinguishers
D. Locks and keys

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 21
An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees’ computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?
A. Privacy policy
B. Backup policy
C. User password policy
D. Network security policy

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Which of the following defines the communication link between a Web server and Web applications?
A. CGI
B. PGP
C. Firewall

D. IETF
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
What does the “x” character in the second field of the user account record of the /etc/passwd file indicate?
A. The user account is using a shadow password.
B. The user account is shared by more than one user.
C. The user account is disabled.
D. The user account does not exist.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You want to mount an SMBFS share from a Linux workstation.
Which of the following commands can you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. smbmount
B. mount smb
C. smbfsmount
D. mount -t smbfs

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 25
Which of the following processes is known as sanitization?
A. Assessing the risk involved in discarding particular information.
B. Verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process.
C. Physically destroying the media and the information stored on it.
D. Removing the content from the media so that it is difficult to restore.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Copyright
B. Trademark
C. Trade secret
D. Patent

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS) ?
A. RealSecure
B. Snort
C. StealthWatch
D. Tripwire

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest domain-based network. The company’s management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients.
You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
The wireless network communication should be secured.
The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps:
Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication.
What will happen after you have taken these steps?
A. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
B. Both tasks will be accomplished.
C. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
D. The wireless network communication will be secured.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Fill in the blank with the correct answer to complete the statement below.
The permission is the minimum required permission that is necessary for a user to enter a directory and list its contents.
A. Read

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?
A. Files pot
B. Honey pot
C. Data pot
D. Bastion host

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
Which of the following tools is used to configure, control, and query the TCP/IP network interface parameters?
A. NSLOOKUP
B. IPCONFIG
C. ARP
D. IFCONFIG
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. You have configured a firewall on the network. A filter has been applied to block all the ports. You want to enable sending and receiving of emails on the network.
Which of the following ports will you open? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 80
B. 25
C. 20

D. 110
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 33
Your customer wants to make sure that only computers he has authorized can get on his Wi-Fi. What is the most appropriate security measure you can recommend?
A. A firewall
B. WPA encryption
C. WEP encryption
D. Mac filtering

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
You are responsible for technical support at a company. One of the employees complains that his new laptop cannot connect to the company wireless network. You have verified that he is entering a valid password/passkey.
What is the most likely problem?
A. A firewall is blocking him.
B. His laptop is incompatible.
C. MAC filtering is blocking him.
D. His operating system is incompatible.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
Which of the following is generally practiced by the police or any other recognized governmental authority?
A. Spoofing
B. SMB signing
C. Wiretapping
D. Phishing

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36
Which of the following statements about DMZ are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is the boundary between the Internet and a private network.
B. It is an anti-virus software that scans the incoming traffic on an internal network.
C. It contains company resources that are available on the Internet, such as Web servers and FTP servers.
D. It contains an access control list (ACL).

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 37
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. To ensure the security of files, you encrypt data files using Encrypting File System (EFS).
You want to make a backup copy of the files and maintain security settings. You can backup the files either to a network share or a floppy disk.
What will you do to accomplish this?
A. Copy the files to a network share on an NTFS volume.
B. Copy the files to a network share on a FAT32 volume.
C. Place the files in an encrypted folder. Then, copy the folder to a floppy disk.
D. Copy the files to a floppy disk that has been formatted using Windows 2000 Professional.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements about Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It uses TCP port 443 as the default port.
B. It is a protocol used in the Universal Resource Locater (URL) address line to connect to a secure site.
C. It is a protocol used to provide security for a database server in an internal network.
D. It uses TCP port 80 as the default port.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 39
You are implementing wireless access at a defense contractor. Specifications say, you must implement the AES Encryption algorithm.
Which encryption standard should you choose?
A. WPA
B. TKIP
C. WEP
D. WPA 2
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 40
Which of the following commands is used to change file access permissions in Linux?
A. chgrp
B. chperm
C. chmod
D. chown

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are required to search for the error messages in the /var/log/messages log file.
Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. ps /var/log/messages
B. cat /var/log/messages | look error
C. cat /var/log/messages | grep error
D. cat /var/log/messages

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. You are installing an application. You want to view the log file whenever a new entry is added to the /var/log/messages log file.
Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. TAIL -show /var/log/messages
B. TAIL -f /var/log/messages
C. TAIL -50 /var/log/messages
D. TAIL -view /var/log/messages

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements about buffer overflow is true?
A. It manages security credentials and public keys for message encryption.
B. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service pack releases.
C. It is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept.
D. It is a false warning about a virus.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Physical
B. Administrative
C. Automatic
D. Technical

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 45
You have been hired to design a TCP/IP-based network that will contain both Unix and Windows computers. You are planning a name resolution strategy.
Which of the following services will best suit the requirements of the network?
A. APIPA
B. LMHOSTS
C. DNS
D. DHCP
E. WINS
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. You want to know the NetBIOS name of your computer.
Which of the following commands will you use?
A. NETSTAT -s
B. NBTSTAT -s
C. NBTSTAT -n
D. NETSTAT -n

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are optimizing performance and security on your Web server. You want to know the ports that are listening to FTP.
Which of the following commands will you use?
A. netstat -a | grep FTP
B. FTP netstat -r
C. FTP netstat -a
D. netstat -r | grep FTP

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
You work as a Network Administrator for Secure World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You want to run a command with the changed root directory.
Which of the following commands will you use?
A. ls <new root> <command>
B. chroot <new root> <command>
C. route <new root> <command>
D. chdir <new root> <command>

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 49
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. He is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to delete his private.txt file from his operating system. He knows that the deleted file can be recovered easily. Hence, he wants to delete the file securely. He wants to hide the shredding, and so he desires to add a final overwrite of the file private.txt with zero.
Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task?
A. rmdir -v private.txt
B. shred -vfu private.txt
C. shred -vfuz private.txt
D. rm -vf private.txt

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
You work as an Administrator for McRoberts Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are logged in as a non-root user on your client computer. You want to delete all files from the /garbage directory. You want that the command you will use should prompt for the root user password.
Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. rm -rf /garbage*
B. del /garbage/*.*
C. rm -rf /garbage* /SU
D. su -c “RM -rf /garbage*” Correct Answer: D

Exam B QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT the feature of SELinux in the Red Hat enterprise Linux?
A. SELinux does not provide Kernel-level security.
B. All process and files have a context.
C. SELinux implements Mandatory Access Control (MAC) security in Red Hat Enterprise Linux.
D. SELinux applies to all users, including root.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
You have been hired by the company to upgrade its existing Windows NT 4.0 network to a Windows 2000 based network. In the past, the company’s support group has faced difficult time because users changed the configuration of their workstations.
Which of the following features of the Active Directory would best justify the move to the Windows 2000 network?
A. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS)
B. Organizational unit (OU)
C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
D. Group policy object (GPO)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which of the following devices connects two segments of the same local area network (LAN) but keeps traffic separate on the two segments?
A. Hub
B. Modem
C. Bridge
D. Switch

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You
have created a script named lf.cgi. You want to provide the following permissions on it.
rwsr-sr–
Which of the following commands will you execute?

A. chmod 2754
B. chmod 6754
C. chmod 7754
D. chmod 4754

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Which of the following records is the first entry in a DNS database file?
A. SOA
B. SRV
C. CNAME
D. MX
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following terms describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which they are executed?
A. Application virtualization
B. Encapsulation
C. System hardening
D. Failover

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which of the following frequencies are used by wireless standard 802.11n to operate? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 1 Ghz
B. 2 Ghz
C. 2.4 Ghz
D. 5 Ghz

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 8
What is the maximum cable segment length supported by a 10BaseT network?
A. 100 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 250 meters
D. 500 meters
E. 150 meters

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 domain-based network. The company has two offices in different cities. The offices are connected through the Internet. Both offices have a Windows 2003 server named SERV1 and SERV2 respectively. Mark is required to create a secure connection between both offices. He configures a VPN connection between the offices using the two servers. He uses L2TP for VPN and also configures an IPSec tunnel.
Which of the following will he achieve with this configuration? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Encryption for the local files stored on the two servers
B. Highest possible encryption for traffic between the offices
C. Mutual authentication between the two servers
D. Extra bandwidth on the Internet connection

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 10
You have a customer who wants to put wireless internet in his remote cabin. The cabin is many miles from

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