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QUESTION: 1
Which code calls a web form?

A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085

Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 4
You need to import string fields, such as organization names, into the CA Service Desk
database. To do this, you will need to convert them to their internal database values.
Which utility enables you to perform this task?

A. pdm_deref

B. pdm_extract
C. pdm_discimp
D. pdm_userload

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Level 3 CA Service Desk Analyst, Indira Chopra, resolves a ticket and returns it immediately to single point of contact (SPOC), Cliff Warner. Cliff needs to verify with the user that the issue is resolved and:
A. Ask the end user to close the ticket.
B. Return the ticket to Indira for closure.
C. Close the ticket, which sets it to inactive.
D. Set the ticket to pending in case there are related issues.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 Which parts comprise the Central Management Console (CMC) home page? (Choose three)
A. Define
B. Manage
C. Navigate
D. Organize
E. Users and Groups

Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 7
Which component has a Willingness Value?

A. Web engine
B. Data extractor
C. pdm_userload input file
D. Database interface (DBI)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
Which features characterize CA Workflow? (Choose three)

A. It includes inherent security.
B. It is only used for manual tasks.
C. It is external to CA Service Desk.
D. It is used for well defined processes.
E. Users need to be Analysts in CA Service Desk.

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 9
Which component connects web browsers to the CA Service Desk Object Manager?

A. domsrvr
B. Web Engine
C. Web Screen Painter (WSP)
D. WSP Schema Designer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 In a configuration with a Remote Management Database (MDB), what is the preferred requirement for the primary CA Service Desk Server?
A. Single Processor, 2 GHz; 2 GB RAM
B. Dual Processor, 2 GHz; 4 GB RAM
C. Dual Processor, 3GHz; 8 GB RAM
D. Quad Core Processor; 8 GB RAM

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
Which function can you perform with Web Intelligence?
A. Link reports with other data on the Internet.
B. Create basic reports easily without writing queries.
C. Check that your reports have the appropriate rights set.
D. Obtain greater control over reports by writing advanced queries.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 12
The CA Service Desk Universe supports: (Choose three)

A. security maintenance
B. report server setup only
C. multiple databases and multiple languages
D. data retrieval with knowledgeof the object or database layer
E. job scheduling and linkage of delivered reports to theCA Service Desk user interface

Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION: 13
When you run pdm backup:

A. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX only first.
B. It shuts down the services in Windows only first.
C. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows first.
D. It does not need to shut down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows at any stage.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 14 You need to use a third-party scheduler to archive and purge rules. Which executable do you run?
A. bop_cmd
B. domsrver
C. pdm_backup
D. pdm_discimp

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QUESTION: 1
User attribute mapping enables you to:

A. Map policies to different user attributes.
B. Map user groups to different administrator groups.
C. Map user classes to different user attribute names.
D. Map one common name to different user attribute names in different user directories.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Policies can grant access to users based on user information that exists in the user store. The BEST example of that information is:
A. User permissions
B. User profile attribute values
C. The client machine’s IP address
D. CA SiteMinder administrative rights
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
What are the default session settings in CA SiteMinder? (Choose two)
A. Idle Timeout Enabled
B. Idle Timeout Disabled
C. Max Session Timeout Enabled
D. Max Session Timeout Disabled
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 4
Which features characterize the J2EE application server agent? (Choose two)
A. Supports IBM WebSphere and BEA WebLogk
B. Protects J2EE application server-based applications
C. Moves the point of trust from the web server to the ERP/CRM server
D. Makes calls to the Event Manager when authentication credentials are provided

Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 5
Which log file holds log records for the CA SiteMinder user interface (UI)?
A. SiteMinder trace log
B. Application Server log
C. SiteMinder web agent log
D. SiteMinder Policy Server log
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
Two features of global policies are:
A. they are different for each domain and apply to users in all user directories
B. they are different for each domain and apply only to a single user directory
C. they belong to a generic global domain and apply to users in all user directories
D. they belong to a generic global domain and apply only to a single user directory
Answer: B

QUESTION: 7
You successfully install a CA SiteMindcr Web Agent. Then, if you perform the host registration process:
A. A Trusted Host Object is created.
B. A Web Agent Trace File is produced.
C. An Affiliate Agent calls the Policy Server.
D. An Agent Configuration Object (ACO) is updated.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
To turn on the tracing facility for all Policy Server actions, you: A. Configure the smtracedefault.txt file.

B. Modify the general_trace.template file.
C. Set the Enable Profiling option on the Policy Server Profiler tab.
D. Configure the Policy Server Management Console logging option.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 9
Which benefits do agent groups provide? (Choose two)
A. Defining by multiple sets of policy objects
B. Verifying tasks in the Web Agent installation more easily
C. Saving time by defining only one policy for all Web Agents
D. Providing resource access to a larger user base by duplicating the resource on many web servers and Web Agents
Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 10
Two important reasons why password policies are necessary are to:
A. Maintain use of valid passwords and disable user accounts.
B. Increase administrative involvement and disable user accounts. C. Disable user accounts and minimize administrative involvement.
D. Prevent access when passwords have expired and ensure users cannot create week passwords.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
Two benefits of password services are that they:
A. Provide an additional layer of security, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
B. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
C. Provide an additional layer of security, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.
D. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 12
In relation to Agents, what does central configuration indicate?
A. The Web Agent is configured from the Policy Server.
B. The Web Agent is configured from a local configuration file.
C. The Web Agent holds the initialization parameters for trusted hosts.
D. The Web Agent overrides the configuration parameters of trusted hosts.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
One of the three cryptographic operating modes for securing CA SiteMinder data is Federal Information Processing Standards (RPS)-compatibility. This mode:
A. Only uses FIPS 140-2 algorithms. B. Is only used for CA SiteMinder rl2.
C. Uses classic CA SiteMinder 6.x cryptography.
D. Is used where version 6.x and rl2 of CA SiteMinder co-exist.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Where are named expressions stored?
A. In cookies
B. In user classes
C. In the policy store
D. In the Administrator Group
Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
Which information can you view using the Summary View tab of the CA Introscope Transaction Tracer? (Choose three)
A. Color codes, which indicate call durations
B. The number of times a URL was accessed
C. The number of milliseconds to complete the call
D. The number of milliseconds required for the fastest call completion
E. The number of transaction components affected, shown using a hierarchical format
Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION: 2
CA Introscope holds historical data in multiple tiers. What is a characteristic of data held in Tier 1?
A. Is used in reporting
B. Is used for incident analysis
C. Is used in capacity planning
D. Is older and configured for lower resolutions
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
The CA Customer Experience Manager (CEM) Export Tool exports data in which file format?
A. .txt
B. .xls
C. .csv
D. .html
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
What is the main advantage of modifying the default metric set of a CA Introscope Agent to monitor fewer classes?

A. The Agent can report component activity at a more granular level.
B. A modified metric set creates more visibility for the classes monitored.
C. Agent performance can be improved by minimizing the Agents system overhead.
D. The Agent can report Enterprise Java Bean (EJB) activity at a more granular level.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
Which segment of this metric path is referenced by the metric expression of a Metric Grouping? H04|WAS_Node|Server 0|5ervlets|SeatServlet: Stall Count
A. H04|WAS_Node
B. H04|WAS_Node|ServerO
C. WAS_Node|Server 0|Servlets
D. Servlets|SeatServlet:Stall Count
Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
While viewing Investigator, you notice that metric values are acceptable, but you want to determine whether there are any outlying Servlet Response Times exceeding threshold limits. Which Workstation feature enables you to do this?
A. Metric data
B. Boundary Blame
C. View Historical Data
D. Minimum and Maximum Metric values
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
What is indicated by a simple alert in a yellow state?
A. The simple alert is not matching any metrics.
B. One or more metrics for this alert are beyond the danger threshold.
C. One or more metrics for this alert are beyond the caution threshold.
D. One or more metrics for this alert are within the stated threshold for this alert.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 8
Which defect type will be assigned to a transaction when the request for its HTML component results in an HTTP 500 error?
A. HTTP
B. Server
C. Response
D. Behavioral
Answer: C

QUESTION: 9
Which task can you perform using the Map tab in the Investigator?
A. View AlertMap files.
B. Configure application triage map security.
C. View a graphical depiction of the components that make up your application.
D. View the relationship of the interdependent web services within a Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) environment.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
The action which propagates definitions to all Transaction Impact Monitors (TIMs) in a domain is:
A. Configure subnets.
B. Synchronize all monitors.
C. Promote transaction definitions.
D. Configure automatic transaction recording.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 11
CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for collecting this data?

A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

QUESTION: 12
In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD files.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
Which metric type measures the number of requests completed over a period of time?
A. Errors Per Interval
B. Responses Per Interval
C. Average Response Time
D. Approximate Instance Count
Answer: B

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1.Which two components are optional add-on licenses with the IBM Case Manager core product offering? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Forms
B. IBM Case Analyzer
C. IBM FileNet eForms
D. Content Search Services
E. WebSphere Process Server Answer: A,E
2.Within the scope of ICM databases created, which statement is true.?
A. The Process Engine database can only run on DB2.
B. The Business Space database can only run on DB2.
C. The Case Analyzer database can co-exist with the CE database.
D. The Process Engine database can co-exist with the CE database. Answer: D
3.Which program is prohibited to be used with IBM Case Manager as per the licensing terms?
A. Lotus Widget Factory (of IBM Mashup Center)
B. Case Manager crawler (of IBM Content Analytics)
C. Web chat client (of IBM Lotus Sametime Proxy Server)
D. Rule Execution Server (of IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules) Answer: A
4.What is a reason to use iLog within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. To intelligently assign case workers to tasks.
B. To obtain additional Case Data from an external system.
C. To update a case property field after a step is completed.
D. To obtain a priority from a database call via a stored procedures. Answer: A
5.A
case worker would like to send an instant announcement to other case workers in the IBM Case Manager environment. How can this be done?

A.
By adding a comment to the case.

B.
By using the external email system.

C.
By using the IBM Sametime integrated feature.

D.
By creating a case with the announcement as a property. Answer: C
6.Which two items are always part of a case management solution? (Choose two.)
A. Analytics
B. Content objects
C. Database lookups D. Process fragments E. System integrations
Answer: B,D
7.What utility is used to create the run time solution in a development environment?
A. Case Manager Builder
B. FileNet Enterprise Manager
C. FileNet Deployment Manager
D. Case Manager Administrator Client Answer: A
8.A
user in the customer_interactions project area has created two solutions, Sol1 and Sol2. The user is transferred to the credit_card_investigations project area. What happens to Sol1 and Sol2?

A.
Sol1 and Sol2 are deleted.

B.
Sol1 and Sol2 remain in customer_interactions project area. C. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to orphaned_solutions project area.

D.
Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to credit_card_investigations project area. Answer: B
9.What is one reason to use IBM Forms over FileNet eForms within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. IBM Forms is more tightly integrated with ICM.
B. The ability to use JavaScript to enhance the form.
C. The ability to use multiple Digital Signature methods.
D. The ability to use EDS (Extended Data Services) within ICM. Answer: C
10.A
customer is looking for assistance in determining a backup strategy. Which statement is true regarding backup of the ICM solution?

A.
A Hot Backup can be performed if the operating system is AIX.

B.
A Hot Backup cannot be performed because Business Space prevents it.

C.
A Hot Backup cannot be performed because of the difficulties of ensuring in-flight transactions.

D.
A Hot Backup can be performed because ICM provides additional features to permit this process. Answer: C
11.For IBM Case Manager, where should the database for the content engine target object store and the process engine on DB2 be located?
A. On separate databases on the same server
B. On separate databases on different servers
C. On the same database on a server with different userids
D. On the same database on a server with same userid and password Answer: D
12.Which must be installed and configured with IBM Case Manager to enable IBM Sametime?
A. Only IBM Sametime client and Lotus Domino server
B. Only IBM Sametime proxy server and Lotus Domino server
C. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime client, and IBM Sametime proxy server D. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime community server, and IBM Sametime proxy server Answer: D
13.Business Analyst John Smith has a user ID and valid password configured with IBM Case Manager but has not been assigned to a project area. Which statement is true?
A. John Smith cannot login to Case Manager Builder.
B. John Smith can only work in the default project area.
C. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot create a solution.
D. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot deploy a solution. Answer: C
14.What tool is used to import a solution package?
A. IBM Case Manager Builder
B. IBM FileNet Process Designer
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client Answer: D
15.There are two recommended methods used to copy a solution : Case Manager Builder and what other tool?
A. IBM Content Engine API
B. IBM FileNet Workplace XT
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client Answer: D
16.Where can you find the following collection of data for each solution: solution status, description, Process Engine connection definition, and Case Manager Client URL?
A. In the IBM Case Manger Builder.
B. In the Business Space configuration setting.
C. In the IBM Case Manager Solution List page.
D. In the IBM Case Manager Administration Client. Answer: C
17.Typically, in a production environment, you do not give users permission to create and manage spaces and catalog entries in Business Space. What function is used to hide these features of the client user interface?
A. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.lockeddown to true.
B. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.manageSpaces to false.
C. Use FileNet Enterprise Manager to set LDAP security on the all users who should not have access.
D. Use the IBM Case Manager Administration Client to configure the security settings for Production groups and users. Answer: A 18.When creating a new solution from a template, how long should the new solution name be?
A. Any length
B. Less than 58 characters C. Less than 999 characters D. Greater than 8 characters Answer: B
19.Which tool is used to register External Data Services (EDS) with IBM Case Manager?
A. Workplace XT
B. Filenet Enterprise Manager
C. Filenet Deployment Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client Answer: D
20.There are three levels of security when configuring a business space page. There are View and Edit access rights. What is the third security level that gives users “special permissions” for things like assigning access rights to groups of users.
A. Owner
B. Specialist
C. Super User D. Administrator Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the minimum number of servers for a distributed configuration?
A. One server; master server
B. Two servers; master and crawler servers
C. Three servers; master, crawler, and search servers
D. Four servers; master, crawler, document processor, and search servers
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which is NOT a supported operating system?
A. AIX 5.3 (32-bit)
B. AIX 6.1 (64-bit)
C. Red Hat Enterprise Linux Advanced Server (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise (32-bit)
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
When you map the common analysis structure to the index, what are you determining?
A. which users can invoke the REST API to find documents
B. which custom annotators will run in the document processing pipeline
C. the structure of the facet tree that will show up in the text miner application
D. which analysis results are indexed to enable search and text mining on them
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 4
Which documents from the collection are used to create the clustering proposal?
A. All of the documents in the index are used.
B. A random sample of the number that you specify
C. The first 1000 documents that were added to the index.
D. A round-robin alphabetically ordered sampling from each different crawler
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
How do you find the option to enable the named entity annotations?
A. Select the ‘system’ option and then the ‘parse’ tab in edit mode.
B. Open the text miner and select the ‘named entity’ facet then click on the facet tab.
C. You do not have to enable them, they are always active for text analytics collections.
D. Edit a collection, select the Parse and Index page, and click Configure document processing pipeline.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
How can you enable duplicate document detection for web content?
A. Select duplicate detection from the edit of a collection, under the search tab.
B. Select duplicate detection from the user preference on the search application.
C. Select duplicate detection from the edit of a collection, under parse and index tab.
D. Select the link-based ranking model and disable security during collection creation.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
What does the acronym UIMA stand for?
A. Uniform IBM Marketechture Asset
B. Unstructured Industry Matrix Alliance
C. Unified Information Machine Architecture
D. Unstructured Information Management Architecture
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
What must you do after you create a list of synonyms in an XML file?
A. Convert the XML file to java.jar format.
B. Import the XML file using the administrative console.
C. Convert the XML file to a binary synonym dictionary.
D. Reimport the dictionary.dic file using the administrative console.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which statement is NOT true about synonym dictionaries?
A. Words are specific to a language with the synonym dictionary.
B. Only one synonym dictionary can be associated to a collection.
C. Synonym dictionary can be used to improve search of acronyms.
D. Add a synonym dictionary to the system, then associate it to a collection.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which languages listed are supported for text analytics collections?
A. French, Arabic, Hindi, Malay
B. German, English, Polish, Greek
C. Hebrew, Italian, English, Russian
D. English, Spanish, Arabic, German
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which cannot be configured in the search server administration?
A. The ability for users to issue wildcard queries.
B. The character which is used to indicate a wildcard query.
C. The ability for users to issue a wildcard query that returns all documents.
D. The number of potential matches the system will search for a wildcard query.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which statement is NOT true?
A. The ‘esadmin’ command can stop a crawler.
B. The ‘esadmin’ command can start a crawler.
C. The ‘esadmin’ command can create a crawler.
D. The ‘esadmin’ command can monitor a crawler.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement is NOT true?
A. Queries can be federated across multiple search collections.
B. Queries can be federated across multiple text analytics collections.
C. Faceted queries cannot be federated across multiple search collections.
D. When queries are federated across collections, the search quality is dependent on the scores that are generated by individual collections.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following is NOT a type of facet available in the search application?
A. flat facet
B. date range facet
C. hierarchical facet
D. auto-normalized facet
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which statement is true for UNIX platforms?
A. The ‘esbackup.sh’ command must be executed with ‘root’ privileges.
B. While ‘esbackup.sh’ command is executing, administrator may continue to use the administrative console.
C. If ‘esbackup.sh’ command takes too long to execute, the administrator may Ctrl-C out of it and retry at a later time.
D. After ‘esbackup.sh’ command is completed, the backed up files can be used to restore a system with a new installation.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
What is the method used to check the status of indexing on a collection?
A. Open the text miner and click on the ‘dashboard’ tab.
B. Using the administrative console, stop the indexer component and then click on the log tab.
C. In the administrative console, click on the ‘general’ tab, on the ‘edit’ icon and then on ‘view collection settings’.
D. In the administrative console, click on the ‘parse and index’ tab, on the ‘monitor’ icon and then click on ‘details’.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Only search collections can use hierarchical facets.
B. Search collections can be configured to export search results to a Cognos report.
C. Named entity annotators can be enabled in the administrative console for search collections.
D. Search collections can be configured to use multiple different document dates from the index in the search application.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
How does the IBM Classification Module annotater documents?
A. with tokens extracted from the documents
B. with entities identified and extracted from the documents
C. with relationships identified and extracted from the documents
D. with one or more known categories derived from the documents
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which date format will ICA accept as a valid date field for the date facet?

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QUESTION NO: 1
An object valued property can be used to enforce which two of the following? (choose two.)
A. Annotations.
B. Referential integrity.
C. Security inheritance.
D. Content classification.
E. Maximum content size.
Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
The Content Engine sets a newly created storage area to what resource status?
A. Open. B. Ready. C. Standby.
D. New Content.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Of the following statements about searches, which two are true? (choose two.)
A. Stored searches are versionable documents.
B. Stored searches are customizable at run time.
C. Search templates allow for searching across multiple object stores.
D. Search templates can contain only property-based search parameters.
E. Stored searches can only be created through the FileNet Enterprise Manager.

Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
Document entry templates allow the designer to force values for which of the following items?
A. Location, class, properties, and security.
B. Class, properties, security, but not location.
C. Location, class, security, but not properties.
D. Location, class, properties, but not security.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Before updating a Content Engine and process Engine with a fix pack, how will you verify the supported product versions?
A. Plan and prepare guide.
B. Fix pack compatibility matrix.
C. All fix packs are supported on any product versions.
D. No need to verify anything, always use latest version.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 7
Workplace XT hosts and manages a component that enables the Process Engine to make calls on external components. What is this component called?
A. PEOperations
B. Process Adaptor
C. Component Manager
D. Process Administrator
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following is true about the Directory configuration properties (User tab) -> User Search Filter property?
A. The search filter must contain a clause with “cn={0}”.
B. The search filter is read-only and cannot be modified.
C. The search filter must contain a clause with “objectClass=user”.
D. The attributes supplied to the search filter may be specific to the directory provider.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which one of the following Content Engine Client’s will have better performance?
A. CE Client using .NET API.
B. CE Client using COM API.
C. CE Client using Java API over EJB transport.
D. CE Client using Java API over WSI transport.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 10

How can you optimize performance for large content uploads and downloads in a Content Engine (CE) server farm?
A. Take advantage of file store replication.
B. Increase the size of your upload and download directories.
C. Specifying a server affinity setting in the CE client application.
D. Adjust your load balancer to use all the CE servers in the Farm.
Answer: C Explanation:

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QUESTION 1
In SAP Enterprise Asset Management, the first step of the corrective maintenance process is to create a notification.
What data is collected in a notification? (Choose two)
A. Actual repair costs
B. Operations
C. Tasks
D. Activities
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 2
To which organizational units can a maintenance planning plant be assigned?
A. To maintenance plants
B. To controlling areas
C. To functional locations
D. To storage locations

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Which of the following objects are technical objects in SAP Enterprise Asset Management? (Choose three)
A. Work center
B. Equipment
C. Reference object
D. Functional location
E. Bill of material

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 4
You want to create one bill of material (BOM) to be used for several equipment master records. Therefore, you create a material BOM.
In which field do you enter the corresponding material number to assign this material BOM to the equipment master record?
A. In the Structure Indicator field
B. In the Construction Type field
C. In the Order Type field
D. In the Usage Times field

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
A non-stock item is assigned to a plant maintenance order.
Which document is generated when the order is released or saved?

A. A purchase requisition
B. A purchase order
C. A material document D. An inventory reservation

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
SAP Enterprise Asset Management uses technical objects.
Which technical object represents an individual physical object that is maintained as an autonomous unit?

A. Equipment
B. Work center
C. Serial number
D. Bill of material

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
You perform a completion confirmation on an internally processed operation of a plant maintenance order. Which of the following functions can be performed during this step? (Choose two)
A. Print the shop papers
B. Release the maintenance order
C. Enter the measurement readings
D. Record the actual costs
E. Settle the order Correct Answer: CD
Financial Accounting
QUESTION 1
The UK company code’s sales organization will begin to sell to an existing customer assigned to the German company code′s sales organization.
What do you need to do regarding the customer′s master record?
A. Create company code level and sales area level data.
B. Change the client level data.
C. Create a new customer master record.
D. Change company code level data.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding the structure of a master record for a general ledger account is correct?
A. The setting for the balance sheet account is defined in both the chart of accounts and company code segments.
B. Both the chart of accounts and company code segments must be defined before you can post to the account.
C. The company code segment is mandatory, and is defined before the chart of accounts segment.
D. The settings for the chart of accounts segment are unique for each company code.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
What enables segment reporting on the balance sheet?
A. Document splitting
B. Activity Allocation
C. Periodic Processing
D. FI/CO Reconciliation

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
What are the results of processing the payment program? (Choose two)
A. Vendors’ open items are cleared.
B. Payment documents are posted.
C. The goods receipt/invoice receipt (GR/IR) account is cleared.
D. Revenues are posted to Profitability Analysis (CO-PA).

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 5
Which type of business transaction integrates with Financial Accounting?
A. A direct activity allocation
B. A commitment
C. A goods issue
D. An assessment Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your organization is implementing Financial Accounting in SAP ERP. What information would you give them regarding company codes?
A. A plant can be assigned to more than one company code.
B. A company code can have multiple leading ledgers.
C. A company code can be assigned to more than one controlling area.
D. A company code has one operating chart of accounts.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
How can you keep more than one valuation basis for an asset in Asset Accounting (FI-AA)?
A. Assign the asset to several segments.
B. Use several depreciation areas for the asset.
C. Assign the asset to several cost centers.
D. Use several asset classes for the asset.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
How do you ensure real-time integration of the accounts receivable subledger with the general ledger?
A. Enter a reconciliation account in the billing document.
B. Enter a reconciliation account in the customer master.
C. Assign a reconciliation account to the revenue account.
D. Assign postings to a profit center to derive a reconciliation account.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
Which purchase-to-pay business process transactions create a financial accounting document? (Choose two)
A. Enter an invoice receipt.
B. Enter a payment proposal.
C. Enter a purchase requisition.
D. Enter a vendor payment. Correct Answer: AD
Human Capital Management
QUESTION 1
Which SAP ERP Human Capital Management (HCM) processes integrate with Financial Accounting (FI) and Controlling (CO)? (Choose two)
A. Personnel development and qualifying actions
B. Appraisals
C. Travel management
D. Payroll
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 2
Which action is possible in Employee Self-Service in SAP ERP Human Capital Management (HCM)?
A. Submit compensation plans
B. Submit job vacancy
C. Approve leave requests
D. Submit travel expenses

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which SAP ERP Human Capital Management (HCM) process uses qualifications?
A. Personnel Development
B. Personnel Cost Planning
C. Continuous performance feedback
D. Compensation and benefits

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of personnel actions in SAP ERP Human Capital Management (HCM)?
A. To display all existing infotypes for a given personnel number
B. To display green checkmarks for all infotypes that have been maintained for multiple personnel numbers
C. To allow you to maintain infotypes for more than one personnel number simultaneously
D. To provide a sequence of predetermined infotypes to be maintained for a personnel number

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
What are the options to maintain infotypes in SAP ERP Human Capital Management (HCM)? (Choose three)
A. Personnel actions
B. Personnel file
C. Fast entry
D. Organizational staffing
E. Maintenance of one infotype for one person on a single screen

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 6
Which SAP ERP Human Capital Management (HCM) organizational level would you assign to a company code?
A. Personnel area
B. Employee group
C. Personnel subarea
D. Payroll area

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
In SAP ERP Human Capital Management (HCM), the organizational plan is a comprehensive and dynamic model of the structural and personnel environment in an enterprise.
What data is contained in the organizational plan? (Choose three)
A. Employee subgroup
B. Job
C. Position
D. Person
E. Personnel number
Correct Answer: BCD

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QUESTION 1
What is a capability in SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office, PowerPoint?
A. You can use the same filter options as in Analysis for Excel.
B. You can split long tables across multiple slides.
C. You can provide a design panel for conditional formatting.
D. You can perform calculations and axes swapping.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
For which purposes can you use the tabs in the Design panel of SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office? (Choose two)
A. The Components tab, to retrieve information such as filters assigned to single components
B. The Components tab, to add components such as charts or dropdown boxes to the workbook
C. The Information tab, to add text information to the workbook by using drag and drop
D. The Information tab, to display the structure of used elements
E. The Analysis tab, to define the data that is displayed in the crosstab

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3
Which hierarchies are available when you use a BEx Query in SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office?
A. All hierarchies of the characteristics that you use in the query
B. The hierarchies that you activated in the query for the characteristics
C. All hierarchies of the InfoProvider that you use in the query
D. The hierarchies that you selected when inserting the query into Analysis

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Where can you save workbooks created with SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office? (Choose two)
A. In an Analysis iView in the Enterprise Portal
B. On your local PC
C. On the BI platform
D. On the BW server
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which of the following functions is included in SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office?
A. Migrate a BEx Analyzer Workbook.
B. Create a Report-Report-Interface.
C. Define a filter by measure.
D. Save a variant to the BW server.
Correct Answer: C
BEx Analyzer

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements regarding refreshing mode in BEx Analyzer is correct?
A. The “pause automatic refresh” option should only be used when you perform ad hoc analysis directly against an InfoProvider.
B. The “pause automatic refresh” option is the best practice option. You only use the “automatic refresh” option for special scenarios to optimize the use of the OLAP processor.
C. The “automatic refresh” option is the best practice option. You only use the “pause automatic refresh” if you want to define more than one filter and send them all to the OLAP processor.
D. The “pause automatic refresh” option prevents automatic data refreshes when you report against VirtualProviders with real-time data access.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
What can you define when using the formula mode in BEx Analyzer?
A. Excel formulas to read data out of a data source defined in your workbook
B. Excel formulas to change the filter settings directly in the BEx Query definition
C. Excel formulas to change the navigation state of a data source defined in your workbook
D. Excel formulas to read data directly out of a PSA table

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
You create a workbook with exceptions in BEx Analyzer. Your customer does not like the standard colors for Bad 1 and Good 2 exceptions.
What do you use to change the color settings in BEx Analyzer?
A. The theme
B. The portal theme
C. The XML file
D. The CSS file

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of design mode in BEx Analyzer?
A. To change the query design
B. To design query views
C. To design and embed charts in the workbook
D. To define the layout of the workbook using design items Correct Answer: D

BEx Query Designer
QUESTION 1
You want to create a query in BEx Query Designer that produces a table as shown in the attached screenshot.

What do you have to use to accomplish this?
A. Filters
B. Structures
C. Exceptions
D. Restricted key figures

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which InfoObjects can you use when creating BEx Queries? (Choose two)
A. Hierarchies
B. Structures
C. Filters
D. Characteristics
E. Key figures

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 3
You open the Cost Center dimension in BEx Query Designer (see the attached graphic).

What information about the Cost Center characteristic can you determine? (Choose two)
A. The Cost Center is compounded to the Controlling area.
B. The Cost Center has display attributes.
C. The Cost Center has navigational attributes.
D. The Controlling area is compounded to the Cost Center.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 4
You use BEx Query Designer to create a query with the characteristic “Material” in the rows and the key figure “Sales Volume” in the columns. Now you create an exception (Bad 3, Critical 2 and Good 1) and activate it. After executing the query, all values under Sales Volume are colored. You now edit the exception and click the Exception Only Affects Results button.
What happens in the report?
A. No report records are colored.
B. Only the Bad 3 values are colored.
C. Only the overall result of the Sales Volume key figure is colored.
D. The exception is deactivated automatically.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which variable type can use the processing type “replacement path”? (Choose three)
A. Formula variable
B. Hierarchy variable
C. Hierarchy node variable
D. Characteristic value variable
E. Text variable

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 6
What is the difference between navigation attributes and display attributes in a BEx Query definition?
A. Navigation attributes cannot be used in restricted key figures, display attributes can.
B. Navigation attributes can be used in formulas, display attributes cannot.
C. Navigation attributes behave like characteristics, display attributes do not.
D. Navigation attributes cannot be filtered, display attributes can.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which of the following combinations of structures can you create in BEx Query Designer? (Choose two)
A. 1 characteristic structure and 2 key figure structures
B. 1 characteristic structure and 1 characteristic structure
C. 1 characteristic structure and 1 key figure structure
D. 1 key figure structure and 1 key figure structure

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 8
You want to create a calculated key figure at InfoProvider level. Which key figures can you use?
A. All types of key figures defined at query level
B. Only calculated key figures defined at query level
C. All types of key figures defined at InfoProvider level
D. Only calculated key figures defined at InfoProvider level Correct Answer: C

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Question: 1
What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A. Payroll processing
B. Shift planning
C. Employee master data
D. Recording and evaluation of absences
E. Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

Question: 2
How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A. Quantity in stock – quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B. Quantity in stock + quantity committed – quantity ordered.
C. Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D. Quantity in stock – quantity committed.
Answer: A

Question: 3
Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before she can print the query results?
A. Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B. Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C. Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D. Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer: A

Question: 4
Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function. After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A. No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B. No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in the report.
C. Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the repetitive area of the linked template.
D. Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer: A

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Question: 5
The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A. Activate and configure the predefined alert function ‘Deviation from Credit Limit’ so that the sales manager gets informed automatically.

Exam Name: SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007
Exam Type: SAP
Exam Code: C_TB1200_07 Total Questions: 152

B. Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure ‘Deviation from Credit Limit’ so that the sales manager gets informed automatically.
C. Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D. Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer: A

Question: 6
I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A. When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B. When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System information, the table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C. Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D. Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query, after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer: B

Question: 7
You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings:
[%1], [%2], and [%3].
What is the function of these strings in a query?
A. The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the Query Generator.
D. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer: A
Question: 8
Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A. Conditions
B. Table entries
C. Field entries
D. Grouping
E. Sorting
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

Question: 9
Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical point. What is the easiest way of doing this?

Exam Name: SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007
Exam Type: SAP
Exam Code: C_TB1200_07 Total Questions: 152

A. In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level. Whenever employees post a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an email message to the purchasing manager.
B. In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the predefined alert ‘Minimum Stock Deviation’ that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls below this threshold.
C. Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D. In the document settings, set the ‘When Attempting to Release Stock Below the Minimum Level’ indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer: C

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Question: 10
Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number, Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for example). How can I create a “general” query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to change the date in the “Where” condition area?
A. Define a variable in the “Where” condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL ‘[%0]’ then save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B. Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C. Define a variable in the “Where” condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL ‘[%0]’ then save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
D. Define a variable in the “Group By” condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL ‘[%3]’ then save the query.
Answer: A
Question: 11
What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A. You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B. You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C. Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D. Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E. You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the company logo, for all the reports.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

Question: 12
The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer: price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?

Exam Name: SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007
Exam Type: SAP
Exam Code: C_TB1200_07 Total Questions: 152

A. 1) Special prices for the customer 2) Discount groups linked to the business partner 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner 4) The price list specified in the business partner master data
B. 1) Discount groups 2) Special prices for the customer 3) Period and volume discounts for the price list linked to the business partner 4) The default price list for the customer
C. 1) The default price list for the document 2) Discount groups tied to the document 3) Special prices for the customer
D. 1) Customer special prices 2) Discount groups 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list linked to the document 4) Price list defined for the document
Answer: A

Question: 13
Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A. With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B. With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C. With standard cost valuation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D. With first in – first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E. With first in – first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

Question: 14
Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the ‘Quantity’ field. Why?
A. The value in the ‘Items per Purchase Unit’ field on the ‘Purchasing Data’ tab is 4.
B. The value in the ‘Factor 2’ field on the ‘Purchasing Data’ tab is 4.
C. The value in the ‘Required (Purchasing UoM) Inventory Level’ field is 4.
D. The value in the ‘Quantity Per Packaging Unit’ field on the ‘Purchasing Data’ tab is 4.
Answer: A, B, C, D

Question: 15
PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product, they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A. Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase them by 40%.
B. Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C. Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D. In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium of 40%.

Exam Name: SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007
Exam Type: SAP
Exam Code: C_TB1200_07 Total Questions: 152

Answer: C

200-101 dumps

Question: 16
I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A. Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select ‘Sales Quotation’ as the document type, then select a quotation from another business partner.
B. Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the ‘Partner’. You can now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C. You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D. You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer: A

Question: 17
For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A. Stock entry.
B. Stock release.
C. Completion of a production order.
D. Purchase order submission.
Answer: A, B, C, D

Question: 18
You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which of these statements is correct?
A. When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document flow.
B. From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C. Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D. You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all base and target documents.
Answer: A

Question: 19
The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A. Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B. To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C. The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D. Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E. A sales manager can use selection criteria in “My Open Opportunities Report” to view sales opportunites for any of his direct reports.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Question: 20

Exam Name: SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007
Exam Type: SAP
Exam Code: C_TB1200_07 Total Questions: 152

A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company’s sales manager wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries. What would you recommend?
A. Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and Deliveries as the base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B. Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all deliveries for the relevant month.
C. Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and Delivery as the target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D. Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer: A

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