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QUESTION 1
Which three are required to install the LANDesk?Web Components? (Choose three.)
A. Rollup Core
B. DNS Services
C. Microsoft IIS 5.0 or greater
D. MDAC 2.8 or greater
E. .NET Framework 1.1
F. Internet Explorer 6.0 or greater

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 2
When delta scanning is enabled, the complete inventory scan file is stored on the client in which file?
A. INV.DAT
B. SCAN.DAT
C. DELTA.DAT
D. INVDELTA.DAT

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which hotkey combination locks out the keyboard and mouse on the remote system?
A. Ctrl-Alt-D
B. Ctrl-Alt-L
C. Ctrl-Alt-K
D. Ctrl-Alt-M

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are deciding on a Database Management System (DBMS).
Which four factors should be considered during the planning phase of a LANDesk?Management Suite
rollout? (Choose four.)

A. cost of DBMS
B. LAN / WAN speed
C. administrative staff
D. number of managed nodes
E. number of remote locations
F. number of management consoles

Correct Answer: ACDF
QUESTION 5
You are planning the deployment of LANDesk?Management Suite in an enterprise with 8150 managed
nodes. You will use Microsoft SQL as the Database Management System (DBMS) and you will use the
Web Console for help desk management.
What is the minimum recommended number of servers?

A. one physical server hosting the Core Server and DBMS
B. two physical servers: one hosting the Core Server and one hosting the DBMS
C. two physical servers: one hosting the Core Server and DBMS and one hosting the Web Console
D. three physical servers: one hosting the Core Server, one hosting the Core database, and one hosting the DataMart

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You are planning the rollout of LANDesk?Management Suite in a new environment. The environment
contains a Windows 2000 domain and client operating systems are Windows 2000 and Windows XP.
Local users do not have administrative rights to their machines.
Which two are the most successful methods of deploying the LANDesk agents to client machines in this
environment? (Choose two.)

A. login scripts
B. NTConfig Kit
C. CBA discovery
D. deploy client via the Scheduler tool
E. create a single file executable and send it in an email

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
You are planning the installation of LANDesk?Management Suite 8.5.
Which four items are the minimum installation requirements that must be met before installing the
LANDesk Management Suite 8.5 Core Server? (Choose four.)

A. MDAC 2.8+
B. Domain Controller
C. Internet Explorer 6.0+
D. Windows 2000 Server sp4
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
F. Internet Information Server 5.x+

Correct Answer: ACDF
QUESTION 8
Which four file types are available when publishing a report from the LANDesk?Management Suite console? (Choose four.)
A. TIF
B. XLS
C. XML
D. HTM
E. PDF
F. DOC
Correct Answer: BDEF
QUESTION 9
To which default group do you add a user to provide the user with access to a LANDesk?published report?
A. LD_Reports
B. Report_User
C. Dashboard_User
D. LANDesk Reports
E. LANDesk Management Suite
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Which Column Set Configuration feature allows you to specify a precise primary key value for the selected software?
A. Edit
B. Value
C. Modify
D. Qualify
E. Columns

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two options are available when adding a new directory from within the Directory Manager tool? (Choose two.)
A. Query LDAP
B. Authentication
C. Active Directory
D. Directory Information

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
You have a console user that needs access to Inventory and Reports.
What are the minimum rights you need to assign to this user to accomplish this?

A. Reports only
B. Inventory only
C. LANDesk?Administrator
D. both Reports and Inventory

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You want new users that are added to the LANDesk?Management Suite group to have rights to Inventory
and Remote Control only.
What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

A. Do nothing; this is the default.
B. modify the default template user
C. modify the LANDesk Administrator
D. assign the users Inventory and Remote Control rights
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which three scope types can you use when creating a new scope? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP
B. static list
C. LDMS query
D. Device Group
E. Directory Manager
F. Default All Machines scope

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 15
You have modified a user’s rights and scope. When will these changes take effect?
A. immediately
B. when the user reboots his machine
C. when the LANDesk?Policy Server service is restarted
D. when the user logs in to the LANDesk?Management Suite console

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which two menu options would you use in Microsoft Internet Explorer, to resolve a problem with logging into the Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Tools ?Internet Options ?Advanced tab: check “Allow SSL Windows Authentication”
B. Tools ?Internet Options ?Advanced tab: check “Enable Integrated Windows Authentication”
C. Tools ?Internet Options ?Advanced tab: check “Allow logon with current user name and password”
D. Tools ?Internet Options ?Security tab ?Local Intranet ?Custom Level: select “Automatic logon with current user name and password”
E. Tools ?Internet Options ?Security tab ?Trusted Sites ?Custom Level: select “Automatic logon with current user name and password”
F. Tools ?Internet Options ?Security tab ?Local Intranet ?Custom Level: select “Automatic logon with windows user name and password”

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 17
Which file needs to be changed to connect to more than one Web Console server?
A. DSN.asp
B. Core.asp
C. Config.asp
D. Frameset.asp
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which executable is used to create tables in the LANDesk?database?
A. DBBUILD.EXE
B. DBMERGE.EXE
C. DBREPAIR.EXE
D. COREDBUTIL.EXE

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Where can you change the database connection information for LANDesk?Management Suite? (Choose two.)
A. in the ODBC System DSN
B. in the Management Suite console in the Configure Services utility
C. HKLM\Software\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\Core\Connections\Local
D. HKLM\Software\Intel\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\Core\Connections\Local

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which two directories contain the trusted certificate hash file (<hashname>.0)? (Choose two.)
A. Keys
B. Utilities
C. LDMain
D. LDLogon
E. LANDesk?

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 21
Which four submenus appear under the Standard LANDesk Agent menu in Client Configuration in the Client Setup tool? (Choose four.)
A. Local Scheduler
B. Inventory Scanner
C. Bandwidth Detection
D. Software Distribution
E. Client Reboot Options
F. Application Policy Management

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 22
What is the default temporary install directory used during client setup?
A. %temp%
B. C:\$ldcfg$
C. C:\$ldclient$
D. %windir%\temp

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
What are the four options for Start the Inventory Scan in Client Configuration? (Choose four.)
A. frequency
B. run as service
C. local scheduler
D. IP address change
E. manually from device
F. start from the Startup folder
G. at startup using the Run key Registry setting

Correct Answer: ADEG
QUESTION 24
What is the purpose of the registry values contained in the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\WinClient registry key?
A. It contains video driver information used by the Remote Control agent.
B. It specifies the database connection strings that point to the database.
C. It contains the date the client was last configured and the path it is installed to.
D. It contains a list of LANDesk?components that have been installed on a workstation.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
You have configured the inventory scanner in your client configuration named “Accounting” to run at
startup from the Run Registry key. You want to modify your “Accounting” client configuration to display the
GUI when the inventory scanner runs at startup.
Which file should you edit to make the changes permanent for this client configuration only?

A. LDCLIENT.INI
B. NTSTACFG.IN#
C. ACCOUNTING.INI
D. ACCOUNTING.IN#

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Your network consists of two sites connected by a high-speed WAN link with a single LANDesk?
Management Suite domain.
Login scripts have been used for LANDesk client deployment.
Several days ago you modified your default client configuration. Workstations at the main site are
reconfigured with the new settings, but the remote site workstations are not.
Why haven’t the remote site workstations been reconfigured?

A. WSCFG32.EXE was not run with the appropriate command line switches.
B. The scheduler service was not configured with the proper domain credentials.
C. The login script at the remote site was not updated with the new client configuration.
D. The Client Deployment Service Center at the remote site was not updated with the new client configuration.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which command line parameter of WSCFG32.EXE allows you to specify which client configuration file to use?
A. /C
B. /F
C. /I
D. /N
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
How must the LANDesk?client be initially deployed to a Macintosh client?
A. manually, using WSCFG32.EXE
B. manually, from the INSTALL\MAC folder
C. manually, from the LDLOGON\MAC folder
D. by scheduling the EXE package created in the Client Setup tool

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
You are performing a new installation of LANDesk?Management Suite in your network. There are several
clients that are in workgroups outside of the Windows domain.
What must be done on the Core Server to enable a push-based configuration to all Windows NT/2000/XP
clients

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QUESTION 1
Firewalking is a technique that can be used to gather information about a remote network protected by a firewall. This technique can be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique, an attacker sends a crafted packet with a TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. Which of the following are pre-requisites for an attacker to conduct firewalking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ICMP packets leaving the network should be allowed.
B. An attacker should know the IP address of the last known gateway before the firewall.
C. There should be a backdoor installed on the network.
D. An attacker should know the IP address of a host located behind the firewall.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 2
Which of the following security protocols are based on the 802.11i standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. WPA
D. WEP2

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for protocol conversion, data encryption/decryption, and data compression?
A. Transport layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Data-link layer
D. Network layer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Manual penetration testing
C. Automated penetration testing
D. Code review

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which of the following representatives of incident response team takes forensic backups of the systems that are the focus of the incident?
A. Lead investigator
B. Information security representative
C. Technical representative
D. Legal representative

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements are true about routers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Routers are responsible for making decisions about which of several paths network (orInternet)traffic will follow.
B. Routers do not limit physical broadcast traffic.
C. Routers organize addresses into classes, which are used to determine how to move packets fromone network to another.
D. Routers act as protocol translators and bind dissimilar networks.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 7
Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by technical measures only?
A. Brute force
B. Ping flood attack
C. Smurf DoS
D. Social engineering

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company requires a secure wireless network. To provide security, you are configuring ISA Server 2006 as a firewall. While configuring ISA Server 2006, which of the following is NOT necessary?
A. Defining how ISA Server would cache Web contents
B. Defining ISA Server network configuration
C. Setting up of monitoring on ISA Server
D. Configuration of VPN access

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Which of the following attacks CANNOT be detected by an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
B. E-mail spoofing
C. Port scan attack
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements best describes a certification authority?
A. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a public key and a private key pair fordata encryption.
B. A certification authority is an entity that issues digital certificates for use by other parties.
C. A certification authority is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computercryptography.
D. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decryp t data.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are good security measures to implement?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using WEP encryption
B. Using WPA encryption
C. Not broadcasting SSID
D. MAC filtering the router

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 12
Linux traffic monitoring tools are used to monitor and quickly detect faults in the network or a system. Which of the following tools are used to monitor traffic of the Linux operating system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PsExec
B. IPTraf
C. MRTG
D. PsLogList
E. Ntop

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 13
John works as an Office Assistant in DataSoft Inc. He has received an e-mail from [email protected] with the following message:
The DueSoft Lottery Incorporation
This is to inform you that you have just won a prize of $7,500.00 for this year’s Annual Lottery promotion, which was organized by Msn/Yahoo Lottery in conjunction with DueSoft. We collect active online e-mails and select five people every year as our winners through an electronic balloting machine. Please reply within three days of receiving this e-mail with your full details like Name, Address, Sex, Occupation, Age, State, Telephone number, and Country to claim your prize.
If John replies to this e-mail, which of the following attacks may he become vulnerable to?
A. Salami attack
B. Man-in-the-Middle attack
C. Phishing attack
D. DoS attack

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using a tool to crack the wireless encryption keys. The description of the
tool is as follows:
Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. AirSnort
B. Kismet
C. PsPasswd
D. Cain

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Intercepting proxy server
B. Anonymous proxy server
C. Reverse proxy server
D. Tunneling proxy server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
B. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
C. Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
D. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. I love you
B. Melissa
C. Tequila
D. Brain
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which of the following needs to be documented to preserve evidences for presentation in court?
A. Incident response policy
B. Account lockout policy
C. Separation of duties
D. Chain of custody

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that allows individuals communicating over a non-secure network to prove their identity to one another in a secure manner. Which of the following statements are true about the Kerberos authentication scheme?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Kerberos requires continuous availability of a central server.
B. Kerberos builds on Asymmetric key cryptography and requires a trusted third party.
C. Dictionary and brute force attacks on the initial TGS response to a client may reveal the subject’spasswords.
D. Kerberos requires the clocks of the involved hosts to be synchronized.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 20
Which of the following is used in asymmetric encryption?
A. Public key and user key
B. SSL
C. Public key and private key
D. NTFS

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
Sam, a malicious hacker, targets the electric power grid of Umbrella Inc. and gains access to the electronic control systems. Which of the following types of cybercrime has Sam performed?
A. Cyber defamation
B. Cybertrespass
C. Cyberterrorism
D. Cybertheft

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Maria works as a Desktop Technician for PassGuide Inc. She has received an e-mail from the MN
Compensation Office with the following message:
Dear Sir/Madam,
My name is Edgar Rena, the director of compensation here at the MN Compensation Office in Chicago.

We receive so many complaints about fraudulent activities that have been taking place in your region for the past few years. Due to the high volume loss of money, the MN compensation department has had an agreement with the appropriate authority to compensate each victim with a sum of USD$500,000.00.
You were selected among the list of people to be paid this sum. To avoid any imperative mood by intending scammers, your payment has been transmuted into an International bank draft which can be cashed at any local bank in your country.
Please fill the below details and send it to our secretary for your compensation bank draft.
Full name:
Address:

Tel:

Fill & Send to:
Dr. Michael Brown
MN Compensation Office, IL
Tel: +1-866-233-8434
Email: [email protected]
Further instructions shall be given to you by our secretary as soon as you contact him. To avoid losing your

compensation, you are requested to pay the sum of $350 for Insurance Premium to our secretary.
Thanks and God bless.
If Maria replies to this mail, which of the following attacks may she become vulnerable to?

A. Phishing attack
B. SYN attack
C. CookieMonster attack
D. Mail bombing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Victor works as a network administrator for DataSecu Inc. He uses a dual firewall Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) to insulate the rest of the network from the portions that is available to the Internet.
Which of the following security threats may occur if DMZ protocol attacks are performed? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The attacker can exploit any protocol used to go into the internal network or intranet of thecompany.
B. The attacker can gain access to the Web server in a DMZ and exploit the database.
C. The attacker can perform a Zero Day attack by delivering a malicious payload that is not a part of the intrusion detection/prevention systems guarding the network.
D. The attacker managing to break the first firewall defense can access the internal network without breaking the second firewall if it is different.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 24
Which of the following Linux rootkits is installed via stolen SSH keys?
A. Phalanx2
B. Beastkit
C. Adore
D. Linux.Ramen

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?
A. Snooping
B. Copyright
C. Utility model
D. Patent

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://202.154.59.182/mfile/files/Information%20System/Computer%20Forensics%3B%20H ard%20Disk%
20and%20Operating%20Systems/CHAPTER%207%20Application%20Pass word%20Crackers.pdf (page
4, rule-based attack)

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 3
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the table inside the database using the below query and finds the table:
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 4
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 5
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx notation, where ‘xx’ is the
A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Refere’ http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glossary
QUESTION 7
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that could be exploited by an external attacker.

During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 8
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level of a company.
Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack D. Dictionary attack
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=m2qZNW4dcyIC&pg=PA237&lpg=PA237&dq=passw ord+cracking
+attacks+tries+every+combination+of+characters+until+the+password+is+bro
ken&source=bl&ots=RKEUUo6LYj&sig=MPEfFBEpoO0yvOwMxYCoPQuqM5g&hl=en&sa=
X&ei=ZdwdVJm3CoXSaPXsgPgM&ved=0CCEQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=password%20cr acking%
20attacks%20tries%20every%20combination%20of%20characters%20until%20th e%20password%20is%
20broken&f=false

QUESTION 9
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec

C. IKE
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/vpn_solutions_center/2- 0/ip_security/ provisioning/guide/IPsecPG1.html
QUESTION 11
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 12
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing
C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 14
The IP protocol was designed for use on a wide variety of transmission links. Although the maximum length of an IP datagram is 64K, most transmission links enforce a smaller maximum packet length limit, called a MTU.
The value of the MTU depends on the type of the transmission link. The design of IP accommodates MTU differences by allowing routers to fragment IP datagrams as necessary. The receiving station is responsible for reassembling the fragments back into the original full size IP datagram.
IP fragmentation involves breaking a datagram into a number of pieces that can be reassembled later. The IP source, destination, identification, total length, and fragment offset fields in the IP header, are used for IP fragmentation and reassembly.

The fragment offset is 13 bits and indicates where a fragment belongs in the original IP datagram. This value is a:
A. Multiple of four bytes
B. Multiple of two bytes
C. Multiple of eight bytes
D. Multiple of six bytes Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.freesoft.org/CIE/Course/Section3/7.htm (fragment offset: 13 bits)
QUESTION 15
From where can clues about the underlying application environment can be collected?
A. From the extension of the file
B. From executable file
C. From file types and directories
D. From source code
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which of the following information gathering techniques collects information from an organization’s web-based calendar and email services?
A. Anonymous Information Gathering
B. Private Information Gathering
C. Passive Information Gathering
D. Active Information Gathering
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://luizfirmino.blogspot.com/2011/09/footprinting-terminologies.html
QUESTION 17
Which Wireshark filter displays all the packets where the IP address of the source host is 10.0.0.7?

A. ip.dst==10.0.0.7
B. ip.port==10.0.0.7
C. ip.src==10.0.0.7
D. ip.dstport==10.0.0.7
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which of the following statements is true about the LM hash?
A. Disabled in Windows Vista and 7 OSs
B. Separated into two 8-character strings
C. Letters are converted to the lowercase
D. Padded with NULL to 16 characters
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.onlinehashcrack.com/how_to_crack_windows_passwords.php (first paragraph of the page)
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statement holds true for TCP Operation?

A. Port numbers are used to know which application the receiving host should pass the data to
B. Sequence numbers are used to track the number of packets lost in transmission
C. Flow control shows the trend of a transmitting host overflowing the buffers in the receiving host
D. Data transfer begins even before the connection is established
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which of the following will not handle routing protocols properly?
A. “Internet-router-firewall-net architecture”
B. “Internet-firewall-router-net architecture”
C. “Internet-firewall -net architecture”
D. “Internet-firewall/router(edge device)-net architecture”
Correct Answer: A Explanation

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QUESTION NO: 1
When deciding on the network bandwidth needed to connect front ends to an SAP system (using a WAN connection), you should consider which of the following? (Choose three.)
A. The number of users connecting using this line.
B. Using SAP’s advanced online data compression technology (SAP ODCT) to minimize the network load. The software needed for this feature is sold separately.
C. The volume of “non-SAP-related” traffic (for example, office documents) using the same connection.
D. It might be useful to switch on the “Low speed connection” flag for the remote connections.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 2
SAP Solution Manager 4.0 can use an SLD (System Landscape Directory). Which statements are true for the purpose of the SLD?
A. SLD is only available with the shipment of SAP NetWeaver Process Integration (PI).
B. SLD is the landscape-wide information provider for system landscape data and acts as a foundation of many SAP applications.
C. SLD is a Java application. Therefore, ABAP applications cannot make use of the information provided by the SLD.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is accessed. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
B. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
C. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP system from which help is being called.
D. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the SAP system from which help is being called.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the ‘System change option’ in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two.)
A. Modifiable
B. Repaired objects modifiable
C. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
D. Original objects modifiable
E. Not modifiable
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 5
Regarding the architecture of the SAP NetWeaver AS, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Central Services Instance of the SAP NetWeaver AS Java is only needed in a pure SAP NetWeaver AS Java (without SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP) installation.
B. The Java work processes are controlled by a dispatcher.
C. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP can communicate with each other.
D. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP use different database schemas.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of following is true for an SAP system with an Oracle database? ORACLE_HOME is …
A. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
B. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
C. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
D. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements is correct regarding online Oracle database backups?
A. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
B. The database does not write to online redo log files during online backups.
C. Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.
D. A complete online backup consists of tablespace data files and the control file, all of which are necessary for restoring the database to a consistent state.
E. Users may only read data and may not enter data while the backup is running.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the integrated ITS?
A. Using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON
C. On operating system level, using the command “its -mem”
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based monitoring are
true?
(Choose two.)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by CCMS monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched by using operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own monitor definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following statements regarding the transaction RZ10 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. When you use the save button in RZ10 and activate the profile, it will be written immediately to the operating system level.
B. The default profile cannot be maintained using transaction RZ10.
C. The maintained parameters will take effect immediately after the profile is activated in the RZ10.
D. You can compare the profile file on the operating system with the profile in the database.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 11
In the MOUNT mode of an Oracle instance, the administrator can do which of the following?
(Choose two.)
A. Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database.
B. Perform a media recovery.
C. Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEM.
D. Recreate the missing control file.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following statements regarding removing a Central User Administration are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Once the CUA has been configured completely and the users have been transferred to the CUA master client, you cannot remove the CUA completely any more.
B. A child system can to be removed from the CUA (permanently or temporarily).
C. You can remove the CUA completely.
D. When you remove a child system from the CUA you automatically lose all users that exist in this child client.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 13
What catch-phrase best describes SAP’s software maintenance strategy?
A. “3-3-1 maintenance”
B. “5-1-2 maintenance”
C. “4-2-2 maintenance”
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
For which of the following options do you need to install and configure SAProuter?
(Choose two.)
A. Create a support message in case of problems with the SAP system
B. EarlyWatch session done remotely by an employee of SAP
C. Connection to http://help.sap.com.
D. Remote Consulting from SAP Answer: B,D

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QUESTION 1
A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value of a metric of interest.
A. NP Chart
B. Xbar-R Chart
C. I-MR Chart
D. C Chart

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of defectives of a particular sample set so she used a ___________ to display the data?
A. Individual Chart
B. C Chart
C. Xbar Chart
D. P Chart

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to enable OCAP for the process?
A. Xbar Chart
B. Time Series Chart
C. Neither
D. Both

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Control Charts were developed by Dr. Shewhart to track data over time. To detect Special Cause variation the Control Charts use which of these?
A. Data shift analysis
B. Outlier analysis methods
C. Center Line and Control Limits
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Common and ______________ Cause Variation are the focus of Statistical Process Control.
A. Uncommon
B. Ordinary
C. Special
D. Selective

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?
A. Natural & Unnatural
B. Short Term & Long Term
C. Assignable & Pattern
D. Attribute & Discreet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Range Charts are the technique used to determine if Special Causes are occurring within the subgroups of the ______________.
A. Histograms
B. SPC Charts
C. NP Charts
D. Pareto Charts

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
If the production is for higher volume and monitoring and the Mean and variability is to be monitored for four machines producing product and the characteristic to be monitored is Variable Data, which SPC Chart is best to be selected?
A. Xbar-R Chart
B. Individual-MR Chart
C. NP Chart
D. CUSUM Chart

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
When a Belt Poka-Yoke’s a defect out of the process entirely then she should track the activity with a robust SPC system on the characteristic of interest in the defect as an early warning system.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Following the completion of a LSS project the Belt not only creates a Control Plan he also develops a _____________ so those involved in the process know what to do when the critical metrics move out of spec.
A. Response Plan
B. Call List
C. Chain-of-Command
D. Defect Analysis Plan
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The Control Limits width varies if the sample size varies for which type of chart?
A. P Charts
B. NP Charts
C. Xbar-R Charts
D. Time Series Charts

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of these elements are not included in Implementation plans?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Risk management plans
C. Cost/Benefit ratios
D. Planned audits of work completion

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Upon completion and validation of an improvement to a process a Belt and the Project Team create a Control Plan that contains which of these?
A. Standard operating work description of the process change
B. Description of the monitoring system in place to assure continued compliance
C. Summary of the targeted critical metrics for process performance measurement
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What conclusion is most correct about the Experimental Design shown here with the response in the far right column?

A. No factor has enough statistical confidence greater than 95% to have an impact on the response rate
B. Constant, Adv and Bev are the only factors statistically affecting the response rate with 95% confidence or more
C. If the Adv is increased from the low level to the high level, the response rate increases
D. The response level is statistically concluded to only need the Adv and Bev factors set at the low level to get the largest response rate
E. This design does not have enough experimental runs to conclude anything as evidenced by the lack of P-values in the MINITABTM output

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which statement(s) are correct about the Factorial Plot shown here? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

A. When the cutting speed increased from low to high level, the tool age increases
B. The coefficient of the metal hardness is positively related to the output of tool age
C. The coded coefficient is lower for cutting speed than the cutting angle related to the output of tool age
D. These plots prove a statistically significance factor with 95% confidence
E. These plots are an example of interaction plots

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16
How many experimental runs exist in a Full Factorial and fully randomized design for 4 factors with 2 replicates for the Corner Points and no Center Points? The factors in the experiment are only at 2-levels.
A. 10
B. 32
C. 256
D. 64

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
If an experiment has 5 factors and no replicates for a 2-level Experimental Design with 16 experimental runs which statement is incorrect?
A. The Experimental Design is half-fractional
B. The Main Effects are confounded with only 4-way interactions
C. The Main Effects for the 5 factors are not aliased or confounded but the 2-way interactions are confounded with the 3-way interactions
D. The experiment has 8 experimental runs with the first factor at the high level

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which statement(s) are correct about the Pareto Chart shown here for the DOE analysis? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. It is unknown from this graph how many factors were in the Experimental Design
B. The factors to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal to 2.06
C. The effects to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal to 0.05
D. The factors to keep in the mathematical model with a 5% alpha risk are BE, AB, A and AD

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 19
Fractional Factorial, ____________and Response Surface Method are types of planned experiments.
A. Multi-Vari Analysis
B. Baldridge Channels
C. One Factor at a Time or OFAT
D. Factorial Design

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Relative to a Design of Experiments the term ________________ refers to variables being a linear combination of each other.
A. Mirror Image
B. Directly Parallel
C. Collinear
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which statement(s) are incorrect about Fractional Factorial Designs?
A. A Half Fractional Design for 5 factors has the same number of experimental runs as a Full Factorial Design for 4 factors assuming no repeats or replicates or Center Points
B. Quarter Fractional experiments can exist for those with 4 factors
C. Resolution V design is desired while controlling costs of experimentation
D. Half Fractional experiments do not exist for those designs with only 2 factors

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
If in an experiment all possible variable pairs sum to zero the design is Orthogonal.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Which Experimental Design typically is most associated with the fewest number of input variables or factors in the design?
A. Fractional Factorial design
B. Full Factorial design
C. Simple Linear Regression
D. Response Surface Design

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
The method of Steepest Ascent guides you toward a target inside the original inference space.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Situations where standardized work needs to be incorporated include all of these except _____________________.
A. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
C. Changeover instructions incomplete
D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Internal control systems have two components. The first is_____________ ,and the second is the __________ within an individual business application
A. Environmental Controls, Transaction Processing Controls
B. Transaction Processing Controls, Environmental Controls
C. General Control, Environmental Control
D. Environmental Control, General Control
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
The purpose of a Risk Analysis Process is to answer the question:
A. How big is the risk?
B. Is this an acceptable risk?
C. What exactly is being exposed to the risk?
D. What alternatives are there?
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
The main objectives of process mapping is / are to understand:
A. How a process contributes to meeting the organization’s mission and goals?
B. Who is responsible for the process?
C. How the process interfaces to produce the organization’s outcomes?
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Laws and regulations affecting the products produced and operated are generally addressed in which planning activity:
A. Business or Activity Planning
B. Environment Planning
C. Capabilities Planning
D. Assumptions Planning
E. Policies Planning
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Strategic planning answers which of the following questions:
A. What to do?
B. When to do it?
C. How to do it?
D. Where to do it?
E. Who does it?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6

Enforcement of standards is the responsibility of:
A. Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Auditors
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which of the following Quality Management principle(s) are incorporated into the ISO 9001 standard?
A. System approach to management
B. Process approach
C. Mutually beneficial supplier relationships
D. Factual approach decision making
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 8
The level of quality can vary significantly from project to project. These levels of quality, which can be quantified and measured, are called:
A. Defect Density
B. Quality Attributes
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Assurance

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
The primary responsibility of quality lies with:
A. Project Manager
B. Senior Management
C. Testing Team
D. Developer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
COTS software is normally developed prior to an organization selecting that software for its use.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
In the PDCA cycle, if a check detects an abnormality, then record the abnormality and continue the work per the procedure.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT a QFD Horizontal Deployment?
A. Functional Deployment
B. Information Deployment
C. Customer Deployment
D. Task Deployment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What early quality pioneer developed the “Quality Trilogy” of Quality Planning, Quality Control, and Quality Improvement?
A. William Perry
B. Joseph Juran
C. Dr. Deming
D. Philip Crosby
E. Bill Gates
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is considered a product measure?
A. Overall development time
B. Average level of experience of development staff
C. Rate time
D. Quality
E. Time spent fixing errors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Example(s) of traditional management philosophy are:
A. Fire fighting
B. Refine the process
C. Teamwork
D. A and C
E. All the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
SEI’s CMMi maturity level 5 is also known as:
A. Managed
B. Defined
C. Optimizing
D. Quantitatively Managed
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which level(s) of the organization should be involved in both establishing and using processes in their daily work?
A. Senior
B. Mid-level
C. Junior
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
It is generally agreed that people are the key to providing an adequate and appropriate level of security. One of the most effective methods for involving people in security is:
A. Write a security policy
B. Conduct security awareness training
C. Evaluate people on following security procedures
D. Write detailed security procedures
E. Develop security response programs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Process improvement activities should also be conducted as per a defined process.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
Good ideas are of little value unless they are accepted and implemented.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Which of the following defines special cause of variation?
A. Variation between the upper and lower control limits
B. Variation not present in the process
C. Conditions that regularly contribute to variability
D. Contributes a small portion to control variation of process outputs
E. Regular contributors to variability

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which of the following activities should occur before processes are defined to ensure that the most critical processes are defined first.
A. Do
B. Design
C. Implementation
D. Check
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
What should post-implementation audits NOT be used for?
A. Determine if system objectives were met
B. Determine if standards were followed
C. Determine who is to blame for project problems
D. Determine if IT quality objectives were achieved
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which of the following processes is / are within the Defect Management level for maturing the Quality Control Processes?
A. Defect Database
B. Defect Reporting
C. Defect Analysis
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
What company developed the concept known as “Six Sigma Quality”?
A. IBM
B. Microsoft
C. Infosys
D. Apple
E. Motorola
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
In critical listening, the listener is:
A. Sympathetic to the speaker’s point of view
B. Performing an analysis of what the speaker said
C. Selecting pieces of information
D. Getting a complete message with minimal distortion
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A process is a vehicle of communication, specifying the methods used to produce:
A. A Service
B. A Product
C. Both Product and Service
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28

When listening to a speaker, the speaker’s verbal, vocal, and body channels always convey the same message.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Testing to determine whether current changes have adversely affected previous functionality is called:
A. Regression Testing
B. System Testing
C. Unit Testing
D. Acceptance Testing
E. Integration Testing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Branch testing technique is included in which of the following test data categories?
A. Functional
B. Structural
C. Error Oriented

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What is the maximum amount of time that the team should spend in the daily scrum?
A. As long as it takes
B. 1 hour
C. 45 minutes
D. 15 minutes
E. 15 minutes, proportionally less for shorter Sprints

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Please select which statement is the most accurate:
A. Agile Development is an implementation of Scrum
B. Scrum is an implementation of Agile Development
C. Agile Development and Scrum are synonyms for the same methodology
D. Agile Development and Scrum are contrasting methodologies

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Running the daily scrum meeting;
B. Running the daily scrum meeting
C. Gathering requirements for Product Backlog items
D. Inspecting work at Sprint Review

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
How should items in the Product Backlog be ordered?
A. Alphabetically first and then by list order in the Product Backlog
B. Grouped by business features first and then chronologically by date of original business request
C. Prioritized by business importance first. The items that result in biggest ROI, must be priorized first;
D. Chronologically by date of original business request first and then by list order in the Product Backlog

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a role in the Scrum framework?
A. Database Admin
B. Development Team
C. QA Tester
D. Senior Developer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
The Scrum Framework encompasses rules or guidelines for documentation?
A. True B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
The individual, detailed pieces of work that are needed to convert a product backlog item into a working software component or solution are called:
A. User Stories
B. Use cases
C. Line items
D. Tasks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Why does Scrum prevent Product Owners from changing Product Backlog items that are being worked on during the Sprint?
A. The development team cannot meet their Sprint commitment to complete work if requirements are changing
B. A Sprint cycle is not enough time for senior management review and approve changes
C. This forces Product Owners to focus on what is really important for the team to develop.
D. The development team must be able to limit the Product Owner authority

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which of the following is not a Scrum artifact?
A. User Stories
B. Sprint Backlog
C. Product Backlog
D. Incremento de Software

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
You are the new Scrum Master at a company currently doing RUP in three month iterations. Your current task in switching from RUP to Scrum is to define how long the Sprint cycle should be. In what units of time should you define the sprint cycle?
A. A fixed amount of months
B. A fixed amount of weeks, excluding holidays
C. A fixed amount of days
D. A fixed amount of hours

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements best explains what the term Sprint means in Scrum?
A. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to test and resolve any issues prior to product release or shipment
B. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to work at a sustainable pace to finish select work.
C. A sprint is an agreed upon period of time for team members to select individual items from the product backlog to work on.
D. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to work as many hours as needed to finish assigned work

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
_____________ can change the priority of items in the _________ backlog at any time.
A. The Team; Product
B. The Product Owner(s); Sprint
C. The Product Owner(s); Product
D. The Scrum Master; Sprint

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a Scrum cycle activity?
A. Sprint retrospective
B. Daily scrum
C. Weekly inspection
D. Sprint planning

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements best describes Product Backlog items?
A. Undefined or poorly defined Product Backlog items should be placed on the Product Backlog with a low priority
B. All Product Backlog items are the result of a(n) analysis, requirements and/or design phase(s).
C. Undefined or poorly defined Product Backlog items should be kept out from the Product Backlog until sufficient detail is known.
D. Every Product Backlog item, whether low priority or high priority, should possess sufficient detail for the Team to complete in a Sprint.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
________________ constitute the Sprint Backlog and are often estimated in hours?
A. User Stories
B. Use Cases
C. Features
D. Tasks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an independent Product Backlog

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 20
What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a _________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections?
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum team work?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?
A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation process. The project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few administrative closure activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have wrecked the project but you and your project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the project costs or project completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have identified during the project’s monitoring and controlling process?
A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization’s lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project’s risk register already.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?
A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months and will cost $750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and stakeholders to identify risks within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why you have scheduled so many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just initially during the project planning. What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?
A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during project execution.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a rating for occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Which of the following role carriers will decide the Key Risk Indicator of the enterprise? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Business leaders
B. Senior management
C. Human resource
D. Chief financial officer

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 8
What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Determination of cause and effect
B. Determination of the value of business process at risk
C. Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss
D. Determination of the value of an asset

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 9
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?
A. Resource Management Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Stakeholder management strategy
D. Communications Management Plan

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Which of the following controls is an example of non-technical controls?
A. Access control
B. Physical security
C. Intrusion detection system
D. Encryption

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
You are the project manager of GHT project. Your project team is in the process of identifying project risks on your current project. The team has the option to use all of the following tools and techniques to diagram some of these potential risks EXCEPT for which one?
A. Process flowchart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Influence diagram
D. Decision tree diagram

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the utility of a risk?
A. The finance incentive behind the risk
B. The potential opportunity of the risk
C. The mechanics of how a risk works
D. The usefulness of the risk to individuals or groups

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Which of the following aspect of monitoring tool ensures that the monitoring tool has the ability to keep up with the growth of an enterprise?
A. Scalability
B. Customizability
C. Sustainability
D. Impact on performance

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified risk that is noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals of your enterprise. In which of the following levels do this identified risk exists?
A. Moderate risk
B. High risk
C. Extremely high risk
D. Low risk

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Courtney is the project manager for her organization. She is working with the project team to complete the qualitative risk analysis for her project. During the analysis Courtney encourages the project team to begin the grouping of identified risks by common causes. What is the primary advantage to group risks by common causes during qualitative risk analysis?
A. It helps the project team realize the areas of the project most laden with risks.
B. It assist in developing effective risk responses.
C. It saves time by collecting the related resources, such as project team members, to analyze the risk events.
D. It can lead to the creation of risk categories unique to each project.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “It is the process of exchanging information and views about risks among stakeholders, such as groups, individuals, and institutions.”
A. Risk governance
B. Risk identification
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk communication

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You are an experienced Project Manager that has been entrusted with a project to develop a machine which produces auto components. You have scheduled meetings with the project team and the key stakeholders to identify the risks for your project. Which of the following is a key output of this process?
A. Risk Register
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Risk Breakdown Structure
D. Risk Categories

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which of the following components of risk scenarios has the potential to generate internal or external threat on an enterprise?
A. Timing dimension
B. Events
C. Assets
D. Actors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have planned the risk response process and now you are about to implement various controls. What you should do before relying on any of the controls?
A. Review performance data
B. Discover risk exposure
C. Conduct pilot testing
D. Articulate risk

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 20
Which of the following is NOT true for risk management capability maturity level 1?
A. There is an understanding that risk is important and needs to be managed, but it is viewed asa technical issue and the business primarily considers the downside of IT risk
B. Decisions involving risk lack credible information
C. Risk appetite and tolerance are applied only during episodic risk assessments
D. Risk management skills exist on an ad hoc basis, but are not actively developed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
An enterprise has identified risk events in a project. While responding to these identified risk events, which among the following stakeholders is MOST important for reviewing risk response options to an IT risk.
A. Information security managers
B. Internal auditors
C. Incident response team members
D. Business managers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of unwanted occurrences in a system?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Scenario analysis
C. Fault tree analysis
D. Cause and effect analysis

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
What is the process for selecting and implementing measures to impact risk called?
A. Risk Treatment
B. Control
C. Risk Assessment
D. Risk Management

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act specifies “Periodic financial reports must be certified by CEO and CFO”?
A. Section 302
B. Section 404
C. Section 203
D. Section 409

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
What is the PRIMARY need for effectively assessing controls?
A. Control’s alignment with operating environment
B. Control’s design effectiveness
C. Control’s objective achievement
D. Control’s operating effectiveness Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decide, with your stakeholders’ approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project, what is likely to increase?
A. Human resource needs
B. Quality control concerns
C. Costs
D. Risks

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1 A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2 When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the fieldwork starts, the comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit

Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results

Answer: B
QUESTION: 4 Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess compliance to a specific requirement at all locations where that requirement is applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes that statistical process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations are done correctly and are regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6 When is it acceptable to grant an extension of the time frame for a corrective action?
A. When the auditor cannot perform the follow-up audit as scheduled
B. When the auditee determines that the proposed corrective action is not cost- effective
C. When the corrective action plan requires more time than originally anticipated
D. When there has been a change in operators who perform the task

Answer: C
QUESTION: 7 The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control charts?
A. p chart
B. u chart
C. np chart
D. c chart

Answer: A
QUESTION: 8 Auditors can use flowcharts in their work in order to
A. analyze the causal factors of process dispersion
B. understand the overall process or system being audited
C. distinguish variations in a process over time
D. determine process capability and uniformity

Answer: B
QUESTION: 9 An auditee responds to a corrective action request by stating that the problem has never occurred before and is “not the norm for our operation.” Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the lead auditor?
A. Note that the deficiency is the result of a random occurrence.
B. Draft a response explicitly requesting a more concise root-cause analysis.
C. Confer with the audit client to assess the appropriateness of the response.
D. Schedule a follow-up audit immediately.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 Which of the following is an audit reporting technique for prioritizing audit findings?
A. Weibull distribution
B. Risk-benefit ratio
C. Cognitive dissonance
D. Ishikawa diagram

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 Which of the following is most important for an auditor to convey at an initial audit interview?
A. A give-and-take atmosphere that focuses on compromise
B. A formal approach that is guided by specific roles for each participant
C. An interest in cooperation and open dialogue
D. A personal approach to information gathering

Answer: C
QUESTION: 12 If the audit escort for one area is repeatedly late or unavailable, what is the best option open to the auditor?
A. Notify the auditee management of the consequences created by the delays.
B. Narrow the scope of the audit to accommodate the delays.
C. Proceed without the escort.
D. Assess system effectiveness using objective evidence from other areas.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 13 Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Range
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14 During the opening meeting, it is the auditee’s responsibility to
A. prepare the meeting agenda
B. set the audit schedule
C. state the audit purpose and scope
D. identify safety requirements

Answer: D
QUESTION: 15
Auditor independence includes freedom from which of the following?

I. Bias
II. Conflict of interest
III. External influences
IV.
Previous exposure to the area

A.
I and II only

B.
II and IV only

C.
I, II, and III only

D.
II, III and IV only

Answer: C
QUESTION: 16 Which of the following requests by an auditor is likely to obtain the most objective evidence for verification?
A. “What kind of information do you receive?”
B. “Who provides the information to you?”
C. “Describe how you receive information.”
D. “Show me the information you have received.”
Answer: D
QUESTION: 17
Audits are conducted against a performance standard to ensure which of the following?
I. Meaningful measurements
II. Objectively evaluated performance
III.
Perceptive observations

A.
I only

B.
I and II only

C.
II and III only

D.
I, II, and III

Answer: B
QUESTION: 18 While performing an internal audit, an auditor notices that an operator on one shift skips part of the documented procedure. In this situation, the auditor should do which of the following?
A. Make a note on the checklist and initial it.
B. Report it to the operator’s supervisor or manager.
C. Question the operator about the observation.
D. Ask another operator to evaluate the situation.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 19 An auditor is performing an audit of a drilling machine that produces 100 pieces a day and that is showing improved quality. Which of the following rules should be used for determining the proper sample size for a fixed level of confidence?
A. The moving average should be calculated.
B. The sample size should be decreased as the quality improves.
C. The AQL of the raw material should be used.
D. A 10% sample size should be used, regardless of the change in quality.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 20
An audit report should contain which of the following?

A. Audit findings
B. Root cause analysis
C. Corrective action
D. Re-audit schedule

Answer: A
QUESTION: 21 The objective evidence supporting an audit observation must be
A. recorded on the working papers
B. verified by the escort
C. mentioned to the auditee
D. written as a nonconformance

Answer: A
QUESTION: 22 Generally, which of the following is the most meaningful way to trace a finished product?
A. Forward from starting with the acquisition of raw materials
B. Forward from the first production activity
C. Backward from the start of the assembly process
D. Backward from the end point

Answer: D
QUESTION: 23 When a proposed corrective action plan is judged unacceptable, an auditor should do which of the following?
A. Revise the submitted plan on the basis of the auditor’s knowledge and technical expertise.
B. Notify the auditee and request that a new plan be submitted by the next level of management.
C. Discuss the plan’s deficiencies with the auditee and request a revised plan.
D. Suggest that the auditee benchmark the deficient area and then rewrite the plan.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 24 Who makes the final determination regarding the distribution of the audit report?
A. The lead auditor
B. The audit group manager
C. The auditee
D. The client

Answer: D
QUESTION: 25 The confidence level in a sampling plan is defined as the
A. degree of uncertainty that the selected sample contains at leastone example of any errors thatare present
B. degree of certainty that the selected sample contains at least one example of any errors that are present
C. lowest performance level that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited
D. maximum error rate that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited

Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
Which of the following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?

A. Histograms
B. Frequency distributions
C. Pareto charts
D. Process observations

Answer: D
QUESTION: 27 An auditor finds deficiencies in the order entry, purchasing, product test, and shipping functions of a potential supplier. Which of them should have the highest priority in the audit report?
A. Order entry
B. Product test
C. Purchasing
D. Shipping

Answer: B
QUESTION: 28 After an external audit, the auditee may be asked to evaluate which of the following auditor skills or elements of the audit?
A. Interviewing, interaction, accuracy of the audit report
B. Audit scheduling, auditor training records, observing an audit
C. Communication, listening, checklist preparation
D. Clarity of past audit reports, number of findings, lack of bias

Answer: A
QUESTION: 29 To determine whether a finding is a minor, isolated incident or a serious, chronic problem, an auditor should consult with the
A. auditee’s quality assurance inspector
B. auditee’s department manager
C. audit team
D. client

Answer: C
QUESTION: 30 Which two of the following conditions must be met in order to infer statistical significance about the results of an audit sample?
I. The population must be homogeneous.
II. The sample size must be greater than 10.
III. The sample must be random.
IV.
The sample must be taken from multiple locations.

A.
I and II
B.I
and III

C.
II and III

D.
III and IV

Answer: B
QUESTION: 31 Which of the following qualifications would contribute most to an auditor being able to function effectively in various industrial or service disciplines?
A. Familiarity with technical standards and regulations
B. A college degree in a specific technical area
C. A working knowledge of typical corporate organizational structures
D. Extensive background in calibration and metrology techniques

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 A root cause analysis can best be described as a process that is used to
A. evaluate corrective action plans
B. determine the basic reason for an undesirable condition
C. identify the symptoms of an undesirable condition

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QUESTION 1
IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using 4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4GLs are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly
for graphic user interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs
have simple programming language subsets.

C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would
provide the most positive verification that updating was proper.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the
testing of software modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one
single unit/entity, consisting of numerous modules and second, with the user data that
flows across software modules. In some cases, this even drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply
closely examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software.
Hence, these cannot be referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and
this would be a cause for concern. Incorrect answers:

B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this areA.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an
ethernet and token network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device. Bridges operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the
media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:

A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses (i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN, reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled through callback systems that are available.
QUESTION 7
A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up line, then the server disconnects and:
A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and password using the sender’s database.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials again. The server cannot depend upon the sender’s database to dial back as the same could be manipulated.
QUESTION 8
Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured
programming has evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain.
Structured programming is a style of programming which restricts the kinds of control
structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program can be written with allowed
control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as go-to-less programming, since a

go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well
known restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured
programming was becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary,
except in languages where subroutines are identified by labels.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data
to ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value
substituted. This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:

A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteriA.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that they are not already in the system.
QUESTION 10
An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in
advance of the need.
Incorrect answers:

B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers
and CPUs, to operate an information processing facility. D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site
that can back up critical applications.
QUESTION 11
A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when deadlines are tight), units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test areA. This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing. Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.
QUESTION 12
In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading
partners and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:

B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner’s proprietary format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the
communications handler.
QUESTION 13
The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and
evaluation stages. It is during the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management’s commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.
QUESTION 14
Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh) Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host
machines.
Incorrect answers:

A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or
blanks.
Incorrect answers:

A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteriA.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.
QUESTION 17
A data administrator is responsible for:
A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their
relationship. Choices A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

QUESTION 18
A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database. Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.
QUESTION 19
An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schemA.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schemA. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to

the internal schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data
independence for application systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user department data model.
QUESTION 20
To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender’s private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender’s private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender’s private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the sender’s private key.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message, and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest using the sender’s private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest, only the message digest is enciphered using the sender’s private key, not the message.
QUESTION 21
A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected to the system.
QUESTION 22
A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network resources.
QUESTION 23
Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a

central computer to relieve the central computer.
QUESTION 24
The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed
checkpoints but its primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of
documentation nor will it provide direction for the post-implementation review.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so
messages can make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:

B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions, such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a higher-speed channel.

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