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QUESTION NO: 30
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He notices that UDP port 137 of the We-are-secure server is open. Assuming that the Network Administrator of We-are-secure Inc. has not changed the default port values of the services, which of the following services is running on UDP port 137?
A. HTTP
B. TELNET
C. NetBIOS
D. HTTPS
Answer: C Explanation: NetBIOS is a Microsoft service that enables applications on different computers to communicate within a LAN. NetBIOS systems identify themselves with a 15-character unique name and use Server Message Block, which allows Remote directory, file and printer sharing, etc. The default port value of NetBIOS Name Resolution Service is 137/UDP. Answer: A is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a client/server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when a client application or browser sends a request to the server using HTTP commands, the server responds with a message containing the protocol version, success or failure code, server information, and body content, depending on the request. HTTP uses TCP port 80 as the default port. Answer: D is incorrect. The default port of HTTPS is TCP/443. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) protocol is a protocol used in the Universal Resource Locater (URL) address line to connect to a secure site. If a site has been made secure by using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) then HTTPS, instead of HTTP protocol, should be used as a protocol type in the URL. Answer: B is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default.

QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following statements about a session are true? (Choose two)

A. The creation time can be obtained using the getSessionCreationTime() method of the HttpSession.
B. The getAttribute() method of the HttpSession interface returns a String.
C. The time for the setMaxInactiveInterval() method of the HttpSession interface is specified in seconds.
D. The isNew() method is used to identify if the session is new.
Answer: C,D Explanation: The setMaxInactiveInterval() method sets the maximum time in seconds before a session becomes invalid. The syntax of this method is as follows: public void setMaxInactiveInterval(int interval) Here, interval is specified in seconds. The isNew() method of the HttpSession interface returns true if the client does not yet know about the session, or if the client chooses not to join the session. This method throws an IllegalStateException if called on an invalidated session. Answer: B is incorrect. The getAttribute(String name) method of the HttpSession interface returns the value of the named attribute as an object. It returns a null value if no attribute with the given name is bound to the session. This method throws an IllegalStateException if it is called on an invalidated session. Answer: A is incorrect. The creation time of a session can be obtained using the getCreationTime() method of the HttpSession.

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements is true about a relational database?
A. It is difficult to extend a relational database.
B. The standard user and application program interface to a relational database is Programming Language (PL).
C. It is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables.
D. It is a set of tables containing data fitted into runtime defined categories.
Answer: C Explanation: A relational database is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables from which data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database tables. Answer: B is incorrect. The standard user and application program interface to a relational database is the structured query language (SQL). Answer: A is incorrect. In addition to being relatively easy to create and access, a relational database has the important advantage of being easy to extend. Answer: D is incorrect. A relational database is a set of tables containing data fitted into predefined categories. Each table (which is sometimes called a relation) contains one or more data categories in columns. Each row contains a unique instance of data for the categories defined by the columns.
QUESTION NO: 33

You work as a Network Administrator for BetaTech Inc. You have been assigned the task of designing the firewall policy for the company. Which of the following statements is unacceptable in the ‘acceptable use statement’ portion of the firewall policy?
A. The computers and their applications should be used for organizational related activities only.
B. Computers may not be left unattended with a user account still logged on.
C. Applications other than those supplied or approved by the company can be installed on any computer.
D. The installed e-mail application can only be used as the authorized e-mail service.
Answer: C Explanation: Applications other than those supplied or approved by the company shall not be installed on any computer. Answer: A, B, D are incorrect. All of these statements stand true in the ‘acceptable use statement’ portion of the firewall policy.

QUESTION NO: 34
You have recently joined as a Network Auditor in XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows- based network. You have been assigned the task to determine whether or not the company’s goal is being achieved. As an auditor, which of the following tasks should you perform before conducting the data center review? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Review the future IT organization chart.
B. Meet with IT management to determine possible areas of concern.
C. Review the company’s IT policies and procedures.
D. Research all operating systems, software applications, and data center equipment operating within the data center.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation: The auditor should be adequately educated about the company and its critical business activities before conducting a data center review. The objective of the data center is to align data center activities with the goals of the business while maintaining the security and integrity of critical information and processes. To adequately determine if whether or not the client’s goal is being achieved, the auditor should perform the following before conducting the review: Meet with IT management to determine possible areas of concern. Review the current IT organization chart. Review job descriptions of data center employees. Research all operating systems, software applications, and data center equipment operating within the data center. Review the company’s IT policies and procedures. Evaluate the company’s IT budget and systems planning documentation. Review the data center’s disaster recovery plan. Answer: A is incorrect. An auditor should review the current organization chart. Reviewing the future organization chart would not help in finding the current threats to the organization.
QUESTION NO: 35
Patricia joins XYZ CORP., as a Web Developer. While reviewing the company’s Web site, she finds that many words including keywords are misspelled. How will this affect the Web site traffic?
A. Leave a bad impression on users.
B. Search engine relevancy may be altered.
C. Link exchange with other sites becomes difficult.
D. The domain name cannot be registered.
Answer: B Explanation: Web site traffic depends upon the number of users who are able to locate a Web site. Search engines are one of the most frequently used tools to locate Web sites. They perform searches on the basis of keywords contained in the Web pages of a Web site. Keywords are simple text strings that are associated with one or more topics of a Web page. Misspelled keywords prevent Web pages from being displayed in the search results.

QUESTION NO: 36
You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Non-operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Independent audit
D. Operational audit
Answer: C Explanation: An independent audit is an audit that is usually conducted by external or outside resources. It is the process of reviewing detailed audit logs for the following purposes: To examine the system activities and access logs To assess the adequacy of system methods To assess the adequacy of system controls To examine compliance with established enterprise network system policies To examine compliance with established enterprise network system procedures To examine effectiveness of enabling, support, and core processes Answer: B is incorrect. It is not a valid type of security audit. Answer: D is incorrect. It is done to examine the operational and ongoing activities within a network. Answer: B is incorrect. It is not a valid type of security audit. Answer: D is incorrect. It is done to examine the operational and ongoing activities within a network. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not a valid type of security audit.
QUESTION NO: 37
You have an online video library. You want to upload a directory of movies. Since this process will take several hours, you want to ensure that the process continues even after the terminal is shut down or session is closed. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use the bg command to run the process at the background.
B. Add the nohup command in front of the process.
C. Add the nohup command at the end of the process.
D. Run the process inside a GNU Screen-style screen multiplexer.
Answer: B,D Explanation: Whenever the nohup command is added in front of any command or process, it makes the command or process run even after the terminal is shut down or session is closed. All processes, except the ‘at’ and batch requests, are killed when a user logs out. If a user wants a background process to continue running even after he logs out, he must use the nohup command to submit that background command. To nohup running processes, press ctrl+z, enter “bg” and enter “disown”. The other way to accomplish the task is to run the command/process inside a GNU Screen-style screen multiplexer, and then detach the screen. GNU Screen maintains the illusion that the user is always logged in, and allows the user to reattach at any time. This has the advantage of being able to continue to interact with the program once reattached (which is impossible with nohup alone). Answer: C is incorrect. The nohup command works when it is added in front of a command. Answer: A is incorrect. The bg command cannot run the command or process after the terminal is shut down or session is closed.

QUESTION NO: 38
You work as a Web Deployer for UcTech Inc. You write the <security constraint> element for an

application in which you write the <auth-constraint> sub-element as follows: <auth-constraint> <role-name>*</role-name> </auth-constraint> Who will have access to the application?
A. Only the administrator
B. No user
C. All users
D. It depends on the application.
Answer: C Explanation: The <auth-constraint> element is a sub-element of the <security-constraint> element. It defines the roles that are allowed to access the Web resources specified by the <web-resource-collection> sub-elements. The <auth-constraint> element is written in the deployment descriptor as follows: <security-constraint> <web-resource-collection> —————- </web- resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <role-name>Administrator</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> Writing Administrator within the <role-name> element will allow only the administrator to have access to the resource defined within the <web-resource-collection> element.

QUESTION NO: 39
You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a TCP/IP-based network environment. The network contains Cisco switches and a Cisco router. You run the following command for a router interface: show interface serial0 You get the following output: Serial0 is administratively down, line protocol is down What will be your conclusion after viewing this output?
A. There is a physical problem either with the interface or the cable attached to it.
B. The router has no power.
C. There is a problem related to encapsulation.
D. The interface is shut down.
Answer: D Explanation: According to the question, the output displays that the interface is administratively down. Administratively down means that the interface is shut down. In order to up the interface, you will have to open the interface with the no shutdown command. Answer: A is incorrect. Had there been a physical problem with the interface, the output would not have displayed “administratively down”. Instead, the output would be as follows: serial0 is down, line protocol is down Answer: B is incorrect. You cannot run this command on a router that is powered off. Answer: C is incorrect. Encapsulation has nothing to do with the output displayed in the question.
QUESTION NO: 40
Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He creates a Web site. He wants to include the
following table in the Web site:
He writes the following HTML code to create the table:

1.
<TABLE BORDER=”1″ WIDTH=”500″>

2.
<TR>

3.

4.

5.
</TR>

6.
<TR>

7.
<TD>

8.
</TD>

9.
<TD>

10.
</TD>

11.
<TD>

12.
</TD>

13.
</TR>

14.
<TR>

15.
<TD>

16.
</TD>

17.
<TD>

18.
</TD>

19.
<TD>

20.
</TD>

21.
</TR>

22.
</TABLE>

Which of the following tags will Sam place at lines 3 and 4 to create the table?
A. at line 3 at line 4
B. at line 3 at line 4
C. at line 4 at line
D. at line 3 at line 4
Answer: D Explanation: The tag is used to specify each cell of the table. It can be used only within a row in a table. The ROWSPAN attribute of the tag specifies the number of rows that a cell spans over in a table. Since, the first cell of the table spans over three rows, Sam will use . specifies the number of columns that the head row contains. Answer: C is incorrect. Placing the tags given in this option at lines 3 and 4 will create the following table: Answer: A, B are incorrect. There are no attributes such as SPAN and SPANWIDTH for the tag.

QUESTION NO: 41
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using the Linux operating system. He wants to use a wireless sniffer to sniff the We-are-secure network. Which of the following tools will he use to accomplish his task?
A. WEPCrack
B. Kismet
C. Snadboy’s Revelation
D. NetStumbler
Answer: B Explanation: According to the scenario, John will use Kismet. Kismet is a Linux-based 802.11 wireless network sniffer and intrusion detection system. It can work with any wireless card that supports raw monitoring (rfmon) mode. Kismet can sniff 802.11b, 802.11a, 802.11g, and 802.11n traffic. Kismet can be used for the following tasks: To identify networks by passively collecting packets To detect standard named networks To detect masked networks
To collect the presence of non-beaconing networks via data traffic Answer: D is incorrect. NetStumbler is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards. It detects wireless networks and marks their relative position with a GPS. Answer: A is incorrect. WEPCrack is an open source tool that breaks

IEEE 802.11 WEP secret keys. Answer: C is incorrect. Snadboy’s Revelation is not a sniffer. It is
used to see the actual password behind the asterisks.

QUESTION NO: 42
You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. You are having DNS resolution problem. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem?
A. PING
B. IPCONFIG
C. TRACERT
D. NSLOOKUP
Answer: D Explanation: NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. Answer: A is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer: B is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. It is also used to display, register, or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. Answer: C is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.

QUESTION NO: 43
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He is working on the Linux operating system. He wants to sniff the we- are-secure network and intercept a conversation between two employees of the company through session hijacking. Which of the following tools will John use to accomplish the task?

A. IPChains
B. Tripwire
C. Hunt
D. Ethercap
Answer: C Explanation:
In such a scenario, John will use Hunt which is capable of performing both the hacking techniques, sniffing and session hijacking. Answer: D is incorrect. Ethercap is a network sniffer and packet generator. It may be an option, but John wants to do session hijacking as well. Hence, he will not use Ethercap. Answer: A is incorrect. IPChains is a firewall. Answer: B is incorrect. Tripwire is a file and directory integrity checker.
QUESTION NO: 44
In which of the following CAATs (Computer Assisted Auditing Techniques) does an auditor perform tests on computer files and databases?
A. Parallel Simulation
B. Generalized Audit Software (GAS)
C. Test Data
D. Custom Audit Software (CAS)
Answer: B Explanation: CAATs (Computer Assisted Auditing Techniques) are used to test application controls as well as perform substantive tests on sample items. Following are the types of CAATs: Generalized Audit Software (GAS): It allows the auditor to perform tests on computer files and databases. Custom Audit Software (CAS): It is generally written by auditors for specific audit tasks. CAS is necessary when the organization’s computer system is not compatible with the auditor’s GAS or when the auditor wants to conduct some testing that may not be possible with the GAS. Test Data: The auditor uses test data for testing the application controls in the client’s computer programs. The auditor includes simulated valid and invalid test data, used to test the accuracy of the computer system’s operations. This technique can be used to check data validation controls and error detection routines, processing logic controls, and arithmetic calculations, to name a few. Parallel Simulation: The auditor must construct a computer simulation that mimics the client’s production programs. Integrated Test Facility: The auditor enters test data along with actual data in a normal application run.
QUESTION NO: 45

You are concerned about an attacker being able to get into your network. You want to make sure that you are informed of any network activity that is outside normal parameters. What is the best way to do this?
A. Utilize protocol analyzers.
B. User performance monitors.
C. Implement signature based antivirus.
D. Implement an anomaly based IDS.
Answer: D Explanation: An anomaly based Intrusion Detection System will monitor the network for any activity that is outside normal parameters (i.e. an anomaly) and inform you of it. Answer: C is incorrect. Antivirus software, while important, won’t help detect the activities of intruders. Answer: B is incorrect. Performance monitors are used to measure normal network activity and look for problems such as bottlenecks. Answer: A is incorrect. A protocol analyzer does detect if a given protocol is moving over a particular network segment.

QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following is a technique for creating Internet maps? (Choose two)
A. AS PATH Inference
B. Object Relational Mapping
C. Active Probing
D. Network Quota
Answer: A,C Explanation: There are two prominent techniques used today for creating Internet maps: Active probing: It is the first works on the data plane of the Internet and is called active probing. It is used to infer Internet topology based on router adjacencies. AS PATH Inference: It is the second works on the control plane and infers autonomous system connectivity based on BGP data.

QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following statements are true about data aggregation?

A. A common aggregation purpose is to get more information about particular groups based on specific variables.
B. Data aggregation cannot be user-based.
C. Data aggregation is any process in which information is gathered and expressed in a summary form.
D. Online analytic processing (OLAP) is a simple type of data aggregation.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation: Data aggregation is any process in which information is gathered and expressed in a summary form, for purposes such as statistical analysis. A common aggregation purpose is to get more information about particular groups based on specific variables such as age, profession, or income. The information about such groups can then be used for Web site personalization to choose content and advertising likely to appeal to an individual belonging to one or more groups for which data has been collected. For example, a site that sells music CDs might advertise certain CDs based on the age of the user and the data aggregate for their age group. Online analytic processing (OLAP) is a simple type of data aggregation in which the marketer uses an online reporting mechanism to process the information. Answer: B is incorrect. Data aggregation can be user-based. Personal data aggregation services offer the user a single point for collection of their personal information from other Web sites. The customer uses a single master personal identification number (PIN) to give them access to their various accounts (such as those for financial institutions, airlines, book and music clubs, and so on). Performing this type of data aggregation is sometimes referred to as “screen scraping.”

QUESTION NO: 48
You have just installed a Windows 2003 server. What action should you take regarding the default shares?
A. Disable them only if this is a domain server.
B. Disable them.
C. Make them hidden shares.
D. Leave them, as they are needed for Windows Server operations.
Answer: B Explanation: Default shares should be disabled, unless they are absolutely needed. They pose a significant security risk by providing a way for an intruder to enter your machine. Answer: A is incorrect. Whether this is a domain server, a DHCP server, a file server, or database server does not change the issue with shared drives/folders. Answer: C is incorrect. They cannot be hidden. Shared folders are, by definition, not hidden but rather available to users on the network. Answer: D is incorrect. These are not necessary for Windows Server operations.
QUESTION NO: 49
Which of the following controls define the direction and behavior required for technology to function properly?
A. Detailed IS controls
B. General controls
C. Application controls
D. Pervasive IS controls
Answer: D Explanation:
Pervasive IS controls are a subset of general controls that contains some extra definitions focusing on the management of monitoring a specific technology. A pervasive order or control determines the direction and behavior required for technology to function properly. The pervasive control permeates the area by using a greater depth of control integration over a wide area of influence. Answer: B is incorrect. General controls are the parent class of controls that governs all areas of a business. An example of general controls includes the separation duties that prevent employees from writing their own paychecks and creating accurate job descriptions. General controls define the structure of an organization, establish HR policies, monitor workers and the work environment, as well as support budgeting, auditing, and reporting. Answer: A is incorrect. Detailed IS controls are controls used for manipulating the on-going tasks in an organization. Some of the specific tasks require additional detailed controls to ensure that the workers perform their job correctly. These controls refer to some specific tasks or steps to be performed such as: The way system security parameters are set. How input data is verified before being accepted into an application. How to lock a user account after unsuccessful logon attempts. How the department handles acquisitions, security, delivery, implementation, and support of IS services. Answer: C is incorrect. Application controls are embedded in programs. It constitutes the lowest subset in the control family. An activity should be filtered through the general controls, then the pervasive controls and detailed controls, before reaching the application controls level. Controls in the higher level category help in protecting the integrity of the applications and their data. The management is responsible to get applications tested prior to production through a recognized test method. The goal of this test is to provide a technical certificate that each system meets the requirement.

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