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A Storwize V7000 system with one control enclosure and three expansion enclosures at the local site is being replicated to a Storwize V7000 system with one control enclosure and two expansion enclosures at the remote site.
How many remote replication licenses need to be entered for the local site?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
An implementer is creating zoning to support Metro Mirror or Global Mirror between two Storwize V7000 systems.
Based on best practice what is the number of replication zones to create in each fabric?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
After collecting the logs from the Storwize V7000, where would an IT administrator submit the Storwize V7000 data for IBM support to analyze?
A. IBM Support portal
B. IBM Fix Central
C. ftp boulder
D. Enhanced Customer Data Repository

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
When performing the initial system setup for the Storwize V7000 which login credential are required the set up?
A. username: administrator – password admin0
B. username: admin – password: admin
C. username: superuser – password: password
D. username: root – password: Password

Correct Answer: C
A customer unpacks their new Storwize V7000 Along with the Storwize V7000 control enclosures find the following items: 2 x expansion enclosures 2 x 5m FC cables 4 x 1m SAS cables 24 x 600 GB HDDs
What additional item is required to install the system?
A. 1m FC cables
B. 3m SAS cable
C. IBM Storwize V7000 Quick Installation Guide
D. USB key

Correct Answer: D
During preparation for Storwize V7000 implementation, it is stated that the network security team isolates every subnet in the enterprise with its own firewall. Furthermore, the customer states that the default firewall policy is to reject all protocols.
To access the management GUI, what protocol must be allowed through the firewall isolating the Storwize V7000?

Correct Answer: A
As part of a Storwize V7000 implementation project twelve Global Mirror with Change Volume relationships are planned for creation. All twelve master volumes are contained in a single pool on the primary Storwize V7000 and all twelve auxiliary volumes are contained in a single pool on the secondary Storwize V7000. During implementation it is found that no more than six Global Mirror with Change Volume relationships can exist at one time.
Which of the following Storwize V7000 configuration changes will most likely resolve this issue?
A. Increase the number of primary and secondary volumes
B. Increase the size of the primary and secondary volumes
C. Increase the cycle time on Global Mirror with Change Volume relationships
D. Increase the size of the pools containing the primary and secondary volumes
Correct Answer: B
What action must be taken to receive timely updates automatically on firmware and flash updates/ releases?
A. Register to receive IBM My Notifications
B. Sign up for Fix Central notifications
C. Use the Storwi2e V7000 Call Home feature
D. Utilize the Storwize V7000 GUI for alert notifications

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Where should the user go to in the GUI when IBM support requires additional diagnostic information?
A. Run svc_snap command
B. Go to Monitoring > Event
C. Go to Settings > Support > Download Support Package
D. Go to Settings > Support > Show full log listing

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
Which GUI volume preset should the storage administrator choose to minimize consumption of the storage pool while being closely related to the number of writes from the host?
A. Mirror
B. Thin-Provisioned
C. Thin Mirror
D. Generic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Beginning with V6.4.0 a Storwize V7000 can Virtualize another Storwize system What must be changed?
A. Layer attribute changed from factory default on the Storwize V7000
B. From the GUI – cluster the two systems together
C. Call IBM support for the licensing feature
D. Layer attribute changed from factory defaults on the virtualized Storwize system

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
An implementer has started the Storwize V7000 management GUI for the first time. What item is displayed automatically in the GUI?
A. Serial number
B. IBM’s email address for Gall Home support
C. Date and time
D. Licenses

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
An implementer is creating a clustered Storwize V7000 via the GUI The nodes of the second control enclosure need to be in what state?
A. Service mode
B. Candidate status

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Which of the following options best describes the differences between a traditional data warehouse environment and a Hadoop environment?
A. Traditional data warehousing environments are mostly ideal for analyzing structured data from various systems, while a Hadoop environment is well suited to deal with structured, semi-structured, and unstructured data, as well as when a data discovery process is needed.
B. Hadoop environments are mostly ideal for analyzing structured and semi-structured data from a single system, while traditional data warehousing environment is well suited to deal with unstructured data, as well as when a data discovery process is needed.
C. Typically, data stored in Hadoop environments is cleaned up before storing in the distributed file-system.
D. Typically, data stored in data warehousing environments is rarely filtered and pre-processed. On the other hand, data injected into Hadoop environments is always pre-processed and filtered.

Answer: A
What is Big SQL?
A. Big SQL is a feature in Data Explorer that allows for indexing of data from SQL sources such as data warehouses.
B. Big SQL is a feature in BigInsights that allows for native SQL query access for Hadoop, providing full ANSI SQL 92 compliance and standardSQL syntax such as joins, for data contained in a variety of formats such as structured Hive tables, Hbase tables, or csv and other delimitedfiles in HDFS.
C. Big SQL is a feature in Streams that allows for real time analysis of data via standard SQL syntax.
D. Big SQL is a feature in BigInsights that provides a SQL like interface to data contained in Hbase tables only. Other data sources in HDFS mustbe accessed via other means such as HiveQL.
Answer: B

What is the InfoSphere BigInsights Credential Store?
A. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a table stored in the HBase relational database that stores passwords, tokens, and other potentially sensitive information.
B. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a designated folder on the distributed file system (DFS) that stores passwords, tokens, and other potentially sensitive information.
C. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a designated folder in the local file system (not HDFS) that stores the authorities and privileges for all users in the BigInsights environment.
D. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a designated file defined by an environment variable that stores the authorities and privileges for all users in the BigInsights environment.

Answer: B
What does ig Data?represent?What does ?ig Data?represent?
A. A Hadoop feature capable of processing vast amounts of data in-parallel on large clusters of commodity hardware in a reliable, fault-tolerant manner.
B. A concept and platform of technologies with the characteristics of the ? Vs? that is able to handle large amounts of unstructured,semi-structured, and structured raw data unlike traditional systems.
C. A database feature capable of converting pre-existing structured data into unstructured raw data.
D. Only data stored in the BIGDATA table in any relational database.

Answer: B
How do existing applications usually connect to InfoSphere BigInsights using the Big SQL feature?
A. Applications will connect using custom made connectors programmed in SPL.
B. Applications will connect using standard JDBC and ODBC drivers that come with InfoSphere BigInsights.
C. Applications will connect using the JAQL programming language.
D. Applications will connect using either HiveQL or Pig programming languages.
Answer: B

Which of the following components is NOT included in the BigInsights Basic Edition distribution?
A. Hadoop Distributed File System.

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What is a DB2 instance?
A. A DB2 instance is just another name for DB2 Database.
B. A DB2 instance is a copy of a database that can be accessed standalone from the database server.
C. A DB2 instance is a logical database manager environment where you catalog databases and set configuration parameters.
D. DB2 does not use instances. It requires only databases to operate.

Answer: C
Which of the following options best defines the Label-Based Access Control (LBAC) feature?
A. DB2 LBAC allows you to use labels to reference database objects by a short name instead of the full qualified name.
B. DB2 LBAC lets you decide exactly who has write/read access to individual rows and columns by comparing the security labels between database objects and users.
C. DB2 LBAC monitors table data access and tables modifications made by database users.
D. DB2 LBAC is the DB2 authority in charge of issuing GRANT and REVOKE statements.
Answer: B

Which one of the following options is CORRECT about Temporal Tables?
A. Temporal tables are complex to maintain and require major application changes.
B. Temporal tables require constant changes to the operating system timestamp in order to navigate through time in the database.
C. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past and present. They cannot be used to model data in the future.
D. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past, present, and future.
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 4

Which one of the following options is FALSE about DB2’s Multi-Temperature Data Storage capability?
A. You can use storage groups to implement multi-temperature data management in DB2.
B. Multi-temperature data management reduces the total cost of ownership by allowing efficient deployment of storage hardware with minimal administrative overhead.
C. Multi-temperature data management integrates with DB2’s Workload Manager feature to let you prioritize your workloads based on the data being accessed.
D. Multi-temperature data management best practices recommend that cold data should be stored in faster devices in order to maximize overall system performance.

Answer: D
Which one of the following options is TRUE about High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) feature?
A. HADR allows up to two HADR standby databases.
B. HADR allows up to three HADR standby databases.
C. HADR allows up to four HADR standby databases.
D. HADR allows up to five HADR standby databases.
Answer: B

What is the purpose of the Self Tuning Memory Manager (STMM) in DB2?
A. This feature reduces the task of configuring your DB2 server by continuously updating memory configuration parameters, resizing buffer pools, and dynamically determining the total amount of memory to be used by the database.
B. The purpose of this feature is for the system to deliver to you a report of database tuning recommendations so that you can update the configuration parameters by hand.
C. This feature detects memory expansion in the database and delivers a warning to the DBA to let them know when the database is nearing a threshold memory allocation limit.
D. STMM allows DBAs to inspect the current memory allocation by buffer pools.

Answer: A
DB2’s High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) feature provides a high availability solution for both partial and complete site failures. Given the sentences below, select the CORRECT statement about HADR.
A. HADR protects against data loss by saving data changes from a source database into a local recovery log file.
B. HADR protects against data loss by replicating data changes from a backup database file to a standby database.
C. HADR protects against data loss by replicating data changes from a source database, called the primary, to a target database, called the standby.
D. HADR feature is only available for DB2 Advanced Enterprise Edition.

Answer: C
What is the DB2 Design Advisor?
A. The DB2 Design Advisor is a tool that automatically analyzes your running database and continuously makes changes to your database to give it peak performance.
B. The DB2 Design Advisor is a help desk facility that is available to all licensed DB2 owners that have paid their maintenance agreements with IBM. The tool is a web site that guides you through the design of your database, with the DBA responding to a series of questions. It produces a database schema that allows for quick database creation.
C. The DB2 Design Advisor is a tool that can help you improve your database workload performance. Given a set of SQL statements in a workload, the Design Advisor can generate recommendations to improve the performance of SQL execution.
D. The DB2 Design Advisor is a tool that can be used to automatically create tables based on a physical data diagram.

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1.The field label description can be changed by pointing at the field and pressing?
A.Ctrl Alt and left mouse button
B.Ctrl Alt and right mouse button
D.Ctrl & F1

2.What is a “measure”?
A.Data that can be aggregated across the client’s dimensions; i.e.currencies, can be formula-based.
B.Data elements that can be Searched or made available through the transaction view.
C.The total spend reflected in the spend cube.
D.Data the client intends to filter or further breakdown; used to run crosstabs and submit feedback.

3.Identifying poor performing suppliers for mission critical categories is enabled by?
A.Supplier Qualification
B.Supplier Evaluation
C.Supplier Development
D.Supplier Risk

4.Which of the following is an example of Sourcing allowing an organization to streamline the Award
A.RFP award passed directly to contract.
B.RFP bids exported to Excel for offline negotiation.
C.Suppliers proposing specific items they should be awarded with based on capability.
D.Team members linked to an RFx being able to communicate with one another via instant messaging
within an RFx.

5.What is a bookmark?
A.Saves the state of a page in the Dimensions view.The filters, dimension window positions and settings,
graphs, cross-tab charts, menus and reports for the Spend Analyzer are all preserved for later reference.
B.Helps the user analyze data minutely.He/she can apply multiple filters to the data and also apply parallel
filters, where he/she can filter data using multiple rows in the same dimension.
C.Contains multiple panels.Each panel in turn contains select data that the user wants to view in a tabular
or graphical format.Dashboards are customizable and users can apply filters to a panel.Applying filters on
one panel correspondingly applies filters to the other panels on the dashboard.
D.Saves the last view the user was on when he/she logs out of the system.

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How is RTO defined?
A. The time it takes to restore the backup tapes at a remote site.
B. The amount of data loss that’s deemed acceptable, defined by application, in the event of a disaster-failover scenario.
C. The amount of times it takes, from initial disaster declaration, to having critical business processes available to users.
D. The time it takes to complete the nighty backup process.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
A customer wants to order a full rack XIV system. The customer is on the 5th floor of the building and the elevator cannot handle the weight of a fully loaded XIV.
What is needed to deliver the system to the customer?
A. Place the order with only 6 modules then perform a MES upgrade.
B. Place the order, then have the installer take apart and reassemble the XIV.
C. Place the order with just 1 TB drives.
D. Place the order with height and weight reduction delivery.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which IBM storage offering scales linearly without hot-spots and delivers insights from analytics faster with tuning-free data distribution?
A. IBM FlashSystem
B. DS8870

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
A customer would like to use Analytics to drive business growth, reduce fraud, and increase efficiency. However, budgets are limited and the customer would like to use IBM Spectrum Scale to save money with the current storage infrastructure.
Which two IBM Spectrum Scale characteristics are applicable? (Choose two.)
A. Increase storage utilization to defer future storage purchases.
B. Increase physical storage capacity to handle Analytics.
C. Reduce costs by using only high capacity drives.
D. Reduce operational efficiency to increase performance.
E. Identify the data that a company can dispose of.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 5
What is the minimum role level needed to download support log files to troubleshoot the IBM SAN Volume Controller?
A. Security Administrator
B. Monitor
C. Service
D. Copy Operator

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What is the next step for a failed installation of an IBM TS4500 where there have been I/O errors that prevent placing the library into production even after replacement of multiple parts and verification of configuration definitions?
A. Facilitate a meeting with IBM and customer executives to discuss available options to resolve the situation.
B. Escalate the issue through the compliant process (critsit) and explain this process and next steps to the customer.
C. Conduct a workshop with customer system administrators and IBM technical field support representatives to jointly resolve the problem.
D. Perform an in-depth problem analysis and follow up with appropriate actions to resolve the issue.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
A customer is considering the purchase of an XIV system and wants the standard warranty. What is the standard hardware warranty for this purchase?
A. One year warranty with 9×5 same business day.
B. Five year warranty with 24×7 response (dependent upon machine type).
C. Two year warranty with 9×5 next business day response.
D. One or three year warranty with 24×7 response (dependent upon machine type).

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
A customer is having difficulty with managing the heterogeneous storage infrastructure and tracking the performance of SAN-attached devices.
Which IBM product will resolve the customer’s immediate concern?
A. IBM Spectrum Virtualize
B. IBM Spectrum Control
C. IBM Director
D. Fabric Manager

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
A customer has a single frame TS3500 with a L23 frame. There are five TS1150 drives and 100 tapes in this frame. The customer wants to add five LTO-6 drives to this TS3500.
What is the most cost effective solution for this customer?
A. Add LTO-6 drives to a new D53 frame and add LTO media to the L23 frame.
B. Add LTO-6 drives to the existing L23 frame and add the LTO media to a D53 frame.
C. Add a D53 frame with LTO-6 drives and add the LTO media to a D53 frame.
D. Add a L53 frame with LTO-6 drives and add the LTO media to a L53 frame. Correct Answer: D
A customer wants a new tape library. The customer currently uses LTO-4 tapes but has some older
archive tapes on LTO-3.
What is the highest level tape drive the customer can install and still read the older archive tapes and write
to current tapes?

A. LTO-5
B. LTO-6
C. LTO-4
D. LTO-3
Correct Answer: C

A customer has asked about the RAID architecture of IBM Spectrum Scale.
Which two advantages of declustered RAID should you highlight to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. Faster rebuild of data on failed drives
B. Uses a subset of drives to rebuild data
C. Load on drives is increased during array rebuild
D. Dedicated spare drives
E. More predictable performance
Correct Answer: AC

Which feature of the XIV system is a technical advantage over competitive storage arrays?
A. SSD adaptive read caching
B. Deduplication
C. Encryption at any time
D. Software bundled with IBM Spectrum Control
Correct Answer: C

A customer has asked an IBM technical specialist about growth in I/O on its existing system. The specialist
generated the following table:
Which tool was used to produce this table?

A. ProtecTIER Planner
B. Batch Magic
C. Disk Magic
D. Storage Tier Advisor Tool
Correct Answer: B
Which upgrade is possible for a customer with IBM FlashSystem 840?
A. Systems purchased with eight 2 TB flash modules can be expanded to twelve 4 TB flash modules.
B. Systems purchased with eight 4 TB flash modules can be expanded to twelve 2 TB flash modules.
C. Systems purchased with eight 4 TB flash modules can be expanded to twelve 1 TB flash modules.
D. Systems purchased with eight 2 TB flash modules can be expanded to twelve 2 TB flash modules.
Correct Answer: C

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How many days can an external virtualization license be used for migration before incurring a cost?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days

Correct Answer: C
The Easy Tier function supports which tiered storage configuration?
A. External SSD virtualized drives via iSCSI and internal SAS drives
B. External Fibre Channel-attached hard disk drives and internal NL-SAS drives
C. Internal Serial Attached SCSI SSDs in a storage pool with internal SAS hard disk drives
D. Internal attached SSDs in a storage pool with externally virtualized iSCSI hard disk drives

Correct Answer: C
On the Pools function icon, which option is selected to create a storage pool?
A. Volumes by Pool
B. Internal Storage
C. External Storage
D. MDisk by Pool

Correct Answer: D
An implementer needs to migrate a volume from an external storage controller to a Storwize V7000. The volume is currently used by a server for operating system boot from the SAN
What option must be used in order to properly migrate this volume?
A. Start a FlashCopy session on the virtualized boot LUN
B. Use the Migration Wizard to migrate the boot LUN
C. Use the Import Wizard or the CLI to import the volume
D. Create a second copy of the boot LUN using Volume Copy

Correct Answer: C
When authenticating a user via Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP server), in what order would the following steps be performed?
Configure user groups on the system by matching those that are used by the authentication service.

Specify the mkldapserver command to define up to six LDAP servers to use for authentication.

Configure LDAP by issuing the chldap command

Verify the LDAP configuration using the testldapserver command
A. 1, 2, 4, 3
B. 3. 2. 1, 4
C. 2, 3, 4, 1
D. 4, 3, 2, 1

Correct Answer: B
The implementer sees errors in the System Events Log in the GUI but the Health Status bar remains green.
What should be done to find out if the issue has been resolved or if it is an older error?
A. Select the Run Fix Procedure option of the event entry
B. Collect support logs again and see if the errors show up in the support logs
C. Reboot the storage subsystem to clear the errors
D. Reboot each controller one at a time to clear the error log

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
An implementer needs to perform drive firmware upgrades on the Storwize V7000 drives How is the task accomplished?
A. GUI > Settings > Upgrade Software
B. The upgrade is implemented using the CLI
C. Using the Service Assistant in service mode
D. It is upgraded automatically when upgrading the I/O nodes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
After a successful cluster creation using the USB key, what file be generated on the USB key?
A. cfgtsk.txt
B. satask_results.txt
C. satask_result.html
D. cfgtask.html

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
When provisioning storage from an external array to Storwize V7000 which of the following is the best practice?
A. Virtualize storage system where LUNs are configured using RAID 0
B. A single LUN from an external storage array can be shared with multiple Storwize V7000 system
C. Mix LUNs that vary in performance or reliability in the same storage pool
D. Make sure to configure LUN settings to map all LUNs to all WWPNs m the Storwize V7000

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
The storage administrator was given a Comprestimator output of the Storwize V7000. The storage administrator is requested to create compressed volumes from the report.
Which volumes should the storage administrator select to be compressed?
A. Select volumes that are greater than 256 TB
B. Select any volumes that the users request to be compressed
C. Select volumes that shows an expected compression ratio of 45% or higher
D. Select volumes that shows an expected compression ratio of 25% or lower

Correct Answer: C
When implementing the Stowize V7000 with 3.5-inch form factor drives, what is the recommended RAID type of these drives?
B. RAID 10

Correct Answer: C
According to IBM best practice, what is the recommended number of ports to be zoned from an external storage array to all 8 Fibre Channel ports on an IBM Storwize V7000?
A. A minimum of 2 to a maximum of 16
B. A minimum of 4 to a maximum of 16
C. A minimum of 4 to a maximum of 8
D. A minimum of 2 to a maximum of 8

Correct Answer: A
An implementer has purchased a clustered Storwize V7000 with external virtualization licenses. Originally, an EMC subsystem was to be virtualized and it was to host one of the Storwize V7000 cluster’s quorum disks However, during the implementation, the customer decided to replace the EMC subsystem with an HP subsystem.
What information about the HP subsystem should be checked by the implemented?
A. The HP subsystem is listed in the SSIC website in the “Storwize V7000 Host Attachment” category
B. The HP subsystem is listed in the Storwize V7000 supported hardware list, and it supports quorum disks
C. The HP subsystem is listed in the Storwize V7000 supported hardware list, and it supports extended quorum
D. The HP subsystem is listed in the SSIC website in the “Storwize V7000 Storage Controller Support” category

Correct Answer: B
During Storwize V7000 implementation an implementer finds that with a recovery point objective of 30 minutes Global Mirror is consuming more bandwidth than was originally designed.
How can the Storwize V7000 be reconfigured to reduce Global Mirror bandwidth consumption while maintaining the recovery point objective?
A. Activate Real-time Compression
B. Convert to Metro Mirror relationships
C. Utilize FlashCopy with the “Backup” preset
D. Convert to Global Mirror with Change Volume relationships

Correct Answer: B
The implementer wants to add a volume copy to an existing volume, after right clicking the volume entry in the GUI, which should be selected?
A. Volume Copy Actions
B. Image Mode
C. Duplicate Volumes
D. Migrate to Another Pool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is the preferred method for the implementer to be notified when a new drive firmware level is available for the Storwize V7000?
A. Contact IBM Techline
B. Contact IBM Support Line
C. Subscribe to IBM My Notifications
D. Search www ibm com for latest firmware levels

Correct Answer: C

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A customer has a small existing SAN storage environment with disk systems from different vendors. This customer wants to deploy a single system to manage storage and advanced services across new and existing storage.
What storage solution should be proposed?
A. XIV system
B. Storwize V7000
C. Storwize V3700
D. IBM N6240 filer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
A customer has asked the technical specialist about security for five hosts connecting via iSCSI to a newly installed Storwize V7000 system.
Which of the following items should the specialist suggest to the customer?
A. Port-based zoning
B. Direct connections
C. Virtual LAN (VLAN)
D. Storwize V7000 port masking

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Storwize V7000 volume mirroring creates more resilience in which of the following methods?
A. Creates two copies of a storage pool
B. Mirror a volume between two separate Storwize V7000 systems
C. Allows both controller nodes to provide simultaneous read access
D. Migrates volumes between storage pools that have different extent sizes

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
A customer is building a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) for several hundred users. Which Storwize V7000 feature would help in avoiding performance impact on peak activity periods?
A. FlashCopy
B. Thin provisioning
C. 15,000 rpm drives
D. SSD drives with Easy Tier

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a competitive advantage of the Storwize V7000 RAID configuration wizard?
A. allows the managed disk to be utilized after the array is formatted
B. provides a simplified user experience in the creation of RAID arrays
C. creation of RAID arrays composed of externally connected physical disk
D. configure RAID levels beyond the capability of competitive storage arrays

Correct Answer: B
A customer has asked for the amount of usable storage per storage pool for file based access in a Storwize V7000 Unified configuration.
What type of usable storage information does the Capacity’ Magic tool supply for a Storwize V7000 Unified?
A. Amount per storage pool for file access only
B. Amount per storage pool for block access only
C. Amount per storage pool for both file and block access
D. Usable storage is not provided for the Storwize V7000 Unified

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
What are the Storwize V7000 Unified models that have two 10 Gbps Ethernet ports per node canister?
A. 2076-112 and 2076-124
B. 2076-212 and 2076-224
C. 2076-312 and 2076-324
D. 2076-412 and 2076-424

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
A Business Partner is positioning a Storwize V7000 to replace a customer’s existing SAN solution. Real-time compression has been requested as part of the implementation.
What is the primary resource for sizing and implementing Real-time Compression on Storwize V7000?
A. eConfig
C. CompeteCenter
D. Real-time Compression Redpaper

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Which configuration is supported with asynchronous replication in Storwize V7000 Unified environments?
A. One file set to one file set target
B. One filesystem to one filesystem target
C. One filesystem to multiple filesystem targets
D. One Storwize V7000 Unified filesystem to multiple Storwize V7000 targets

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
What Storwize V7000 configuration function is deployed to perform a tie-break task to address a problem when a node canister is shutdown or goes offline?
A. I/O group(s)
B. Quorum disks
C. Clustered system
D. Mirrored write cache

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
A customer has several different storage systems from different vendors all connected on their storage area network. The customer has difficulty in easily using the full capacity of these different storage arrays.
What concept within the Storwize V7000 Unified should be emphasized with this customer to convince the customer to purchase the system?
A. EasyTier
B. Storage virtualization
C. Real-time data compression
D. Integrated block and file I/O

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
A customer has stated a particular set of host data will take a maximum of 30 days to migrate to a Storwize V7000 from a DS4700 storage array. The data is spread across only two of the four total disk enclosures of the DS4700.
What is the appropriate number of external virtualization licenses to order?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
On Storwize V7000 which statement about running a reverse FlashCopy is TRUE?
A. The source copy cannot be thin provisioned.
B. All blocks are recopied to restore total consistency.
C. The process must be managed by Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager.
D. Only the blocks which have changed since the snapshot was made are being restored.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which statement best describes a difference in replication on the Storwize V7000 Unified between the block volumes and the file volumes?
A. Both block and file volumes require Metro/Global Mirror licenses.
B. Block volumes can replicate over the Ethernet ports or Fibre ports.
C. File volumes must replicate through the block portion of the system.
D. File volumes replicate over the Ethernet ports without the use of a SAN router.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
A customer is considering the replication of data between two Storwize V7000 systems using an existing, shared inter- site link. The technical specialist has been requested to investigate whether or not this proposal is viable.
To begin the assessment what information should the specialist request for this opportunity?
A. The Recovery Point Objective and the application(s)
B. The application(s) and the amount of data to be replicated
C. The capacity of the inter-site link and the distance between sites
D. The amount of peak change data to be replicated and the capacity of the inter-site link

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
A Storwize V7000 customer’s requirements dictate automated intelligent data placement and physical disk redundancy are critical, and overall cost is a critical decision point. The environment is a 98% read workload.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Configure one storage pool of SSD5 and a second storage pool of SAS drives
B. Design two multi-tiered storage pools composed of SSD and SAS which utilize SSD5 with Easy Tier
C. Provide a single multi-tiered storage pool composed of SSD and SAS with only enough SSDs for 5% of the required storage capacity
D. Utilize Easy Tier with SSD5 in one multi-tiered storage pool composed of SSD and SAS, and a single NL-SAS tier in a second storage pool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
One host at a remote site needs to connect to the Storwize V7000 in the customer’s main data center. The customer has an existing IP network, and minimal bandwidth is required.
What protocol should be used for this connection?
D. Fibre Channel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
What is the preferred replication method that could achieve best application performance with reduced network requirements host performance that is independent of the replication, and RPO higher (with default of 10 minutes)?
A. Metro Mirror
B. Global Mirror
C. Global Mirror with Change Volumes
D. SAN Volume Controller Split cluster

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
Which function provides Disaster Recovery capability to the Storwize V7000 Unified?
A. SnapView
B. Active Cloud Engine
C. Asynchronous replication
D. Space-efficient snapshots
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20

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Question No : 1
Which of the following statements about XML schemas is TRUE?
A. A .xsd file defines an XMLschema.
B. A .schema file defines an XML schema.
C. A XML schema is used to define the fields in a database.
D. A XML schema is used to control the layout of an IBM Form.

Answer: A
Question No : 2
Which of the following statements regarding the benefitsof using XML is FALSE?
A. XML is extensible. Since there are no fixed set of tags, new tags can be created as they are needed.
B. XML is based on a W3C standard, and is endorsed by software industry market leaders. Therefore, you are locked into using their technology.
C. XML is self-describing. XML documents can be stored without schema definitions, because they contain meta data in the form of tags and attributes.
D. XML facilitates the comparison and aggregation of data. The tree structure of XML documents allows documents to be compared and aggregated efficiently element by element.
E. XML is simple to use. Information coded in XML is easy to read and understand. It lets you identify your information in an accurate, flexible and adaptable way, allowingfor easier integration with other systems.

Answer: B
Question No : 3
All of the following are syntactically valid XML statements using XML namespace, EXCEPT for which one?
A. <root xmlns: f=””>
<f:name>Dining Table</f:name>


B. <root>
<furniture:table xmlns: furniture=””>

C. <root>
<table xmlns=””>
<table:name>Dining Table</table:name>

D. <root>
<name>Dining Table</name>

Answer: C

Question No : 4
Jane is creating a form in the IBM Forms Designer for FileNet. If she marks certain data as “public”, whatshould she specify?
A. She should specify the data type using an XFDL compute.
B. She should specify the data type using the corresponding XFDL object’s format.datatype property.
C. She should specify the data type using a Model Item property.
D. She doesnot need to specify any data type.

Answer: C
Question No : 5
Complete the following statement. The artifact created in the IBM Forms Designer is:
A. A dynamic PDF document.
B. An XML document that conforms to the XFDL schema.
C. An XML document withembedded Javascript if HTML extensions were used.
D. An XML document or an HTML document depending on the rendering mode that was defined.

Answer: B
Question No : 6
A form designer has added the following code to a form:

A. 1
B. on
C. true
D. “1”

Answer: C
Question No : 7
Which of the following list ALL the valid values for the method attribute of an xforms:submission?

Answer: D
Question No : 8
Which XForms item is used to define a table?
A. xforms:group
B. xforms:table
C. xforms:repeat
D. xforms:select

Answer: C
Question No : 9
When calling one of the functions contained within the Viewer IFX, all of the following statementsare true EXCEPT which one?
A. You must add the ‘viewer’ prefix to the function call.
B. Viewer functions only work when using the Viewer.
C. There is a function within the Viewer IFX to display a message box.
D. Viewer functions can be called from XFormsactions.

Answer: D
Question No : 10
John has built a form that has alternating portrait and landscape pages and has specified the <printorientation>options. Which of the following statements best represents what will happen when he prints the form?
A. Each page is printed in order and its specified orientation.
B. Each page is printed in order, but the orientation is not as specified.
C. The form will not print.
D. Two print jobs are automatically generated; one to print all the portrait pages and a second to print all the landscape pages.

Answer: A
Question No : 11
Michael is using XForms. Which of the following does he need to define to togglethe visibility of a field based on the value of another field in an XForms bind?
A. required
B. relevant
C. mandatory
D. visible

Answer: B
Question No : 12
Why is it a best practice to use “omit” logic rather than “keep” logic when creating a signaturethat signs only part of a form?
A. It is less work for a forms designer to create signatures that use “keep” logic.
B. “Keep” logic can only be used with Clickwrap signatures, making it difficult to change to a different signature type if required in future.
C. Using “omit” logic avoids the risk of creating too much overhead.
D. Using “omit” logic reduces the risk that form items will be unintentionally excluded from the signature.

Answer: D
Question No : 13
Given the following syntax ofxforms:action, which of the following statements is the correct syntax for <action1 action_settings>?

A. <action event if=”condition” then=”action_settings” else=”action_settings”>
B. <action event if=”condition” action_settings>
C. <action event condition=”condition,action_settings,else_action_settings”>
D. <action event condition=”condition?action_settings:else_action_settings”>

Answer: B
Question No : 14
Mark needs to make a field required. How can he do this WITHOUT using an xforms:bind?
A. Hecan set the field’s required property to ‘on’.
B. He can use the Properties Dialog, and uncheck the “Required” checkbox.
C. He can use the Properties View and set the field’s format[presentation][mandatory] option to ‘on’.
D. He can use the Properties View and set the field’s format[constraints][mandatory] option to ‘on’.

Answer: D
Question No : 15
A signature in an IBM Form can be configured to secure:
A. the whole form
B. a form page
C. a group of items on a form page
D. an instance
E. All of theabove

Answer: E Question No : 16
Minnie has a form with one traditional page and two wizard pages. She needs to provide a way for users to select either the wizard interface, or the traditional interface to fill out this form. What is the recommendedway for her to easily make fields required in both the wizard and traditional interfaces?
A. In order to make fields required, Minnie has to set their XFDL field property of “mandatory” to ON on both interfaces.
B. Once Minnie sets the appropriate fieldsas required on the wizard interface using the “mandatory” XFDL property, they automatically become required on the traditional form page interface.
C. Minnie should use an xforms:bind to make the xforms:instance elements required.
D. Once Minnie marks theappropriate fields as required on the traditional interface using the “mandatory” XFDL property, they automatically become required on the wizard interface.

Answer: C
Question No : 17
A form developer has enclosed an XML schema containing some choices (described in XML schema as an enumeration) for certain nodes in the XML document. Are these choices available to the form developer?
A. No, they must be added manually.
B. No, they are auto-generated at run time.
C. Yes, but they must be generated using athird party tool, then enclosed as an instance into the form.
D. Yes, the choices are created automatically and placed into a separate instance.

Answer: D
Question No : 18
What is wrong in this code sample?

A. There is nothing wrong with it.
B. There is no xforms:instance declaration within the second xforms:model.
C. There is more than one xforms:model declared; you cannot have more than one.
D. The address elements should never be separate from the person elements.

Answer: B Question No : 19
With regards to Embedded HTML inside a form, these statements are true EXCEPT which one?
A. The HTML content is loaded when the form page loads.
B. The form developer controls when the HTML content is loaded.
C. The form developer controls the visibility ofthe pane that contains the HTML.
D. The form developer controls the size of the pane that contains the HTML.

read more:

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Which are steps to close in a negotiation with a potential customer?
A. Confirm user count with customer, receive Software Group approval for pricing on license configuration, present pricing to customer, confirm that customer agrees to purchase.
B. Present pricing to customer, confirm that customer agrees to purchase, customer requests funds from Procurement Department, Procurement Department delivers Purchase Order.
C. Receive Software Group approval for pricing on license configuration, present pricing to customer, confirm that customer agrees to purchase. discuss service contract with customer.
D. Discuss service contract with customer, present service contract to customer, collect Purchase Order for Service Contract, configure user count with customer.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
A chief marketing officer (CMO) is having difficulty quantifying the success of his marketing campaigns. The most effective response to the CMO is:
A. IBM has been a leader in the Gartner Magic Quadrant for the past 7 years.
B. IBM has invested over $20 billion in Analytics over the past 5 years and just opened a new briefing center for Watson in New York.
C. IBM Cognos Business Intelligence and IBM SPSS can process over 5 million records per second, according to Lab tests.
D. Share an industry specific customer reference where IBM solved a similar issue.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Reference: knowledge.pdf
From a high level, which three IBM Business Analytics brands had their functionality combined in order to create the Forward Looking Analytic Architect license?
A. IBM Cognos Business Intelligence. IBM SPSS and IBM Kenexa
B. IBM Cognos Business Intelligence, IBM SPSS and IBM Cognos Incentive Compensation Management
C. IBM Cognos Business Intelligence. IBM Cognos Incentive Compensation Management and IBM Algorithmics
D. IBM Cognos Business Intelligence. IBM SPSS and IBM TM1
Correct Answer: B Explanation
A client has many data sources and a heavy reliance on internal spreadsheets. They are seeking a new business intelligence solution which will address their issues. Which response is correct about IBM Cognos Business Intelligence?
A. It was designed to work with the business user, without a heavy reliance on IT.
B. All data used by can be accessed via mobile devices via Windows. iOS and Android.
C. It only addresses customer’s visualization needs.
D. It is limited when it tries to access information from multiple applications and pulls it together into a single platform.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
The VP of Operations for a manufacturer of blood testing equipment approached IBM to help him find a solution to predict when their machines need servicing and repairs. Which IBM Cognos product is most closely aligned to the client’s needs?
A. IBM Cognos TM1
B. IBM Cognos Controller
C. IBM Cognos Impromptu
D. IBM Predictive Manufacturing and Quality
Correct Answer: A Explanation
When would you position IBM Cognos Cloud?
A. When a company does not have the internal resources needed to upgrade and provide patches and bundles.
B. When a company needs a quick visualization tool before they are ready for IBM Cognos Enterprise.
C. When a company is headquartered overseas and wants to perform reporting enterprise- wide.
D. When a company is midmarket; IBM Cognos Cloud does not scale to enterprise accounts.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
A prospective customer puts heavy emphasis on finding a solution with easy dashboard creating capabilities. Which IBM Cognos interface would you demonstrate first?
A. IBM Cognos Workspace
B. IBM Cognos TM1
C. IBM Cognos Framework Manager
D. IBM Cognos Workspace Advanced
Correct Answer: A Explanation
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Name three benefits of the CSO Suite:
A. Market positioning: reduction in Average Handle Timer dispute resolution
B. Customer conversion, reduction in Average Handle Time, customer training
C. Cross-sell / up-sell, call avoidance, reduction in Average Handle Time
D. Improve site content, call avoidance, fraud forensics
Answer: B
Reference: 13)

Of the four brands that compose IBM Enterprise Marketing Management (EMM), which two make up the bulk of EMM’s DMO capabilities?
A. Unica and Coremetrics
B. Unica and Tealeaf
C. Coremetrics and DemandTec
D. Coremetrics and Tealeaf
Answer: D

What is the product family that enables you to seamlessly integrate online customer experience data with other business application?
A. CSO Suite
B. CBA Suite
C. CX Mobile
D. cxConnect
Answer: D
Reference: cxconnect integration solutions)

Which applications do the CX Mobile support?
A. Native Apps and Mobile Site
B. HTML5, Hybrid Apps, and Native Apps
C. HTML5, Hybrid Apps, Native Apps, Mobile Site
D. HTML Native Apps, and Hybrid Apps
Answer: C
Reference: ge 1, see feature highlights)

What are the two key features of cxImpact?
A. Replay search and basic reporting
B. Replay and audits
C. Performance reporting and form conversion
D. Session history and summary reports
Answer: B

What market factors is this target audience looking to address with the DMO solution?
A. Data security
B. Privacy concerns
C. Just-In-Time inventory
D. Data explosion and social media
Answer: D


What types of content can be recommended via IBM Content Recommendations?
A. Complementary products and offers
B. Body text from product pages on a retail website
C. Videos, white papers and articles
D. Only those assets that have received high peer recommendations
Answer: C

The products in CBA Suite consists of all the following except:
A. cxReveal
B. cxView
C. cxResults
D. cxOverstat
E. cxImpact
Answer: A,C

The primary target buyer for Tealeaf Customer Service Optimization suite is:
A. VP Customer Service
B. VP E-Business
C. IT Manager
D. VP Marketing
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 10

What are some of the primary products involved in the DMO solution’s ability to deliver compelling personalization?
A. IBM Lifecycle and IBM AdTarget
B. IBM Digital Data Exchange and IBM Impression Attribution
C. IBM Digital Analytics on Premises
D. IBM Marketing Optimization and Interaction History
Answer: A

Name some of the metrics that marketers routinely track with DMO products?
A. Social and mobile throughput
B. Email open rate and conversion rate
C. Total hits and pages displayed
D. Return on direct mail
Answer: B

What is the best tool/tactic to sell Tealeaf (if a customer has a budget concern) as opposed to discounting the software?
A. Discount professional services
B. Sell Level 1 capabilities as described in the Tealeaf CEM Maturity Model
C. Offer unlimited professional services
D. Discount upgrades
E. All of the above
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 13

IBM LIVEmail serves what purpose for marketers?
A. LIVEmail is an email delivery tool that facilitates one-to-one customer interaction
B. LIVEmail helps marketers retarget high-value customers through ESP partner integrations
C. LIVEmail gives marketers the ability to conduct both email and direct mail campaigns
D. LIVEmail integrates with Benchmark to outline digital marketing ROI
Answer: C
Reference: ource=swg-smartercommerce-emm

What is the ROI for Customer Behavior Analysis, CBA Suite according to a Forrester report?
A. 300% to 400%
B. 400% to 500%
C. 500% to 600%
D. 600% to 700%
Answer: C

What is one benefit listed in the value proposition for the DMO solution’s customer profiles (LIVE Profiles)?
A. Instant insight into opt-in permissions
B. Provide a complete picture of customer interactions
C. Detailed history of a customer’s word-of-mouth activity
D. Ability to analyze customer sentiment and opinions
Answer: B

What is the visibility gap companies have without Tealeaf?
A. Companies cannot see the data they are capturing
B. Companies cannot see exactly why their customers are succeeding or failing on web site
C. Companies cannot see why their customers are not pulled in by marketing campaigns
D. Companies cannot see why customer support cannot increase transaction value
Answer: B
Reference: ge 2, third para)

Who does IBM typically target with its DMO solution?
A. Database Administrators
B. CMO/VP/Director of Marketing
C. Software Developers
D. IT Administrators
Answer: B

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