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What is required to use Desktop and Mobile Architecture for System Hardware (DASH) or HP computer systems?
A. The system must be bootable to Windows
B. The system must have an HP_T0OLS utility partition
C. A specialized USB key must be connected
D. Special DASH hardware must be built in to computer
Answer: D

On which standard 15 Desktop and Mobile Architecture for System Hardware (DASH) based?
D. USB 2.0
Answer: A
How do you access HP System Diagnostics (UEFI) on an HP computer’?
A. Press the F2 key at the BIOS system Startup Menu
B. Use a local CD ROM disk that contains the UEFI system files
C. Press the F8 key after the BIOS system Startup Menu displays
D. Navigate to the \HP_TOOLS directory of the boot disk and run SystemDiags.exe.
Answer: A

How can you run HP Vision Diagnostics? (Select two)
A. from a USB Key
B. from a CD ROM disk
C. as a Web-browser hosted Java application
D. as an installed Windows executable application

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What does it mean when a device supply reaches the <Supply> Very Low state?
A. The user must replace the specified supply
B. The HP Premium Protection warranty on that supply has ended
C. The specified supply is at or below 20%.
D. The device will not accept any new print jobs until the specified supply is replaced

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
When is it NOT possible to return a newly-installed fuser to HP as new or to install it in another device as unused’?
A. immediately upon installation
B. after 50 pages have printed
C. after 100 pages have printed
D. after 500 pages have printed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
What is one characteristic of the control panel on the HP LaserJet Enterprise 600 M601, M602, and M603 Series Printer?
A. It is designated as a Customer Self-Repair (CSR) part
B. It is not designated as a CSR part
C. It contains a monochrome, graphical display
D. It is a touchscreen graphical display

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
For which reason should a used inter-connect board (ICB) never be installed in another engine’?
A. Each ICB contains device-specific data, which would corrupt critical values in another engine.
B. The ICB is hard-keyed tothe device it is installed onand attempting to install it in another engine could damage the ICB
C. The ICB installs an encrypted Key on the formatter Replacing theICB corrupts the formatter Keynrequiring a formatter replacement.
D. There is a risk that the low voltage power supply would burn an ICB that is not factory calibrated to it.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
What monitors the remaining toner level in a print cartridge?
A. the DC controller via the high-voltage power supply
B. the inter-connect board via the low-voltage power supply
C. the formatter via the toner collection unit
D. the hard disk via the toner collection unit

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the maximum envelope capacity of the optional envelope feeder for the HP LaserJet Enterprise

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How many motors do HP LaserJet 5200 series printers contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
What printer drivers are included on the inbox CD for the HP LaserJet 5200 series printer? Select THREE.
A. Linux
B. PCL 5e
C. PostScript 3
D. PCL 6
Answer: B,C,D
When removing/replacing the assembly, for which internal assembly must you first remove the cartridge door unit?
A. control panel assembly
B. laser/scanner assembly
C. face down delivery unit
D. cassette-paper pickup unit
Answer: B
Which of the following are customer self-repair parts? Select THREE.
A. tray 1 pickup roller
B. formatter
C. memory DIMMs
D. main fan duct
Answer: A,B,C
The HP LaserJet 5200L comes with which two of the following? Select TWO.
A. 500-sheet input tray
B. one open DIMM slot
C. duplex unit
D. hi-speed USB 2.0 port
Answer: B
What type of page would you print for information about jams, loading trays, or supported media types and sizes?
A. Show Me How
B. Configuration
C. Device Information
D. Self-help
Answer: A
Which unit, or units, must be removed when removing the high-voltage power supply?
A. cartridge door unit
B. registration unit
C. both the cartridge door unit and the registration unit
D. neither the cartridge door unit nor the registration unit
Answer: B
What is the heaviest paper supported in trays 2 and 3 on the HP LaserJet 5200 series printer?
A. 75 g/m2 (20 lb)
B. 90 g/m2 (24 lb)
C. 120 g/m2 (32 lb)
D. 199 g/m2 (53 lb)
Answer: C
What happens if the formatter and DC controller are replaced at the same time?
A. The NVRAM remains blank and the printing device needs to be reset.
B. The ‘Save and Restore’ feature does not properly store new memory on the NVRAM.
C. The printing device perceives the DC controller as being reused, and rejects the new controller.
D. The printing device does not recognize the newly applied serial number, and does not come to a ‘Ready’ state during power-up.
Answer: D
After a formatter is replaced, how much time is needed after the device comes to ‘Ready’ for the NVRAM settings to be rewritten?
A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 7 minutes
Answer: C

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Which Task Automation discovery questions should you ask an IT executive in order to uncover a Database and Middleware Management pain point? (Select two.)
A. What challenges do you have in maintaining the patching and upgrading of your database and middleware estate?
B. Do you have the ability to integrate database fault, availability, performance, and configuration management?
C. Do you have challenges securing the environments that host your database systems?
D. How do you guarantee that your database-related service desk tickets are prioritized?
E. Are you heavily reliant on senior Database administrators and proprietary scripting mechanisms?

Correct Answer: AE
A customer has purchased Server Automation Ultimate Edition and also uses HP Operations Manager.
What is a natural up-sell for this customer?
A. HP Operations Orchestration
B. HP Quality Center
C. HP Performance Center
D. HP Vertica

Correct Answer: D
Which customer profile is the best target for HP Software Task Automation solutions? (Select three.)
A. customers who want to provide traceability from performance requirements to defects
B. customers looking to pinpoint the root causes of application issues
C. customers struggling to patch their Oracle database estate on a regular basis
D. customers with 2.000+ Windows/Linux servers
E. customers with high database-to-administrator ratios
F. customers with low server-to-administrator ratios

Correct Answer: CDE
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software Database and Middleware Automation solution? (Select two.)
A. error-prone and resource-intensive patching of the Oracle database estate
B. no visibility from the database layer down to the spindle layer
C. no system in place to capture time value of data, coupled with immediate rich analytics insight
D. unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
E. senior database administrators who are highly reliant on scripting mechanisms

Correct Answer: AC
Which HP Server Automation Premium value best resonates with the persona involved in Task Automation?
A. comprehensive and continuous compliance auditing and remediation
B. integration of server monitoring and universal log management, further reducing the time to troubleshoot tough-to-diagnose problems
C. prevention of issues by detecting bottlenecks and obtaining an accurate picture of end-to-end system performance
D. virtualization of production network conditions to accurately emulate and test application performance

Correct Answer: A
Which discovery questions should you ask an IT executive to uncover Task Automation opportunities? (Select two.)
A. Are you able to trace real user transactions across application tiers to speed resolution times?
B. Do you have the ability to integrate server fault, availability, performance, and configuration management?
C. Are you looking to accelerate query performance with a column-oriented, pattern-matching technology?
D. What are your challenges regarding regulatory and enterprise standard compliance fulfilment?
E. How quickly and easily can you deploy security patches?

Correct Answer: DE
What is the primary capability of the HP Server Automation Ultimate Edition solution that differentiates HP from its competitors?
A. Server Automation Ultimate Edition is highly scalable, managing 100,000+ servers.
B. Server Automation Ultimate Edition provides regulatory compliance for globally distributed data centers.
C. Server Automation Ultimate Edition enables the distribution of Microsoft security updates.
D. Server Automation Ultimate Edition automates server lifecycle management.

Correct Answer: B
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software Cloud and Automation Suite Ultimate Edition solution? (Select two.)
A. unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
B. no log management solution to collect, unify, and search machine data
C. no system to manage software and infrastructure components along with associated relationships and dependencies
D. inability to trace real user transactions across application tiers to speed resolution times
E. inability to audit Cisco routers down to the keystroke change level

Correct Answer: AC
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Server Automation Premium Edition solution? (Select two.)
A. The patching of the Oracle database estate is resource-intensive.
B. Fulfilling PCI compliance requirements in a timely manner is impossible.
C. There is no tracking of storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level.
D. Mean time to repair (MTTR) of network devices is too long, resulting in failed SLAs.
E. Change execution is slow and error-prone.
Correct Answer: AB

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What is a main difference between Performance Center and LoadRunner?
A. It allows management of all test users, resources, and assets in a centralized way.
B. It allows scheduling a delayed test start, even if the test operator is away.
C. It allows dynamic distribution of test load to different Load Generators
D. It allows concurrent load testing by different members of the team, provided more than one controller is licensed

Correct Answer: A
Which action can you perform from the Load Test Run page?
A. Identify the location for the load test results.
B. View online monitor graphs.
C. Establish the correct ramp-up rate for each Vuser group.
D. Enable diagnostics for a limited percentage of running Vusers.

Correct Answer: D
Which components can you check by using the System Health of ALM? (Select three.)
A. All client-side standalone installations, like VuGen or Analysis
B. ALM database
C. One or more Performance Center Hosts
D. MIListener Installations
E. One or more Performance Center Servers
F. ALM platform
G. clients that access the ALM user site

Correct Answer: BEF
What should you do when reserving timeslots? (Select two.)
A. Always create ad-hoc timeslots
B. Add all hosts with any status to a timeslot.
C. Add monitor profile.
D. Add at least 15 minutes to collate results in your timeslot.
Correct Answer: D
When is monitoring data collected for the analysis?
A. At the end of the load test
B. As designed in Tools > Options
C. As designed in Controller Options
D. As designed in Timeslot Options
Correct Answer: C
Which services are required to be up and running on all PC servers and hosts before you install Performance Center?
A. IPSEC Services, RPC, and NTLM Security support provider
B. IPSEC Services, Distributed Transaction Coordinator, and RPC
C. NTLM Security support provider Task Manager, and RPC
D. Remote Registry Service. IPSEC Services, and Distributed Transaction Coordinator

Correct Answer: A
What information is required to add a Performance Center Server in the Lab Management?
A. Proxy port
B. Internal URL
C. Local machine key
D. Password

Correct Answer: D
What is System Health Orphan Run Task?
A. A manual task that runs on demand and identifies orphan test runs during the active timeslot.
B. A scheduled task that runs, by default, four times per hour and identifies orphan test runs during the active timeslot.
C. A scheduled task that runs, by default, one time per minute and identifies orphan test runs during the active timeslot.
D. A scheduled task that runs, by default, four times per hour and identifies orphan test runs during and outside the active timeslot.

Correct Answer: B
Which step or piece of information is mandatory when creating a project? (Select two)
A. Project domain
B. Set a Vuser limit.
C. Create a single Project Administrator.
D. Assign more than one Project Administrator.
E. Project name
Correct Answer: AE
To create a monitor profile, which steps are necessary? (Select three)
A. Install or configure monitoring components on the server machine
B. Configure Proxy Settings.
C. Configure SiteScope.
D. Add Monitors to the profile.
E. Configure DNS
F. Create Test Resources from the Test Resources module.
Correct Answer: ADF
How is secure communication accomplished between the ALM platform and the Performance Center components?
A. Via encryption, based on a predetermined passphrase
B. Via a dedicated Virtual Private Network
C. Via encryption, based on the user’s own password
D. Via a 24-digit password

Correct Answer: A
Aside from the required pre-installation software, which type of software does a Performance Center machine need?
A. Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. Strawberry Perl 5.10.1
C. VuGen Standalone software
D. VuGen and Analysis Standalone software

Correct Answer: A
Which tool enables you to set the initial security settings locally on each host?
A. Site Administration
B. Host Security Manager
C. Lab Management
D. Host Security Setup utility

Correct Answer: D
Which step is part of the load test launch process?
A. Collate temporary results from Load Generators.
B. Reserve Timeslots
C. Analyze the Application Under Test.
D. Identify top time transactions.
Correct Answer: B
What is a general run time setting for all protocols?
A. Proxy
B. Speed simulation
C. Pacing
D. Browser settings
Correct Answer: D
Which information can be found in PC usage reports? (Select two.)
A. breakdown of virtual user type utilized in the load tests
B. resource usage on the PC host machines during test runs
C. number of virtual users utilized by each project
D. working hours by each PC user g] overall license usage

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which steps are required to set the license key in Performance Center? (Select two.)
A. Add License Key.
B. Update License Host location.
C. Log in to the Lab Management.
D. Log in to the Performance Center Server.
E. Log in to the Performance Center Host.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 18
What is the tuning recommendation for improving Load-Generator performance on Linux?
A. Increase file descriptors.
B. Decrease file descriptors.
C. Decrease process entries.
D. Reduce swap space.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
What does the feature implemented in the Patch Management User Interface enable?
A. Any user with the right permissions to upload a patch to the system andthen install the patch on the appropriate host or server
B. Any user with access to the Lab Management section to upload a patch, and any administrator to install it on the appropriate host or server
C. Any administrator to upload a patch to the system and to then let any user install the patch on the appropriate host or server
D. Any administrator to check the HP official support website, alerting the support staff of new patch releases

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
Why can the “Initialize Vuser before ramp up” setting be beneficial?
A. It ensures network connectivity between the Controller and hosts.
B. It ramps-up to the optimum amount of Vusers before the load test runs.
C. It reduces CPU utilization and gets realistic load test results.
D. It executes any appropriate login code in the Vuser Action section.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Which model describes Test Resources usage by LoadRunner and Performance Center?
A. A LoadRunner Controller Scenario and a Performance Center Test are not interchangeable.
B. A LoadRunner Controller can open a Performance Center Test, but not vice versa.
C. A LoadRunner Controller Scenario and a Performance Center Test are interchangeable.
D. A LoadRunner Controller can open a Performance Center Test Set, but not vice versa. Correct Answer: A
Where can a Performance Center user create Service Level Agreement (SLA) thresholds?
A. Results viewed in Analysis
B. Reports in Excel
C. Test Designer and Analysis
D. Test Designer in Test Plan
E. Test Set options in Test Lab

Correct Answer: E
Which step is recommended as part of the ALM patch upgrade process on hosts?
A. Upload project scripts.
B. Rename host.
C. Delete test results.
D. Reserve hosts in maintenance timeslots.

Correct Answer: D
Where can you check permissions for a user group in Performance Center?
A. Site Administration module
B. Lab Management module
C. User Site module
D. Directly in the database

Correct Answer: A
In order to perform an analysis of run results, what must you first do with them?
A. Collect
B. Collate
C. Mediate
D. Transactionalize
Correct Answer: B
Which template is valid for Trend Reports?
A. Trend by BSM data Template
B. Trend by Monitor Measurements Template
C. SiteScope Monitors Template
D. Trend by Quality Attributes Template
Correct Answer: D
What does Performance Center Test use Topology to do?
A. Restrict user access to AUT hosts
B. Upload files to Topology servers C. Manage an inventory of AUT hosts
D. Define performance monitors by integrating with HP SiteScope

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
What is required to install Performance Center Server and Hosts?
A. A configured DNS server
B. Security passphrases set up on all machines
C. Full administrative privileges on the machines
D. IIS configured on all machines

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
What does PAL stand for?
A. Performance Analysis Lifecycle
B. Performance Application Lifecycle
C. Personalized Application Lifecycle
D. Production Application Lifecycle

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
What is run status on the Load Test page if the timeslot setting of Collate Only was used for post-run analysis settings?
A. No Run
B. Failed Creating Analysis Data
C. Finished
D. Before Creating Analysis Data

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
After Performance Center is installed, the administrator should perform a progression of steps to verify that the installation was successful. Which step is correct to include in this verification process?
A. Create a new project in Site Administration and select the ALM Lab Extension.
B. Enable the Check ALM Server in the System Health Check box in Lab Management.
C. Log into Site Administration and verify that the PC_ENABLED Site Configuration parameter is set to.
D. Import the ALM Upgrade Verification Project and execute all tests successfully.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
What is an example of a service level agreement (SLA) defined in the transaction volume metrics?
A. Expected database thread count
B. Server operating system patch levels
C. Maximum web server memory usage
D. peak hour transaction count Correct Answer: D

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Your customer has a requirement for trending and alerting information of their HP StoreOnce Backup system. How can your customer perform this function?
A. Install StoreOnce Enterprise Manager
B. Configure SNMP alerting.
C. Install HP OneView.
D. Configure reporting within the StoreOnce GUI.

Correct Answer: A
You need to implement the Secure Erase functionality on an HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system. Which targets meet the requirements? (Select two.)
B. Service Set
D. Node
E. Catalyst

Correct Answer: CE
You need to replace a motherboard on an HP StoreOnce Multi-node couplet. Where do you find important information to note, required from the original motherboard, which you will need after the replacement?
A. Node Serial Number on the label
B. SAAP within the Controller Utility
C. UUID in the StoreOnce BIOS
D. Activation Key in the iL04 GUI

Correct Answer: D
You want to add more drives to an existing D6000 Drawer for an HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system. How can you add the additional storage? (Select two.)
A. #hardware add storage
B. #hardware enable storage
C. #hardware update storage
D. #if hardware discover storage
E. #hardware set storage

Correct Answer: AE
Your customer has data security requirements. Which features provided by the HP StoreOnce Security Package will help the customer meet this requirement? (Select two.)
A. Secure Erase
B. in-flight backup encryption
C. secure host presentation
D. data-at-rest encryption
E. Encryption Key Management

Correct Answer: AD
When configuring an HP StoreOnce 4900 Backup system, your customer requires a fault tolerant network bond due to their network restrictions. Which bonding mode would best fit this situation?
A. Mode 1 (Active-Backup)
B. Mode 3 (Active-Passive)
C. Mode4 (LACP)
D. Mode 6 (Balance-ALB)

Correct Answer: B
Which features are offered in the HP StoreOnce 4900 and 6500 Backup systems? (Select two.)
A. active health logs in support tickets
B. high density storage units
C. Open Systems storage integration
D. 42U l-rack with intelligent rack position system
E. 512GB Smart memory (32 x 16GB)

Correct Answer: BD
After installing an HP StoreOnce 4900 Backup system, you want to check the component firmware. Which CLI command should you use?
A. firmware state
B. component update check
C. hardware show firmware
D. system show components

Correct Answer: C
Your customer wants to add their HP StoreOnce Backup device to an Active Directory domain. How can this task be completed?
A. from the StoreOnce WMI, from the NAS menu tree
B. from the CLI, using the system add security command
C. from the StoreOnce WMI, from the Catalyst menu tree
D. from the CLI, using the system set config command

Correct Answer: D
A customer has three HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system couplets and wants to use the complete security feature set on four target devices. The customer needs to clarify which licenses to use and to activate within the StoreOnce CLI. What is the correct licensing for this environment?
A. one Security Appliance license per node pair, and one for the disk drawer
B. four security licenses, one for each store you want to encrypt
C. one data-at-rest and one Secure Erase license per node
D. three licenses of the StoreOnce Security Suite, one per couplet
Correct Answer: B

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