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300-410 Exam Dumps 2022

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Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

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New Cisco 300-410 exam dumps comes with free Q&A:

Q&A 1

You configured a device as an IP SLA responder using the following configuration:

Which line indicates that the device is not a Cisco device?

A. frequency 30
B. timeout 1000
C. TCP-connect 10.0.0.1 23 control disable
D. tag FLL-RO

Correct Answer: C

The IP SLA TCP connect operation is used to gather statistics on connection-oriented services. The TCP- connect 10.0.0.1 23 control disable command specifies the IP address to which the responder should respond, the port number on which to respond and it disables the control protocol normally used to inform the responder to temporarily enable the port specified. by the configuration in the sender.

When the responder is a non-Cisco device, a well-known port number must be chosen and the control protocol should be disabled on the responder.

When a Cisco device is the responder, then any port number can be chosen and the control protocol should be left enabled. The frequency 30 command specifies how often the test should occur in seconds. It is not changed in any way as a result of the responder being a non-Cisco device.

The timeout 1000 command specifies in milliseconds the amount of time an IP SLAs operation waits for a response from its request packet. It is not changed in any way as a result of the responder being a non-Cisco device. The tag FLL-RO command simply applies a user-specified identifier to the IP SLAs operation and is changed in any way as a result of the responder being a non-Cisco device.

Objective: Infrastructure Services
Sub-Objective: Configure and verify IP SLA

References:
IP SLAs Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS Release 15MandT > Configuring IP SLAs TCP Connect Operations Cisco > Cisco IOS IP SLAs Command Reference > TCP-connect

Q&A 2

With respect to modifying an OSPF router ID to a loopback address, which of the following statements are true?

A. OSPF is not as reliable if a loopback interface is configured.
B. Using a loopback address avoids wasting an additional IP address.
C. A loopback interface is not always active, and it can go “down” like a real interface.
D. The loopback address does not automatically appear in the routing table of neighboring OSPF routers, so it cannot be pinged from other routers unless you include it with a network statement on the router local to the loopback interface.

Correct Answer: D

A loopback address does not automatically appear in neighboring routers\’ routing tables, so it cannot be pinged for network troubleshooting.

A workaround for this problem is to add a network statement under OSPF that advertises the loopback address network so that other routers will know how to reach your loopback.

A loopback address is an IP address assigned to a loopback interface, which is a logical interface on a router that behaves like a physical interface. Their advantage is that, unlike physical interfaces, logical interfaces do not go down.

For example: Router(config)# interface loopback 0
Router(config-if)# ip address 172.17.1.1 255.255.255.0
In the example, a loopback IP address is used by OSPF to provide its router ID. This type of address is preferred because it is assumed to be more stable than a router ID tied to a physical interface.

The traditional problem with a router ID tied to a physical interface is that if the physical interface were to go down, the router would have to change its router ID to some other value.

That would cause the OSPF neighbor relationships to reset and change values in the link-state advertisements (LSAs), causing a disruption to the OSPF area.

With this consideration in mind, OSPF is more reliable when using a loopback interface than using a physical interface. Using a loopback address does not avoid wasting an additional IP address. The address must still be unique. A loopback interface is always active, and it cannot go “down” as a physical interface can.

Objective: Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective: Configure and verify OSPF operations
References: Cisco > IP Routing: OSPF Configuration Guide > Configuring OSPF > Forcing the Router ID Choice with a Loopback Interface

Q&A 3

Which of the following commands is used to verify the link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses of an IPv6 router?

A. show ipv6 neighbors (only link-local addresses)
B. show ipv6 route
C. show ipv6 protocols
D. show ipv6 interface

Correct Answer: D

The show ipv6 interface command is used to verify the link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses assigned to an IPv6-enabled router interface. The show ipv6 interface command displays information regarding that interface, such as the physical state, MTU, and IPv6 enable/disable state.

A partial output of the show ipv6 interface command on an IPv6-enabled router named it is as follows:

In the given sample output, you can see that the Fa0/1 interface of rtrA has the link-local address FE80::6339:7BFF:FE5D:A031/64 and the global unicast address 2001:7067:90D1:1::1. The global unicast address is not in EUI-64 format because when the ipv6 address command was issued, the eui64 keyword was not used.

If EUI-64 format had been specified with the eui64 keyword, the global unicast address would have been 2001:7067:90D1:1:6339:7BFF:FE5D:A031.

An IPv6-enabled interface has not only a link-local and global unicast address, but also one or more multicast addresses. A multicast address is an IPv6 address that has the prefix FF00::/8. These addresses are assigned to interfaces of different nodes such that they appear as a logical group.

This implies that when a packet is destined for a multicast address, that packet is delivered to all the interfaces that have the same multicast address.

The various multicast groups are as follows: FF02::1 Indicates the group of all the nodes on the local segment FF02::2 Indicates the group of all the routers on the local segment FF02::1:FF00:0/104 Indicates a solicited-node multicast group for every unicast or anycast address assigned to the interface

You can also notice in the sample output that the Fa0/1 interface belongs to three multicast groups: FF02::1, FF02::2, and FF02::1:FF5D:A031. The first two multicast groups refer to the all-host and all-router multicast groups, respectively.

The third group, FF02::1:FF5D:A031, is the solicited-node multicast address. This address is created for every unicast or anycast address. A solicited-node multicast address is determined by assigning the least significant 24 bits of the unicast address to the least significant 24 bits of the FF02::1:FF00:0 address.

The show ipv6 neighbors command displays the link-local /global unicast addresses of the neighbors, including other information such as state and the next-hop interface.

The show ipv6 route command is used to view the IPv6 routing table on the router. This command displays the prefixes, administrative distance, metric, and next-hop addresses for various IPv6 networks.
The show ipv6 protocols command is used to view the active routing protocols for IPv6 on the router.

This command shows the interfaces, redistribution status, and summarization status about each of the routing protocols enabled on the router. Objective: Layer 3 Technologies Sub-Objective: Identify IPv6 addressing and subnetting

References:

Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > show ipv6 eigrp topology through show ipv6 nat statistics > show ipv6 interface Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > show ipv6 nat translations through show ipv6 protocols > show ipv6 neighbors Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > show ipv6 nat translations through show ipv6 protocols > show ipv6 protocols
Cisco > Products and Services > Cisco IOS and NX-OS Software > Cisco IOS Technologies > IPv6 > Product Literature White Papers > Cisco IOS IPv6 Multicast Introduction Cisco > IPv6 Implementation Guide, Release 15.2MandT > Implementing IPv6 Multicast

Q&A 4

Which command can you use to display the area border routers (ABRs) and the routes to them?

A. show ip ospf dr
B. show ip opsf bdr
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf border-routers

Correct Answer: D

The correct answer is show ip ospf border-routers. The following commands are available to verify OSPF configurations: show ip ospf border-routers – displays internal ISPF routing table entries for an ABR. show ip ospf virtual-links – displays the current state of OSPF virtual links. show ip ospf – displays information about the router\’s role and each area to which the router is connected. show ip ospf database – displays the contents of the router\’s topological database.

Note that a number of keywords can be used with the show ip ospf database command to get specific information. The command show ip ospf dr is not correct because dr is not a parameter of the show ip ospf command. The command show ip ospf bdr is not correct because bdr is not a parameter of the show ip ospf command.

Objective: Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective: Configure and verify network types, area types, and router types
References: Cisco > Cisco IOS IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference > show ip ospf border-routers

Q&A 5

Examine the following output of the show ip ospf interface command.

What would be the effect of executing the auto-cost reference bandwidth 2000 command on Router43 in router OSPF mode?

A. the cost of the Serial interface would increase to 20
B. the cost of the FastEthernet interfaces would increase to 2000
C. the cost of the Serial interface would increase to 647
D. the cost of the FastEthernet interfaces would increase to 20

Correct Answer: D

If the auto-cost reference bandwidth 2000 command is executed in router OSPF mode it will result in a cost to the FastEthernet interfaces of 20. The formula for arriving at the cost is: reference bandwidth / interface bandwidth = cost

The default reference bandwidth for FastEthernet is 100 Mbps. If the reference bandwidth is set at 2000 Mbps using the auto-cost reference command, and the FastEthernet interface has a bandwidth of 100 Mbps, the resulting cost is 20 (2000 / 100 = 20).

The auto-cost reference bandwidth command is executed in router OSPF mode to affect all interfaces. Alternatively, the cost of each interface can be set separately with the ip ospf cost command issued in interface configuration mode.

The two commands can also be used in combination: you can set all interfaces with the auto-cost reference bandwidth command, and then set a single interface to a different cost with the ip ospf cost command.

The command would not result in the cost of the Serial interface increasing to 20 or to 647. With a reference bandwidth of 2000 Mbps and interface bandwidth of 1544 kbps (the default bandwidth of a serial interface), the resulting cost would be 1294.

Objective:
Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective:
Configure and verify OSPF path preference

References:
Cisco > Home > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Technology Information > Technology White Paper OSPF Design Guide > OSPF Cost Cisco > Cisco IOS IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference > show ip ospf interface Cisco > Cisco IOS IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference > auto-cost

Q&A 6

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the MPLS terms from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place

+
device that forwards traffic based on labels: P
+
path that the labeled packet takes: LSP
+
device that is unaware of MPLS labeling: CE
+
device that removes and adds the MPLS labeling: PE

Q&A 7

Which show command displays the status of all of a router\\’s Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) connections in a concise format?

A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp summary
C. show ip bgp connections
D. show ip bgp neighbor\\’s summary

Correct Answer: B

The correct answer is show ip bgp summary.
Although show ip bgp neighbors will show you the status of your connections to neighbors, only show ip bgp summary shows it to you in a concise, summarized format, with one neighbor listed per line. It displays both iBGP and eBGP neighbors and the number of prefixes that have been learned from the neighbor.

Below is an example of the output of the show ip bgp summary command:

The following information can be obtained from this output:
The BGP session to 192.168.5.1 is established. A number in the State column indicates that the session is established.

This number indicates the number of prefixes received from the neighbor. Router6 is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 192.168.6.1 neighbor. This is indicated by the keyword Active in the State column.

Several show commands can be used to verify BGP configuration and operation:
show ip bgp – displays the contents of the BGP routing table show ip bgp summary – displays the status of BGP connections in a summary format show ip bgp neighbors – displays information about the TCP and BGP connections to neighbors

Objective: Layer 3 Technologies Sub-Objective: Describe, configure, and verify BGP peer relationships and authentication
References: Cisco IOS Master Command List, Release 12.4 > a through b > BGP > Commands: show ip through T > show ip bgp summary

Q&A 8

You have recently joined a company as the network administrator. You have been asked to complete the configuration on the border routers for an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel between several IPv6 network domains. The commands that are currently configured on the routers are as follows:

ipv6 route tunnel interface tunnel ipv6 address tunnel source
Which of the following additional commands is required to complete the configuration of automatic 6-to-4 tunnel on the border routers?

A. tunnel mode ipv6ip
B. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4
C. tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel
D. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

Correct Answer: B

The correct answer is to use the tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4 command to complete the configuration of an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel. This command requires the use of IPv6 unicast addresses that have the 2002::/16 prefix.

The types of tunneling mechanisms supported by IPv6 are: Automatic 6-to-4 tunnel ISATAP tunnel Manually configured tunnel GRE tunnel Apart from using a tunneling mechanism, interoperability between IPv4 and IPv6 can be provided by using a dual-stack infrastructure or Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation (NAT-PT).

A dual-stack infrastructure allows you to use both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on the same router/host. NAT-PT is used to translate IPv4 addresses to IPv6 and vice versa. The tunnel mode ipv6ip command should not be used to complete the configuration because this command specifies IPv6 as the passenger protocol and creates a manually configured tunnel.

The tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel command is not required to enable automatic 6-to-4 tunneling on the border routers. This command creates an automatic IPv4-compatible IPv6 tunnel between the routers.
The tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap command should not be used because this command creates an ISATAP tunnel.

Objective:
Network Principles
Sub-Objective:
Recognize proposed changes to the network
References:
Cisco IOS IPv6 Configuration Guide; Implementing Tunneling for IPv6 > Configuring Manual IPv6 Tunnels Cisco > Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > tunnel mode ipv6ip

Q&A 9

Refer to the exhibit. The AP status from Cisco DNA Center Assurance Dashboard shows some physical connectivity issues from access switch interface G1/0/14.

Which command generates the diagnostic data to resolve the physical connectivity issues?

A. check cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14
B. verify cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14
C. show cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14
D. test cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14

Correct Answer: D

Q&A 10

You are configuring NAT64 to allow communication between a host running IPv6 and a server running IPv4. The router R1 sits between the host and the server. The router\\’s Fa0/2/7 interface is connected to the IPv6 host, and the Fa0/2/6 interface is connected to the IPv4 server.

The IPv6 host has an IPv6 address of 2001::a00:1/128 and the IPv4 server is at 10.0.0.1. Below is the relevant configuration on R1:

When the IPv4 server responds to the IPv6 host, what IPv6 address will be in the source address in the packet?

A. 2001::a001
B. 2001::A00:B
C. 3001::a00:1
D. 2001::A00:A

Correct Answer: C

NAT64 is a solution when IPv6 hosts need to communicate with IPv4-only servers. When the translation occur on the router the IPv4 address 10.0.0.1 will converted to hex as a00:1 and will be attached to the end of the stateful prefix of 3001::/96 that was configured on the router interface connected to the IPv4 server. The result will be 3001::a00:1.

The address will not be 2001::a001. The prefix that will be attached to the hex version of 10.0.0.1 will not be that of the interface fa0/2/7 but will be the prefix that was configured on that interface for nat64 translation which is 3301::/96. The address will not be 2001::a00:b.

That is the IPv6 address on the interface connected to the IPv6 host, but that address is not used for IPv4 to IPv6 communication. A translated address will be generated by converting the IPv4 address of the IPv4 host to hex and attaching it to the IPv6 prefix configured on the interface connected to the IPv4 server.

The address will not be 2001::A00:A. That is the IPv6 address of the IPv6 host. That was statically mapped to 10.0.0.10 in the configuration and as such will be the IPv4 address used by the IPv6 host on the IPv4 side of the router.

Objective:
Infrastructure Services
Sub-Objective:
Describe IPv6 NAT
References:
Stateful Network Address Translation 64 (PDF)

Q&A 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator sets up an OSPF routing protocol for a DMVPN network on the hub router.

Which configuration command is required to establish a DMVPN tunnel with multiple spokes?

A. ip ospf network point-to-point on the hub router
B. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint on one spoke router
C. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint on both spoke routers
D. ip ospf network point-to-point on both spoke routers

Correct Answer: C

Q&A 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet is redistributed from EIGRP to OSPF routing protocols?

A. 10.2.2.0/24
B. 10.1.4.0/26
C. 10.1.2.0/24
D. 10.2.3.0/26

Correct Answer: A

Q&A 13

Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes why the EIGRP neighbors of this router are not learning routes that are received from OSPF?

A. The subnet defined in OSPF is not part of area 0.
B. Default metrics are not configured under EIGRP.
C. There is no overlap in the subnets advertised.
D. The routing protocols do not have the same AS number.

Correct Answer: B

……

[Q&A for previous 300-410 exams]
https://www.maeeonline.org/fast-pass-300-410-the-most-effective-method-is-to-download-valid-cisco-300-410-pdf/

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QUESTION 1

An administrator performs a major upgrade of a Cisco Meeting Server cluster that contains multiple database nodes.
Which step ensures that the Call Bridge can use the database?

A. The command database cluster initialize must be run on the master database node.
B. The master database node must be the first server to complete the upgrade process.
C. The command database cluster upgrade_schema must be run on the master database node.
D. The master database node must create a new database cluster and join the peer servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/210530-configure-cisco-meetingserver-call-brid.html

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit. What does this notification indicate about activity over the last 90 days?

A. In cluster 2, more licenses have been used than are installed for less than 15 days.
B. In cluster 3, the license agreement will remain in compliance for 20 more days.
C. In cluster 4, at least 5 percent of the installed licenses have not been used.
D. In cluster 6, the license agreement has been out of compliance for more than 30 days.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

cms1> webadmin Enabled : true TLS listening interface : a Key listening port : 445 Key file : webadmin.key Certificate
file : webadmin.crt HTTP redirect : Disabled STATUS : webadmin running cms1> pki inspect webadmin.crt Checking
ssh public keys . . . not found Checking user configured certificates and keys . . .

found File contains a PEM encoded certificate Certificate: Data: Version: 3 (0x2) Serial Number: 638104639 (0x2608b43f) Signature Algorithm:
sha256WithRSAEncryption Issuer: 0=Cisco Systems, Inc.

Validity Not Before: Dec 4 11:58:31 2020 GMT Not After :
Dec 3 11:58:31 2025 GMT Subject : 0=Cisco Systems, Inc Subject Public Key Info: Public Key Algorithm: rsaEncryption
RSA Public-Key: (2048 bit) Modulus:

00 : 9e : c9 : 0e :ba : 1d : 5b : 10 : f7 : 6c : 0d : 9a : 9e : 37 : 8d :
91 : b1 : d8 : 91 : 63 : 1e : 9b : e3 : 19 : 6e : 9e : f7 : d1 : c9 : fe :
91 : 9d : c4 : 55 : 32 : 77 : 98 : f1 : 81 : fd : c3 : 55 : b5 : 04 : 1a : 3c : fb : b9 : 67 : 6c : eb : 66 : 23 : 91 : 5a : 8f : 25 : 4e :
59 : 8f :

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer tries to configure Cisco Meeting Server as a Conference Bridge on the Cisco UCM, but
the Conference Bridge does not register. Which configuration step should be completed?

A. HTTP redirection must be enabled for Web Admin.
B. A CA-signed certificate must be issued and installed for Web Admin.
C. Web Admin must be configured to run on TCP port 443.
D. SSH public keys must be installed.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which of the following protocol or Expressway-E service is required for external web app participants to join a Cisco
Meeting Server version 3.0 conference as guests?

A. H.323
B. SIP
C. TURN
D. XMPP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

After performing an upgrade of the Cisco Meeting Server cluster, an engineer sees an error message indicating that
Cisco Meeting Server is not licensed. Also, no spaces or users show in the GUI. What should be done to resolve this
issue?

A. The database cluster upgrade_schema command must be run on the new database cluster master.
B. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded using the same file to upgrade all nodes.
C. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded with the database master being first and then all peers.
D. New database certificates must be generated for each peer in the cluster.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Release_Notes/Version-3-0/Cisco-Meeting-Server-Release-Notes-3-0.pdf

QUESTION 6

An administrator must create conference resources for phones that are registered to Cisco UCM. The administrator
adds Cisco Meeting Server as a Conference Bridge to Cisco UCM to accomplish this task. Where should the
administrator add the Conference Bridge to allow phones to use Cisco Meeting Server for conferences?

A. to a device pool
B. to a media resource group
C. to a SIP trunk
D. to a security profile

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213820-configure-cisco-meetingserver-and-cucm.html

QUESTION 7

To which two places should an administrator go to view an upcoming meeting scheduled on Cisco Meeting Server?
(Choose two.)

A. Cisco Meeting Server MMP interface
B. Cisco Meeting Management meetings interface
C. Cisco Meeting Server web user interface
D. Cisco Meeting Server API
E. Cisco TMS interface

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/Cisco-Meeting-Management/User-Guide/CiscoMeeting-Management-3-1-User-Guide-Video-Operator.pdf

QUESTION 8

How should an administrator configure Skype for Business to work with a Cisco Meeting Server cluster?

A. with the CsTrustedApplicationPool on the Lync/Skype server to specify the Cisco Meeting Server Web Admin FQDN
B. with the CsTrustedApplication Pool on the Lync/Skype server to specify port 5060
C. with CsStaticRoute on the Lync/Skype server to the first Call Bridge in the cluster
D. with the CsTrustedApplication Pool ComputerFqdn to the first Call Bridge in the cluster

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/212217-configure-cisco-meetingserver-and-skype.html#anc13

QUESTION 9

An engineer plans a Cisco Meeting Server deployment for a small company that has 60 percent of its employees
working on-site and 40 percent working remotely. The company security policy limits core server access to internal
clients. Which deployment model should be used?

A. Single Combined
B. Single Split
C. Cluster
D. Scalable and Resilient

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://cmslab.ciscolive.com/pod7

QUESTION 10

Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 4938 v=0 o=Acano 0 0 IN IP4 10.0.101.120 s=c=IN IP4 10.0.101.120
b=CT:16 t=0 0 m=audio 50262 RTP/AVP 108 107 109 110 9 99 111 100 104 103 0 8 15 102 18 13 118 101 a=crypto:1
AEAD_AES_128_GCM |2^48 a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM

|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_80
|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_32 |2^48 m=video 50264 RTP/AVP 97 116 114 96 34 31 100 121
b=TIAS:16000 a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM |2^48 a=crypto:2
AEAD_AES_256_GCM |2^48 a=crypto:3

AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_80 |2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_32 |2^48 a=content:main a=sendrecv
a=sprop-source:1 count=2;policies=cs:1 a=sprop-simul:1 1 * a=rtcp-fb:* nack pli a=rtcp-fb:* ccm fir a=rtcp-fb:* ccm ciscoscr a=extmap:1 http://protocols.cisco.com/virtualid a=extmap:2 http://protocols.cisco.com/framemarking a=rtpmap:97

H264/90000 a=fmtp:97 profile-level-id=42800a;max-mpbs=489600;max-fs=8160;max-cpb=4000;max-dpd=4752;maxfps=6000

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that they do not see a high-quality picture on the high-definition endpoints when they call into Cisco Meeting Server. An engineer must extract the SDP that is offered by Cisco Meeting Server from the SIP traces to troubleshoot. What is the cause of this issue?

A. Cisco Meeting Server is not configured for H.265 to support high-definition video calling.
B. The AES ciphers are not compatible with high-definition video calling.
C. The Content-Length value in the SDP does not support high-definition video calling.
D. The SIP call bandwidth is not at a value that supports high-definition video calling.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

An administrator sets up conference resources by using a clustered Cisco Meeting Server deployment for video
endpoints that are registered to Expressway. The administrator must ensure that no single server gets overloaded within the cluster. What should be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. a record with the cluster FQDN of the Cisco Meeting Server in the external DNS servers.
B. Expressway-C as the traversal client to Expressway-E.
C. Cisco Meeting Server and Expressway-C in the same domain.
D. a separate zone for Cisco Meeting Server servers in the cluster.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server with Expressway for external web app access and must enable
participants to use the web app to join conferences that are hosted on the meeting server. Which service should be
used in the Expressway-E to accomplish this goal?

A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. SIP
C. XMPP server
D. TURN

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-MeetingServer-Deployment-Planning-and-Preparation-with-Expressway-Guide.pdf

QUESTION 13

An engineer must configure Cisco Meeting Server integration to Cisco UCM. Which DNS A record must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. Call Bridge
B. SRV
C. Conference Name
D. Cisco UCM Subscriber

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213821-configure-and-integratecms-single-combi.html

QUESTION 14

Which type of zone should be configured on the Expressway-C to route calls to Cisco Meeting Server spaces?

A. ENUM
B. DNS
C. traversal
D. neighbor

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

A corporation must configure Cisco TelePresence Management Suite Extension for Microsoft Exchange for users to
schedule meetings with Outlook. What must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. Cisco UCM endpoints
B. a client certificate and password to interact with Active Directory
C. Room mailboxes dedicated for the use of TelePresence scheduling
D. Cisco TMS provisioning extension

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button
under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?
A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two common sources of interface for WI-FI networks? (Choose two.)
A. radar
B. LED lights
C. rogue AP
D. conventional oven
E. fire alarm
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 350-401 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server?
A. syslog level errors and less severity messages
B. syslog level errors messages
C. all syslog levels messages
D. syslog level errors and greater severity messages
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which statement about a fabric access point is true?
A. It is in local mode an must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
C. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?
A. CISCO-DNA-CONTROlLLER.local
B. CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.local
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?
A. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server.
B. It is no supported on Cisco devices.
C. It required certificates for authentication.
D. It is used for HTTP and HTTPs requests.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key
Management fast roaming is true?
A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect
access points.
B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key
Management.
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is
supported.
D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
Correct Answer: A
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-DesignGuide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/ch7_HREA.html

QUESTION 8
Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type 2 hypervisor?
A. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS.
B. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it.
C. Type 1 hypervisor relics on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network
resources.
D. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 350-401 exam questions-q9

Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding.
The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An
engineer enters the spanning- tree port-priority 32 command on GO/1 on SW2. but the port remains blocked.
Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Lmk2 to resolve the issue?
A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1.
B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1.
C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2.
D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?
A. Mismatched OSPF network type
B. Mismatched areas
C. Mismatched MTU size
D. Mismatched OSPF link costs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)
A. TCP window size
B. TCP MSS
C. IP MTU
D. DF bit clear
E. MTU ignore
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?
A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URI.
/dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project
What does the code mean?
A. The client made a request a resource that does not exist.
B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request.
C. The request accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed.
D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, Information about the resource is in the
response body.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Pattern Give the candidate 120 minutes and they must resolve 90 – 110 questions during this time. The syllabus is predetermined and any applicant with a score of more than 70% (700 points) is eligible for certification.
Examination fee Some candidates have special discounts.
Job ProspectsWired and wireless network work.
It Professional
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Syllabus Protocols and APIs 12%
Infrastructure and Quality of Services 10%
Call Control and Dial plan 20%
Endpoints, User Management, and Mobility 10%
Edge Services 16%
Media Resources, Meetings, and Call Recording 12%
Collaboration Applications 10%
Evolving Technologies v1.1 10%
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Study Material Exam Resources
Evolving Technologies Study Resources
CCIE Collaboration Learning Matrix v2.0
Evolving Technology v1.1 Learning Matrix

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Latest 400-051 Practice Questions for Your Cisco CCIE Collaboration Written Certification Exam

QUESTION 1

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. The snippet is part of a PRT log from a jabber for windows user who is unable to login via Mobile
and Remote Access (MRA).which is the root cause of this issue?
A. The Expressway-E certificate is self-signed.
B. _collab-edge_tls.abc.com DNS SRV record is not created in the external DNS server.
C. The Expressway-E is reachable on port 8443 but it rejects the connection due to client -side certificate issue.
D. The user is trying to login from internal company network.
E. The Expressway-E is not reachable on port 8443 due to firewall or network connectivity issue.
Correct Answer: E
 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q2

A network engineer is troubleshooting a NTP synchronized issue in CUCM. Why is NTP unsynchronized?
A. The NTP server used is a Windows based NTP server.
B. The IOS Command NTP server 172.25.140.151 version 3 is advertising NTPv3.
C. The NTP server stratum is higher than four.
D. A firewall is blocking NTP port 123.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching?
A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Answer-address
E. Incoming called-number
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two file transfer protocols are used to send Call Detail Record flat files to third-party billing servers? (Choose
two.)
A. SCP
B. SFTP
C. TFTP
D. FTP
E. SOAP/HTTPS
F. FTP over SSL
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which dial peer will be selected as the incoming dial-peer?

Pass4itsure 400-051 exam questions-q5-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which set of information is replaced when Global Dial Plan Replication is configured?
A. Local and learned directory URIs, enterprise alternate numbers,+E.164 numbers, and SIP route patterns throughout
ILS network.
B. Local and learned directory URIs, route partitions, directory numbers, and calling search space.
C. Local and learned directory URIs, enterprise alternate numbers,+E.164 numbers, and number patterns throughout
ILS network.
D. Local and learned directory URIs, translation patterns, +E.164 numbers, and route patterns throughout ILS network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Company ABC is deploying Mobile and Remote and Remote Access (MRA) to allow employees to login jabber clients
from anywhere on the internet.
What is the first DNS query a jabber client attempts to resolve from outside of the corporate network?
A. DNS A record for _cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com
B. DAS SRV record for _cuplogin._tcp.abc.com
C. DAS SRV record for _ cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com
D. DNS SRV record for _cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com
E. DNS A record for _collab-edge._tls.abc.com
F. DNS SRV record for _ collab-edge._tls.abc.com G) DNS A record for the Expressway-E FQDN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco IOS-EX dial-peer command has the lowest preference for inbound SIP dial-peer matching?
A. Answer-address
B. Destination-pattern
C. Incoming URI to
D. Incoming called-number
E. Incoming called-number e164-pattern-map
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which 802.11e user priority value maps to Per Hop Behavior (PHB) CS3 for classification of voice and video control
traffic?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 5
E. 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When a SIP INMTE destined to [email protected] arrives at a Cisco Meeting Server (CMS), which part of the
Request-URI will CMS use to route the call?
A. [email protected]
B. outbound calls rules
C. sip:[email protected]
D. [email protected]
E. Cciecollab.com
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Assuming all route patterns below are configured on a Cisco UCM, which route pattern will be matched when a user
dials 2001?
A. 200[^2-4]configured with urgent priority
B. 200[1-4] configured with nonurgent priority
C. 200x configured with urgent priority
D. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority
E. 200! Configured with urgent priority.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Company ABC is deploying Mobile and Remote and Remote Access (MRA) to allow employees to login jabber clients
from anywhere on the internet.
Which HTTPS request does a jabber client send after it successfully establishes a secured connection with a Cisco
Expressway-E?
A. get_cucm_uds
B. get_user_config
C. get_services_config
D. get_edge_config
E. get_jabber-config
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two types of patterns are always nonurgent in Cisco Unified Communications Manager version 11.0 (Choose
two.)
A. Voice Mail Directory Number
B. Remote Destination Directory Number
C. Voice Mail Pilot
D. Hunt Pilot
E. Route Pattern
F. Translation Pattern
Correct Answer: AC

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Exam D
QUESTION 1
An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower
B. FireSIGT
C. WSA
D. ASA
300-210 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Which cloud-based malware detection engine uses machine-learning detection techniques in the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection cloud?
A. third-party detections
B. Spero
C. Ethos
D. Memcache
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 3
which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy
B. rule header
C. Rule assignment and ports
D. rule options
E. Rule footer
300-210 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true’? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats.
B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time.
C. It supports granular application policies.
D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches.
E. It supports local content caching.
F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 5
When creating an SSL policy on Cisco FirePOWER, which three options do you have
A. do not decrypt
B. trust
C. allow
D. block with reset
E. block
F. encrypt
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent
B. routed
C. passive
D. inline set
E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which two statement about Cisco Firepower file and intrusion inspection under control policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. File inspection occurs before intrusion prevention.
B. Intrusion Inspection occurs after traffic is blocked by file type.
C. File and intrusion drop the same packet.
D. Blocking by file type takes precedence over malware inspection and blocking
E. File inspection occurs after file discovery
300-210 vce Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding
B. rate-limiting
C. limiting
D. correlation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its ports and IP addresses?
A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4 Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy
300-210 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 10
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
What is the maximum message size that the Cisco Email Security Appliance will accept from the violet.public domain?
A. 1 KB
B. 100 KB
C. 1 MB
D. 10 MB
E. 100 MB
F. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
B. reduced space and power requirements
C. outbound message protection
D. automated administration
300-210 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition.
B. Database sync time is reduced.
C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances.
D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. WHITELIST
B. BLACKLIST
C. UNKNOWNLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to deploy a virtual cisco ESA and wants protection against email-based threats, email encryption, and clustering. Which software license bundle must the network engineer purchase to access these components?
A. cisco email security Premium
B. cisco email security Hybrid Essential
C. cisco email security advansed
D. cisco email security Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Email Security Premium Boundle: Antispam scanning, Sophos Antivirus solution, Virus Outbreack filtres,DLP Compliance, Email encryption, CLustering

QUESTION 15
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an ICAP-capable proxy server
B. a PKI certificate server
C. an HTTP server
D. an HTTPS server
300-210 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco technology is a customizable web-based alerting service designed to report threats and vulnerabilities?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service
C. Cisco Security Optimization Service
D. Cisco Software Application Support Service
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 17
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000.
B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds.
C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled.
D. Events Summarization is globally disabled.
E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled.
300-210 exam Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 18
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
Which signature definition is virtual sensor 0 assigned to use?
A. rules0
B. vs0
C. sig0
D. ad0
E. ad1
F. sigl
300-210 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is the default signature.
You can create multiple security policies and apply them to individual virtual sensors. A security policy is made up of a signature definition policy, an event action rules policy, and an anomaly detection policy. Cisco IPS contains a default signature definition policy called sig0, a default event action rules policy called rules0, and a default anomaly detection policy called ad0. You can assign the default policies to a virtual sensor or you can create new policies.

QUESTION 20
Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access?
A. Port 23
B. Port 25
C. Port 22
D. Port 443
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
An ASA with an IPS module must be configured to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and block all traffic if the module fails. Which describes the correct configuration?
A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic
B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic
C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic
D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which three options are valid event actions for a Cisco IPS? (Choose three.)
A. deny-packet-inline
B. deny-attack-reset
C. produce-verbose-alert
D. log-attacker-packets
E. deny-packet-internal
F. request-block-drop-connection
300-210 vce Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 24
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos- net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
300-210 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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1. During a BlackBerry MVS installation, an MVS administrator is prompted to enter a MVS Data Manager Hostname or IP Address. Which IP Address value should this be? (Choose one.)
A. PBX
B. Serverwhere MVS is being installed
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Configuration Database server
210-250 exam Answer: B

2.A European company has integrated its Avaya Communication Manager to the AudioCodes Mediant Gateway with an E1 interface. Which E1 signaling protocol is required.? (Choose one.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. QSIG
D. 5ESS
Answer: C

3. If the MVS BlackBerry Enterprise Server Connector is NOT started, what effect will this have on BlackBerry MVS Services? (Choose one.)
A. Incoming MVS calls will be available
B. Outgoing MVS calls will be available
C. Message Waiting Indicator will be disabled
D. MVS work line will be unregistered
210-250 dumps Answer:D

4. A BlackBerry MVS customer needs to provision a group of BlackBerry MVS users so they will be able to use BlackBerry MVS in a Voice over Wi-Fi only mode. Which two tasks should the MVS administrator perform to provide the customer with this capability? (Choose two.)
A. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set When Wi-Fi is unavailable, use Mobile to NO
B. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set Default line for outgoing calls to Voice over Wi-Fi
C. Within the Class of Service configuration, select the VoWi-Fi check box
D. Within the Class of Service configuration, disable User may change the default network for BlackBerry MVS calls
E. Within the Class of Service configuration, enable User may change the default network for BlackBerry MVS calls
Answer: A,D

5.An IP-to-IP solution has just been configured. There are two Proxy Sets in the configuration. What two entities do the Proxy Sets represent? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerryMVS Server
B. BlackBerryDispatcher
C. Vendor Media Gateway
D. Vendor IP PBX
E. BlackBerry Router
210-250 pdf Answer: A,D

6.What is the minimum number of BlackBerry MVS Servers needed to support 14,000 users in a High Availability environment? (Choose one.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

7. A customer with an Avaya PBX infrastructure is interested in purchasing BlackBerry MVS. The customer needs to deploy BlackBerry MVS using a TDM configuration. The PBX environment includes the Avaya components listed below.
Avaya S8730 Media Server configured for High Availability
Avaya Communication Manager 5.2
Avaya G650 Media Gateways
Which component does the customer need to facilitate the BlackBerry MVS integration? (Choose one.)
A. Dialogic Media Gateway
B. AudioCodes Mediant Gateway
C. Avaya Aura Session Manager
D. Avaya SIP Enablement Server
210-250 vce Answer: B

8.When an external caller calls an MVS user, the MVS user’s BlackBerry smartphone fails to ring. The MVS user is provisioned for BlackBerry device-initiated calling. What is the likely cause of this failure? (Choose one.)
A. DTMF digits were rejected by the PBX as an invalid number
B. BlackBerry MVS Client did not create the call request
C. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the proper ANI number
D. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the call request
Answer: D

9. DTMF tones are blocked from reaching the SIP Gateway. How will this affect MVS users? (Choose one.)
A. Calls over the Wi-Fi network will fail
B. Calls over the mobile network will fail
C. BlackBerry MVS Client will show as unregistered
D. DTMF tones will not be recognized on a conference bridge
210-250 exam Answer: B

10. What is the way to test the Add Participant to a Call feature for an individual MVS user without impacting existing users if most features are disabled during installation? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new template
B. Create a new Feature Set
C. Create a new Class of Service
D. Create a new Telephony Connector
Answer: C

11. Before you can run custom Health and Service Level Reports, you need to make sure that: (Choose four)
A. Report log files have been updated.
B. Service Profiles have been configured.
C. Groups and Groups Lists arepopulated.
D. User Permissions have been configured.
E. The Database is set up and is operational.
F. Correct report definitions have been created.
210-250 dumps Answer: B,C,D,E

12. In Report Center, which users are considered super users.?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

13.Which report type can you drill down to from an At-a-Glance report?
A. TopN
B. Trend
C. Health
D. Service Level
210-250 pdf Answer: B

14.Which command do you use to open the OneClick for eHealth console only?
A. ehealth -h
B. ehealth -oce
C. ehealth -once
D. ehealth -motif
Answer: B

15.Which statement about using Oracle with CA eHealth is TRUE?
A. CA eHealth supports the use of a remote Oracle database.
B. All versions of CA eHealth now use the Oracle double-byte software.
C. A database can be on a mapped or mounted drive with high-speed connectivity.
D. You can use Oracle or other after-market tools to back up the CA eHealth database.
210-250 vce Answer: C

16. In an HTML 4.0-compliant browser, how is a radio button field displayed within a form?
A. A radio button is displayed as a small box.
B. A radio button is displayed as a small round button.
C. A radio button is displayed as a button with a text label inside it.
D. A radio button is displayed as a blinking series of numbers in a box.
Answer: B

17. At which level of the OSI reference model does a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) operate?
A. The physical layer
B. The network layer
C. The application layer
D. The transport layer
210-250 exam Answer:A

18. Which e-commerce protocol is defined as a standard protocol used on the Internet to secure online credit card payments?
A. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
B. Secure Electronic Transactions (SET)
C. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Answer: B

19. A user at her workstation cannot reach any host on the Internet using ping, yet she can ping all the file and print servers on her local LAN. You investigate the problem and discover that one of the following configuration parameters is missing. Which parameter is missing?
A. The default gateway
B. The IP address
C. The subnet mask
D. The DHCP server address
210-250 dumps Answer:A

20. Consider the following HTML code: In this code, what does the hash symbol (#) mean?
A. FaceMap is an image map defined on another page within your Web site.
B. Use the FaceMap image as an image map with default coordinates.
C. FaceMap is an image map defined within the same HTML file.
D. Apply the coordinates defined in a tag to the FaceImage.gif graphic.
Answer: C

21. What is the purpose of the session layer (Layer 5) of the OSI reference model?
A. Establish, manage and terminate connections
B. Forward and route datagrams to their destinations
C. Interface with the end user
D. Provide reliable transparent transport between source and destination hosts
210-250 pdf Answer:A

22. The Internet’s structure is characterized by:
A. a single host with multiple connections.
B. multiple hosts, each with a single conection to the Web.
C. decentralized control throughout the network.
D. a central hub that reduces the chances of total network failure.
Answer: C

23. Evan added a new image to the company Web site. The image is too large, relative to other items on the page. Which tag attributes should Evan use to reduce the image size to 300 by 300 pixels?
A. LENGTH=”300″ SIZE=”300″
B. DIMENSION=”300″ “300”
C. WIDTH=”300″ SIZE=”300″
D. WIDTH=”300″ HEIGHT=”300″
210-250 vce Answer: D

24. What is the key difference between Java and JavaScript?
A. Java is a more complicated scripting language, intended for senior developers.
B. Java is an object-oriented programming language, whereas JavaScript is an object-based scripting language.
C. JavaScript is a more complicated language, intended for senior developers.
D. JavaScript is an object-oriented programming language, whereas Java is an object-based scripting language.
Answer: B

25. According to the HTML 4.0 Recommendation, an HTML tag can consist of several items, all of which are contained within angle brackets (). The main instruction of an HTML tag is usually contained in which item?
A. Element
B. Attribute
C. Value
D. Code
210-250 exam Answer:A

26. Lucinda developed a Web site that uses Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) exclusively to define the pages?layout instructions. Which lavor?of the Lucinda developed a Web site that uses Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) exclusively to define the pages?layout instructions. Which ?lavor?of the HTML 4.0 Recommendation did Lucinda use for her site?
A. Frameset
B. Strict
C. Transitional
D. Loose
Answer: B

27. Hackers from a certain organization repeatedly attack your Web servers. Your manager wants you to implement a firewall that blocks all connections from that organization. Which type of firewall should you implement to protect your Web servers?
A. Packet-filtering firewall
B. Application gateway
C. Network Address Translation firewall
D. Proxy server firewall
210-250 dumps Answer:A

28. Which of the following is an Apple QuickTime file name extension?
A. .eps
B. .jpg
C. .mov
D. .mp3
Answer: C

29. Which of the following best describes the functionality of Extensible Markup Language (XML)?
A. Creates static Web documents and describes visual layout
B. Creates animation and interaction in Web documents
C. Creates content validation in Web documents
D. Creates a language to define context in Web documents
210-250 pdf Answer: D

30. Which protocol operates at the network layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Ethernet
C. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Answer:A

31. What is a cookie?
A. An executable file placed on a computers hard drive by a Web site to gather information about the computer user preferences .
B. A security directory on a computer hard drive that can accept or reject downloads from a Web site.
C. A text file that is initially sent from a Web site to a client computer, used to collect information from the client
D. An alert dialog box that warns you when marketing information is placed on your computer by a Web site
210-250 vce Answer: C

32. Management has complained that the employee contact lists are not synchronized and that employees are spending too much time updating their e-mail lists. You must suggest a solution to this problem. Which server would be part of the solution?
A. Web server
B. SQL server C. Directory server
D. Catalog server
Answer: C

33. Which connection medium operates at a maximum speed of 44.736 Mbps?
A. ISDN
B. DSL
C. T3 line
D. T1 line
210-250 exam Answer: C

34. A circuit-level gateway is one type of:
A. firewall.
B. e-commerce payment application.
C. intrusion-detection software.
D. port.
Answer:A

35. Which choice best describes half-duplex data transmission?
A. Data travels in only one direction.
B. Data travels in two directions, but only one direction at a time.
C. Data travels in two directions simultaneously, but only at half speed.
D. Data travels in two directions simultaneously.
210-250 dumps Answer: B

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Question No : 30  Which three configuration sections are required on service provider PE routers to enable IPv4 Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three.)
A. Configure route distinguishers that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes.
B. Configure at least one interface that is assigned to a customer link asa member of the VRF.
C. Configure the VPNv4 address-family under the MP-BGP configurationmode on the PE routers that participate in the customer VRF routing.
D. Configure route targets that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes
E. Advertise customer routes to all PE routers by configuring the IPv4address-family under the MP-BGP configuration mode.
F. Implement MPLS for all customer-facing links.
400-201 exam 
Answer: B,C,D

Question No : 31  When IPv6 is enabled on an interface, which three multicast addresses does the configured interface automatically join? (Choose three.)
A. FF01::2
B. FEC0::1
C. FF02:0:0:0:0:1:FF00::/104
D. FF02::1
E. FF01::1
F. FF02::2
G. FF02::D
H. FF02::5
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 32  An engineer is deploying SSHv2 only in band access. Which three options reflect the minimum configuration to enable the SSHv2 services on Cisco routers? (Choose three)
A. Add router hostname on DNS services.
B. Define a hostname for the device.
C. Define a domain name for the device.
D. Create an access list that defines authorized hosts for SSH.
E. Create crypto keys by using the crypto key generate dsa command.
F. Configure a key modulus in the global configuration.
400-201 dumps 
Answer: B,C,E

Question No : 33  A service provider is running a single area OSPFv2 instance in the MPLS network. The OSPF re-convergence time is becoming excessively slow as the service provider MPLS network grows. Which two action can improve network performance without implementing a multi area design? (Choose two).
A. Configure incremental SFP
B. Reduce type 5 LSAs
C. Implement Partial Route Computation
D. Limit number of TVLs
E. Enable LSA group pacing
Answer: A,E

Question No : 34
For MPLS inter-AS Option B, how many labels are associated with packet forwarding between the VPNv4 ASBR neighbors?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
400-201 pdf 
Answer: D
LSAs and network LSAs.

Question No : 35  Which information is carried in the OSPFv3 intra-area Prefix LSA?
A. All link-local addresses
B. All IPv6 prefix and topology information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
C. List of options associated with the link to all other routers attached to the link
D. All prefix-specific information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
Answer: D
Explanation:
OSPFv3’s new LSA, the Intra-area Prefix LSA (type 9), handles intra-area network information that was previously included in OSPFv2 type 2 LSAs. It is used in order to advertise one or more IPv6 prefixes. The prefixes are associated with router segment, stub network segment or transit network segment. Intra-area prefix LSAs (type 9) & Inter-Area Prefix-LSA (type 3) carry all IPv6 prefix information, which, in IPv4, is included in router

Question No : 36
A SP engineering team must design a solution that support end-to-end LSP according to RFC 3107, which solution achieve this
A. LDPandBGP
B. BGP and send Label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
400-201 vce 
Answer: B

Question No : 37 An engineer is implementing an MPLS within the core of the Service Provider network.What two components are required to build the control and data plane for MPLS Label  Switched Paths? (Choose two.)
A. FIB
B. CEF
C. LDP
D. LFIB
E. OSPF
Answer: B,C

Question No : 38
  Which two statements about the bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are true? (Choose two)
A. The bgp deterministic-med command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path length
B. The bgp always-compare command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path system.
C. Enabling the bgp deterministic-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable when choosing routes advertised by different peers in the same autonomous system.
D. Enabling the bgp always-compare-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable for paths from neighbors in different autonomous systems.
E. The bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are enabled by defult.
400-201 exam 
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 39
Given the following data at WORK DEMO:
Which SAS program prints only the first 5 males in this order from the data set?
A.
proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
B.
proc print data=WORK.DEMO(obs=5);
where Sex=’M’;
run;
C.
proc print data=WORK.DEMO(where=(sex=’M’));
where obs<=5;
run;
D.
proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex descending;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 40
Which SAS program will apply the data set label ‘Demographics’ to the data set named DEMO?
A.
data demo (label=’Demographics’);
set demo;
run;
B.
data demo;
set demo
(label=’Demographics’); run;
C.
data demo (label ‘Demographics’);
set demo;
run;
D.
data demo;
set demo;
label demo= ‘Demographics’;
run;
400-201 dumps 
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 41
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sort data=SASUSER.VISIT out=PSORT; by code descending date cost;
run; Which statement is true regarding the submitted program?
A. The descending option applies to the variable CODE.
B. The variable CODE is sorted by ascending order.
C. The PSORT data set is stored in the SASUSER library.
D. The descending option applies to the DATE and COST variables.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 42
What information can be found in the SAS Dictionary tables? (Choose two.)
A. datasets contained within a specified library
B. values contained within a specified format
C. variables contained within a specified dataset
D. values contained within a specified variable
400-201 pdf 
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 43
This question will ask you to provide a line of missing code.
The following SAS program is submitted:

Which statement is required to produce this output?
A. TABLES site*group /nocol;
B. TABLES site*group /norow;
C. TABLES site*group;
D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 44
Which statement correctly adds a label to the data set?
A.
DATA two Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; set one;
run;

B.
DATA two;
Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; set one;
run;
C.
DATA two;
set one;
Label dataset=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; run;
D.
DATA two(Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”); set one;
run;
400-201 vce Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 45
Which program will report all created output objects in the log?
A.
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1 ods=trace;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
B.
ods trace on;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;

run;
C.
ods trace=log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
D.
ods trace log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 46
You want to calculate the p-value of Fisher’s exact test for a 3×3 table. Which option must you add to the TABLES statement of PROC FREQ?
A. CHISQ
B. CMH
C. EXACT
D. EXPECTED
400-201 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 48
Which option for PROC COMPARE will list all observations and variables found in only one of the two data sets being compared?
A. LISTALL
B. OUTALL
C. ALLOBS
D. OUTDIFF
400-201 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 49
Which validation technique involves two programmers writing separate programs to produce the same output, then comparing the result?
A. Independent Programming
B. Peer Matching
C. Identical Programming
D. Peer Review
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 50
A SAS program is submitted and the following log is written. What is the cause of this error message?
A. The ARRAY declaration is syntactically incorrect.
B. The IF statement is syntactically incorrect.
C. The DO loop tries to get a value from a variable which does not exist.
D. The IF statement tries to get ARRAY elements which are not declared.
400-201 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 51
The following SAS program is submitted: If the value for the variable Subjcode is “WGT2”, what is the value of the variable Description?
A. missing character value
B. Unknown
C. Over
D. Wgt2
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52
Given two data sets with the following variables: Why is the blue note showing in the log?
A. The variable VISIT occurs in both data sets but is not included in the BY statement.
B. There are no observations with matching values for SUBJID in either data set.
C. There are multiple observations with the same value for SUBJID in both data sets.
D. One of the two data sets has multiple observations with the same value for SUBJID.
400-201 vce Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 53
The following SAS program is submitted, but fails due to syntax errors. What is the cause of the syntax errors?
A. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthExp*).
B. An array can only be referenced in a KEEP statement and not within a keep= data set option.
C. An array cannot be referenced on a keep= data set option.
D. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthExp).
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 54
Given the following data set DEMOG:
Which selection below would be considered hard-coding?
A.
if sexcd eq 1 then sex = “Male” ;
else if sexcd eq 2 then sex = “Female” ;
B.
if site eq 1 then sexcd = 2 ; else
if site eq 2 then sexcd = 1 ;
C.
if site eq 1 and sexcd ne 2 then check = 1 ; else
if site eq 2 and sexcd ne 1 then check = 2 ;
D.
birthdt = input(dob, mmddyy10.) ;
400-201 exam Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 55
Given the file sites.csv: Which option would you need to add to the INFILE statement to clear the notes from this log?
A. firstobs=2
B. missover
C. lrecl=2
D. start=2
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 56
Given the following entry in the SAS log: Which alternate method could you use to?
• Transpose all data
• Not produce a warning message in the log
A. Use PROC TRANSPOSE with a WHERE clause to omit records with missing VISIT values
B. Use PROC COPY with SELECT statements
C. Use PROC DATASETS with SELECT and MODIFY statements
D. Use a DATA step with conditional OUTPUT statements
400-201 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 57
Given the following partial output data set: Which code was used to create AGECAT?
A.
if age <18 then AGECAT=1;
if 18<=AGE<=40 then
AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;
B.
if age <=18 then do AGECAT=1;
else if 18<AGE<=40 then do
AGECAT=2; else do AGECAT=3;
C.
if age <18 then AGECAT=1;
else if 18<=AGE<=40 then
AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;
D.
if age <=18 then AGECAT=1;
else if 18<AGE<=40 then AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 58 Given the following data set (AE): Data will be reported by onset week. Day 1 ?7 is Week 1, Day 8 ?14 is Week 2. Events beyond Day 14 are assigned Week 3 and will be reported as Follow-up events. Which statements properly assign WEEK to each event?
A. if day > 14 then week = 3 ;
else if day > 7 then week = 2
; else if day > 0 then week =
1 ;
B.
if day > 0 then week = 1 ;
else if day > 7 then week = 2 ;
else if day > 14 then week = 3 ;
C.
select ;
when (day > 0) week = 1 ;
when (day > 7) week = 2 ;
otherwise week = 3 ;
end ; D.
select ;
when (day > 14) week = 3 ;
when (day > 7) week = 2 ;
otherwise week = 1 ;
end ;
400-201 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 59
Study day is defined as DCMDATE minus RFSTDTC +1 Which statement will compute the study day correctly without producing notes for missing values in the log?
A. STUDYDAY=DCMDATE-RFSTDTC+1;
B. STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,yymmdd8.)-input(RFSTDTC,date9.)+1;
C. If RFSTDTC^=” and length(DCMDATE)=8 then STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,yymmdd8.)- input(RFSTDTC,date9.)+1;
D. If RFSTDTC^=” and length(DCMDATE)=8 then STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,date9.)- input(RFSTDTC,yymmdd8.)+1;
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 60
A Treatment-Emergent Adverse Event (TEAE) is commonly defined as any event that occurs on or after the date and time of:
A. informed consent
B. baseline assessment
C. study enrollment
D. first dose of study drug
400-201 vce Answer: D
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Question No : 22 What are the three possible BGP failure states? Choose all that apply.
A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle

E. Established
F. Open Sent
G. Open Confirm
400-351 exam Answer: BCD
Question No : 23 What port does BGP communicates on?
A. 161
B. 110
C. 80
D. 179
Answer: D
Question No : 24 What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface? What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 15
D. 0
400-351 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 25 It can be necessary to distribute client certificates to tablets and handhelds in order to connect to:
A. the Internet.
B. cellular networks.
C. encrypted hard drives.
D. Enterprise Wi-Fi or VPN Networks.
Answer: D
Question No : 26 When using the accessibility feature “Magnify Mode “, what action can be taken to quickly remove the magnification?
A. Go to Option -> Accessibility and disable Magnify Mode
B. Pinch with two fingers on the screen to zoom out.
C. Swipe down from the top of the screen with two fingers.
D. Click the center button between the volume keys.
400-351 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 27 What are the categories of files that are available to be synchronized automatically between a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) smartphone and the user’s computer using BlackBerry Link?
A. Music, pictures, Videos
B. Work. Personal
C. Work. Personal, Encrypted
D. Music, pictures, Videos, Documents
Answer: D
Question No : 28 What are the encryption options available when adding an IMAP email account?
A. S/MIME, PGP,TrueCrypt
B. AES,3DES
C. SSL,StartTLS.Off
D. 128-Bit TKIP
400-351 vce Answer: C
Question No : 29  Which of the following BlackBerry Applications enables users to easily migrate to a new BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. BlackBerry Link
B. BlackBerry Desktop software
C. BlackBerry Protect
D. BlackBerry Balance
Answer: A
Question No : 30 What is the share address of the BlackBerry Smartphone internal device storage?
A. //IP Address OfDevice\media
B. //Device Name\storage
C. http://IP Address Of Device:3101
D. smb://lP Address Of Device/shared
400-351 exam Answer: A
Question No : 31 Which of the following is needed to be able to add any new accounts from settings options on a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. NFC radio should be on
B. Battery should be more than 20%
C. Server needs to only have Activesync enabled
D. Wi-Fi should be turned on with access to the host server for which the account is to be added
Answer: D
Question No : 32 All users are no longer able to activate using their Username. Activation Password and SRP. However they are able to use a Fully Qualified Domain Name of the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS). What setting in BlackBerry Administration Service (BAS) would be the most likely cause of this issue?
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher is configured with an Enterprise Proxy
B. Allow activation over BlackBerry infrastructure set to yes
C. Allow activation information to be emailed is set to no
D. Proxy profile is configured to use VPN incorrectly
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Question No : 33 Which password will be required when logging into BlackBerry World for the first time?
A. Perimeter Password
B. BlackBerry ID Password
C. Corporate Password
D. Device Password
Answer: B
Question No : 34 Which of the following is required in order to process an NFC transaction?
A. Both devices should be at least 20cm apart.
B. A valid Wi-Fi connection is necessary.
C. The battery of the BlackBerry 10 device should be 5% or more.
D. Very close proximity or tap of the communicating devices is necessary.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 35 Where on the BlackBerry should an end user be directed to learn the different swipe gestures?
A. About Menu in Device Settings
B. Learn How Menu items in Setup
C. Language and Input in Device Settings
D. The Hub
Answer: B
Question No : 36  What server setting can prevent a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) user from using data services when the smartphone/tablet is using network roaming?
A. Multiple Smartphones/Tablets enabled
B. The Roaming IT policy rule
C. No payment information listed on the server
D. Going over the data usage quota
400-351 vce Answer: B
Question No : 37  Which of the following will allow a BlackBerry end user to set an Activation password or reactivate a BlackBerry device?
A. BlackBerry® Web Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Administration
C. BlackBerry Resource Kit
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A
Question No : 38 Which of the following is NOT a capability of BlackBerry Link?
A. Backup device data
B. Bluetooth Media Sync
C. Software updates
D. NFC Media Sync
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
A customer implements SAP Financials with multiple company codes. They want to manage credit limits for each customer across all company codes collectively. Which master data setup allows this?
A. Create a single credit control area and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
B. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
C. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign a total limit for customers across all company codes.
D. Create a single credit control area and assign a total limit for all customers across all company codes.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
In the evaluation phase, you assess the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution. The leading role here belongs to the virtual account team. This team usually consists of a sales executive, the consulting engagement manager, and the project manager. As well as assessing the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution, what else is the responsibility of the virtual account team in the evaluation phase?
A. To start data migration
B. To check if the customer project resources are trained
C. To submit the preliminary proposal
D. To check if the system is ready to start development
400-351 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
When you activate an SAP Best Practices package in the Solution Builder, BC Sets and eCATTs are run. What is the purpose of using BC Sets and eCATTs in the SAP Best Practices packages?
A. BC Sets and eCATTs are used to import data into each client in the system with a single execution.
B. BC Sets are activated directly to import Customizing contained in the txt files and eCATTs are run to import sample master data.
C. BC Sets and eCATTs are used in the SAP Solution Builder to import transactional data.
D. BC Sets are used to change productive systems and eCATTs are used to change test systems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
What are the SAP-relevant phases for an asset under construction (AuC)? (Choose two)
A. The useful life phase
B. The setup phase
C. The under construction phase
D. The budget phase
E. The planning phase
400-351 pdf Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO:43 A company has been using a Cascade Express-300 Profiler for some time, but has recently started dropping flows as they are overrunning their licensed limit. What is the best course of action if they are considering an upgrade to the next tier of Cascade Profiler? (Select 2)
A. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and stop using their Express.
B. The company can continue to use their Express but must buy a new Cascade Profiler.
C. The Express can be further licensed to capture the currently dropped flows.
D. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler but can use the Express functioning as a remote Cascade Sensor.
E. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and can continue to use their Express but the two Cascade Profilers must be used independent of one another.
F. The company can try to reduce the number of flows being seen by the Express.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
In the traffic reporting tabs on Cascade Profiler, each report-by option has a default template that controls content and formatting of the resulting report. Which of the following is controlled by the default template?
A. Inclusion of a pie chart
B. Inclusion of a flow list
C. Data resolution (1 min, 15 min, 1 hr, etc.)
D. Columns that are included in the summary table
E. Sort order of the summary table
F. All of the above
400-351 vce Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What is one key benefit Cascade provides for Data Center Consolidation Projects?
A. Ability to understand the response time of the Data Center as a whole.
B. Ability to map out the inter-server dependencies between applications in the data center.
C. Ability to map out the intra-server application/process dependencies on a server.
D. Ability to compare WAN Optimization benefits for different versions of Windows Server software
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Under Layer 4 Mappings, the available Application List settings arE. (Select 3)
A. Application Name
B. IP Address
C. Host or Groups
D. Ports
400-351 exam Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
For sampled data in a chart in Cascade Pilot, you can: (Select 2)
A. Change the sampling time to process data after applying a View.
B. See the granularity of a chart after applying a View.
C. Define the sampling time before applying a View, and it will be the only one used to represent data.
D. Increase the data granularity by reducing the size of the selected time window.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what best describes a Dashboard?
A. A set of graphs showing top interfaces, top hosts, top users, and top protocols from which you can run reports.
B. A configurable set of content blocks for watched and top items (items including hosts, network  interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
C. A configurable set of connection graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports
D. A configurable set of fixed logarithmic graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the maximum number of 10G ports that a Cascade Sensor can support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. Unlimited
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
If there are multiple network devices reporting flow data to Cascade and two devices report flow records for the same TCP connection, what will Cascade report?
A. The traffic will be double counted.
B. Cascade will discard one of the flow records.
C. If both flows types are the same (e.g. NetFlow) Cascade will de-duplicate the records but if they are of different flow types, one record will be discarded.
D. Cascade will de-duplicate and consolidate the flow records regardless of source and flow type.
E. This is not possible.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which component of Cascade can be used with a Cascade Express Profiler?
A. Standard or Enterprise Profiler
B. Gateways
C. Sensor
D. Shark
E. Sensor-VE
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
How do you set the time zone of a Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the Basic Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
B. From the Advanced Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
C. With the CLI command “set timezone”.
D. From the Settings menu of Cascade Pilot.
400-351 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION 100
200-355 dumps

200-355 exam Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

QUESTION 101
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

QUESTION NO: 102
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET] Framework 3.5. You need to represent a strongly typed lambda expression as a data structure in the form of an expression tree. Which of the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MethodCallExpression
B. Expression(TDelegate)
C. Expression
D. LambdaExpression
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 103
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You create an assembly. You place the assembly in a specific folder. Which of the following classes can you use to determine whether the assembly was located in a specific folder? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. UrlMembershipCondition
B. ApplicationDirectoryMembershipCondition
C. GacMembershipCondition
D. SiteMembershipCondition
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 104
John works as a Software Developer for CyberTech Inc. He creates an ASP .NET page named BookItemList.aspx, which displays a price list of computer books. Registered users have to first log on to the company’s Web site in order to view the current price list of different computer books available on the Web site. Users want to maintain the page requests as long as they are accessing the Web page. John wants to ensure that whenever the Web page BookItemList.aspx is posted back to the server, the price list should not be changed on the registered user’s computer. He also wants to validate the page sent back to the server. Which of the following actions will John take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to false.
B. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to true.
C. Set the EnableViewState attribute to true.
D. Set the EnableViewState attribute to false.
200-355 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 105
Patrick works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. He implements security using the security classes of the .NET Framework. He defines the following statements in the application: PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm1 = new PrincipalPermission(“Nick”, “General Manager”);
PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm2 = new PrincipalPermission(“Jack”, “Accountant”);
Patrick wants to check whether all demands that succeed for Principal_Perm1 also succeed for Principal_Perm2. Which of the following methods of the PrincipalPermission class will he use to accomplish this?
A. Intersect
B. IsSubSetOf
C. IsUnrestricted
D. Union
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application named App1 using Visual Basic .NET. App1 uses a non-COM DLL named Value1.dll, which contains unmanaged code. Sam writes a method named Method1 in Value1.dll as follows: Method1 Lib “Value1.dll”(ByVal InputVar As String, ByRef WordsVar As String, ByRef NumbersVar As Integer) As Integer Sam wants to use Method1 for parsing a string into an array of string values and an array of integers. Sam wants to enable App1 to call this function. Which of the following statements about the method are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The value of the first parameter cannot be changed by a procedure or a function.
B. The second parameter will contain all string values found in the first parameter.
C. The third parameter will contain all integer values found in the second parameter.
D. The third parameter will contain all string values found in the second parameter.
200-355 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 107
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You need to write a code segment that transfers the contents of a byte array named ToSend by using a NetworkStream object named NetStr. You want to use a cache of size only 8,192 bytes. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); NetStr.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) MStream.Length);
B. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, 8192);
C. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr, 8192); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, ToSend.Length);
D. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); MStream.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) NetStr.Length);
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 108
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95’. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
200-355 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 110
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 111
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert(); A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
200-355 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 113
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application uses serialization to allow users to take an instance of an object and convert it into a format that can be easily transmittable over the network or even stored in a database. You want to provide the base functionality for the common language runtime serialization formatters. Which of
the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. SoapFormatter
B. FormatterConverter
C. Formatter
D. BinaryFormatter
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 114
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates an ASP.NET page, named Page1, for a college Web site. Page1 is used to enroll new applicants to a certification course offered by the college. In order to get admission to the course, an applicant’s age must between eighteen and twenty-five. The page contains several TextBox controls that are used by
applicants to feed their personal details. The data entered by each applicant is then used to check the eligibility of the applicant. One of the TextBox controls on the page is named txtDateofBirth. Sam wants to verify that the applicants meet the age requirement. He wants to perform validation both on the server-side and on the client-side. In order to validate the age, he adds a CustomValidator control, named CValidator, to the page and sets its ControlToValidate property to txtDateofBirth. Which of the following will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ClientValidationFunction event
B. ServerValidate property
C. ServerValidate event
D. ClientValidationFunction property
200-355 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 115
You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework. The application is installed in a Network Load Balancing cluster. You are evaluating a bug statement. When a failure takes place in the Web application, the client occasionally gets an error page as anticipated. At other times, the client gets an exception stack with the error message, which is not anticipated. You are required to find out the configuration setting that causes the unanticipated error. Which of the following configuration settings causes the unanticipated error?
A. <customErrors mode=”Off” />
B. <compilation debug=”false” />
C. <compilation debug=”true” />
D. <customErrors mode=”On” />
Answer: A
 

 

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Question No : 1 Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
648-244 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Question No : 2 Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Question No : 3 What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
648-244 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 4  Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 5 What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
648-244 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 6  How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 7 Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
648-244 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 8 Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 9 Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server?(Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
648-244 exam Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 10 Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Question No : 11 How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
648-244 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 12 When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 13 Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
648-244 pdf Answer: C,E
Question No : 14 What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 15 What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based
servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
648-244 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 16 Which two statements would lead you to use a mixed Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with physical and virtual machines instead of a fully virtualized deployment? (Choose two.)
A. when migrating from a physical to a virtual deployment
B. when inter virtual machine traffic should be switched with Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. when using MOH audio live-stream devices
D. when you want to use direct-attached Fibre Channel SAN devices
E. when you need remote access to the BIOS setup
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Question No : 17 Why should you use the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in addition to your design solution that you did manually?
A. this is not necessary if the DocWiki guidelines for virtualized Cisco Unified Communications are followed
B. to distribute and place the virtual machines automatically in the optimized way
C. to calculate CPU and memory utilization
D. to select the optimized OVA template for the deployment
648-244 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 18  When designing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how many MOH Unicast streams are supported per server when streaming is colocated?
A. 48
B. 128
C. 250
D. 256
E. 500
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 19 When designing a virtualized Cisco Unity Connection deployment, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. configure CPU affinity for Cisco Unity Connection
B. reserve an unused core per Cisco Unity Connection virtual machine
C. reserve an unused core per host server
D. iLBC codec selection reduces the number of ports by 75 percent
E. a Cisco Unity Connection cluster supports up to 40,000 users
648-244 dumps Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Question No : 20 How many coresident applications can be hosted on a Cisco UCS C200 M2 server when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: B
Explanation:

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