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cisco CCDP 300-320 Online Exam Practice Questions

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QUESTION 1
An OSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors?
A. 100
B. 80
C. 60
D. 50
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What two features are inherent advantages of MPLS VPN services? (Choose two.)
A. service providers can provide additional services
B. virtual private networks segment traffic and ensure privacy
C. easier to troubleshoot than Layer 2 WAN technologies
D. faster data transfer speeds at lower costs
E. functions without Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 3
Two companies want to merge their OSPF networks, but they run different OSPF domains. Which option must be
created to accomplish this requirement?
A. OSPF virtual link to bridge the backboneareas of the two companies together
B. Area on the ASBR of each company with the same area ID to bridge the networks together
C. redistribute routes between domains
D. NSSA on the ASBR of each company
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will result in the most efficient
use of which technology?
A. Layer 3 switching in the core
B. Network Admission Control (NAC)
C. IP telephony (voice and video) services
D. ACLs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is designing an address plan based on network applications. Which application presents the
greatest need for its own address block?
A. IP telephony
B. management
C. multicast
D. physical security
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer wants to ensure that common services communicate to several applications in various EPGs. Which two
features within Cisco ACI accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. filter
B. contract
C. application profile
D. bridge domain
E. tenant
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 7
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco NAC Appliance design is the most scalable in large Layer 2-to-distribution implementation?
A. Layer 2 out-of-band
B. Layer 2 in-band
C. Layer 3 out-of-band
D. Layer 3 in-band
Correct Answer: B
https://www.safaribooksonline.com/library/view/foundation-learning-guide/9780132652933/ch08.html “Layer 2 In-Band
Designs The Layer 2 in-band topology is the most common deployment option.
[…]
This is the most scalable design in large L2-to-distribution environments, because this design can be transparently
implemented in the existing network supporting multiple access layer switches. It supports all network infrastructure
equipment. The Cisco NAS supports per- user ACLs.”

 

QUESTION 9
Which three options are benefits of using VRFs within an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplifies configuration and troubleshooting
B. enables partitioning of network resources
C. enhances security between user groups
D. provides additional redundancy at Layer 3
E. allows for routing and forwarding separation
F. improves routing protocol convergence
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 10
OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when
utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)
A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area
E. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 11
A large-scale IP SLA deployment is causing memory and CPU shortages on the routers in an enterprise network. Which
solution can be implemented to mitigate these issues? (E)
A. An offline router for disaster recovery
B. a CPE device that is managed by the network provider
C. A shadow router
D. A standby router for failover operation
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which technology can block ports to provide a loop-free topology and does not contain a port state named “listening?”
A. VLAN
B. RPVST+
C. VSS
D. STP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which three virtualization categories are in campus networks? (Choose three.)
A. Layer 2 virtualization
B. Layer 3 clustering
C. network virtualization
D. device virtualization
E. network clustering
F. device clustering
Correct Answer: CDF

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 476

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QUESTION 14
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network
engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause
the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose
three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30

C. 70
D. 20
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE
to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the
next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being
sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
300-101 vce Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
300-101 exam Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
300-101 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
300-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

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