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QUESTION 40
Which statement(s) are correct about the DOE Factorial plot output here? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

A. Two factors were operated at 3 levels each
B. The highest tool age was achieved with metal hardness at high level while keeping the cutting speed at the low level
D. The cutting speed and cutting angle are at the low level for the least tool age achieved
E. All factors had 2 levels in the experiment

QUESTION 41
Which statement(s) are incorrect for the Regression Analysis shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
B. The Regression explains over 98% of the process variation
C. This Multiple Linear Regression has three statistically significant independent variables
D. If the air-fuel ratio increases by 1, the TurbineOutput more than triples
E. The SteamExitTemp explains the most variation of the TurbineOutput

Which statement(s) are most correct for the Regression Analysis shown here?

A. The Regression explains 50.8% of the process variation
B. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
C. This Simple Linear Regression explains 98+% of the process variation
D. This Multiple Linear Regression has four statistically significant independent variables

QUESTION 43
A valid mathematical Regression represents all of the characteristics shown except ___________________________.
A. The residuals when plotted follow a Normal Distribution
B. The sum of the residuals is zero
C. All of the standardized residuals will be within ±3 Standard Deviations
D. Most standardized residuals are within ±2 Standard Deviations

QUESTION 44
When a Belt conducts a Linear Correlation Analysis and finds that as an X increases the Y also increase then he has proven a ______________ correlation.
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Monomial
D. Single alignment

QUESTION 45
A valid Multiple Linear Regression (MLR) is characterized by all of these except _______________________.
A. It is an assumption that the X’s (inputs) are not correlated to each other
B. The X’s (inputs) are assumed to be independent of each other
C. MLR is conducted based on a deliberate form of experimentation
D. The Residuals from MLR analysis have to be Normally Distributed

Which statement is NOT correct about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?

A. The independent variable is the reactant
B. If the reactant was 6 units, with 95 % confidence we would expect a minimum yield of 100 units
C. With at least 95% confidence, we can expect less than 10 units of Yield when the reactant is at a value of 1
D. A reactant value between 2 and 4 units yields around 20 to 40
E. When the reactant increases, the expected yield would increase

QUESTION 47
When doing Hypothesis Testing on Non-normal data Belts will use a ________________ to compare more than two sample proportions to each other.
A. Z score Table
B. Sakami Table
C. Mean-to-Mode Analysis
D. Contingency Table
It would be more likely than not for a Belt conducting a Regression Analysis to find that the _______________________.
A. r2 value is smaller than the absolute value of r
B. Correlation Coefficient equals r2
C. Coefficient of Determination is less than r2
D. Correlation Coefficient equals r divided by 2

When a Belt properly analyzes the results of an experiment he must examine the Residuals in expectation of finding all of the following except _________.
A. Some Residuals higher than others
B. Some Residuals lower than others
C. All Residuals within 2 Standard Deviations of the Mean
D. Residuals will represent a Linear Regression

Which statement(s) are correct about the Regression shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. The dependent variable is the outside temperature
B. The relationship between outside temperature and number of customers per hour is a Linear Regression
C. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence where all of the process data should fall between
D. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence the estimate for the Quadratic Regression Line
E. The predicted number of customers per hour is close to 5 if the outside temperature is 10 deg C

QUESTION 51
Which of these might contribute to similar distributions having Unequal Variance?
A. Extreme tails
B. Outliers
C. Multiple Modes
D. All of the above

QUESTION 52
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to \$4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of \$4,060, and a Standard Deviation of \$98 was estimated. Select the answer that best states the Practical Problem.
A. If the average cost per component is \$4,200 or less, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
B. If the average cost per component is greater than \$4,200, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
C. Only if the average cost per product upgrade is \$4,060, will the purchase manager introduce new product upgrades with new components.
D. If the average cost per new product upgrade is less than \$180, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.

QUESTION 53
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to \$4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of \$4,060, and a Standard Deviation of \$98 was estimated. The Alternative Hypothesis in the above example is?
A. The Standard Deviation is equal to \$300.
B. The Mean is less than \$4,320.
C. The Mean is equal to \$4,060.
D. The Mean is less than \$4,200.
E. The Mean is greater than \$ 4,200.

QUESTION 54
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to \$3,600 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 42 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of \$3,200 and a Standard Deviation of \$180 was estimated. Based on the data provided, the Z value for the data assuming a Normal Distribution is?
A. 1.11
B. 2.22
C. 4.30
D. 5.42

QUESTION 55
Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Sally motivates Sara mentioning that they will sell a minimum of 15 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample, whose population

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QUESTION 26
The Lean toolbox includes all of these items except ________________.
A. Mistake Proofing
B. Visual Factory
C. Design of Experiments
D. Inventory Management

Questions that can be best answered by a Visual Factory include all of these except _____________________.
A. Are downtime issues easily noted?
B. Can extra inventory be seen easily?
C. Are unneeded tools or supplies easily noted?
D. Are setups optimized for lower scrap levels?

If a Six Sigma project was to reduce repair station inventory and the team found the inventory was creeping up over time which Lean tools should be considered in the Control Phase to reestablish and sustain the project success?
A. Review the Visual Factory to assure inventory in excess of desired visible
B. Improve the lighting to assure adequate visibility
C. Analyze data from supplier deliveries
D. Reword the standardized work instructions to use active verbs and not passive phrases

When a Belt implements an improvement that is automated thus requiring no particular understanding for use he has applied which Lean tool?
A. Mistake Proofing
B. Kaizen Event
C. 5S
D. None

Kaizens or Kaikakus and Six Sigma projects are intended to create incremental process improvements versus breakthrough, significant improvements.
A. True
B. False

Which of these items contribute to what is necessary for successful Kaizen events?
A. Analysis tools
B. Management support
C. Operator support
D. All of these answers are correct

Kanban establishes a means of monitoring production, conveyance and delivery information such that efficient flow is established. The method used by Kanban is to require a _________ before anything moves.
A. Sign-off
B. Signal
C. Bell to ring

D. Work order Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
When a Belt decides to use written procedures and visual controls to improve the consistency of the tasks that must occur in the process he is improving he has utilized the _________________ activity of 5S.
A. Sustaining
B. Sorting
C. Standardizing
D. Straightening

QUESTION 34
SPC Charts are used extensively in different business and decision-making environments. In this example
a vendor is being selected based on speed of delivery. Which of the conclusions would help you pick a
A. Vendor A with a much shorter lead time in delivery
B. Vendor B as it has a better consistency (lower variance) on lead time
C. Vendor B as Vendor A shows a situation out of control as shown in red
D. Vendor B as the Control Limits are much narrower than Vendor A
E. Vendor B with higher lead time, but a process with much narrower Control Limits

Fractional Factorial designs are used to reduce the ____________ because the number of runs has been lowered.
A. Time and cost of experiments
B. Number of people involved
C. Number of data measurement points
D. Output summary

Fractional Factorial Designs are used to analyze factors to model the output as a function of inputs if Hypothesis Testing in the Analyze Phase was inadequate to sufficiently narrow the factors that significantly impact the output(s).
A. True
B. False

A Factorial Experiment based on a Level 2 Design with 6 factors would require 16 runs to fully assess the interactions.
A. True
B. False

A Full Factorial experiment using a 3 level 3 factor approach has been proposed to test the viability of an extrusion machine experiment. How many treatment combinations will this approach involve?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 27
D. 54

Screening experiments are the proper choice when a Belt is faced with the situation of highly Fractional Factorial Designs.
A. True
B. False

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QUESTION 1
A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value of a metric of interest.
A. NP Chart
B. Xbar-R Chart
C. I-MR Chart
D. C Chart

For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of defectives of a particular sample set so she used a ___________ to display the data?
A. Individual Chart
B. C Chart
C. Xbar Chart
D. P Chart

Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to enable OCAP for the process?
A. Xbar Chart
B. Time Series Chart
C. Neither
D. Both

Control Charts were developed by Dr. Shewhart to track data over time. To detect Special Cause variation the Control Charts use which of these?
A. Data shift analysis
B. Outlier analysis methods
C. Center Line and Control Limits
D. None of the above

Common and ______________ Cause Variation are the focus of Statistical Process Control.
A. Uncommon
B. Ordinary
C. Special
D. Selective

Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?
A. Natural & Unnatural
B. Short Term & Long Term
C. Assignable & Pattern
D. Attribute & Discreet

QUESTION 7
Range Charts are the technique used to determine if Special Causes are occurring within the subgroups of the ______________.
A. Histograms
B. SPC Charts
C. NP Charts
D. Pareto Charts

QUESTION 8
If the production is for higher volume and monitoring and the Mean and variability is to be monitored for four machines producing product and the characteristic to be monitored is Variable Data, which SPC Chart is best to be selected?
A. Xbar-R Chart
B. Individual-MR Chart
C. NP Chart
D. CUSUM Chart

QUESTION 9
When a Belt Poka-Yoke’s a defect out of the process entirely then she should track the activity with a robust SPC system on the characteristic of interest in the defect as an early warning system.
A. True
B. False

QUESTION 10
Following the completion of a LSS project the Belt not only creates a Control Plan he also develops a _____________ so those involved in the process know what to do when the critical metrics move out of spec.
A. Response Plan
B. Call List
C. Chain-of-Command
D. Defect Analysis Plan
QUESTION 11
The Control Limits width varies if the sample size varies for which type of chart?
A. P Charts
B. NP Charts
C. Xbar-R Charts
D. Time Series Charts

Which of these elements are not included in Implementation plans?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Risk management plans
C. Cost/Benefit ratios
D. Planned audits of work completion

Upon completion and validation of an improvement to a process a Belt and the Project Team create a Control Plan that contains which of these?
A. Standard operating work description of the process change
B. Description of the monitoring system in place to assure continued compliance
C. Summary of the targeted critical metrics for process performance measurement
D. All of the above

What conclusion is most correct about the Experimental Design shown here with the response in the far right column?

A. No factor has enough statistical confidence greater than 95% to have an impact on the response rate
B. Constant, Adv and Bev are the only factors statistically affecting the response rate with 95% confidence or more
C. If the Adv is increased from the low level to the high level, the response rate increases
D. The response level is statistically concluded to only need the Adv and Bev factors set at the low level to get the largest response rate
E. This design does not have enough experimental runs to conclude anything as evidenced by the lack of P-values in the MINITABTM output

QUESTION 15
Which statement(s) are correct about the Factorial Plot shown here? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

A. When the cutting speed increased from low to high level, the tool age increases
B. The coefficient of the metal hardness is positively related to the output of tool age
C. The coded coefficient is lower for cutting speed than the cutting angle related to the output of tool age
D. These plots prove a statistically significance factor with 95% confidence
E. These plots are an example of interaction plots

QUESTION 16
How many experimental runs exist in a Full Factorial and fully randomized design for 4 factors with 2 replicates for the Corner Points and no Center Points? The factors in the experiment are only at 2-levels.
A. 10
B. 32
C. 256
D. 64

QUESTION 17
If an experiment has 5 factors and no replicates for a 2-level Experimental Design with 16 experimental runs which statement is incorrect?
A. The Experimental Design is half-fractional
B. The Main Effects are confounded with only 4-way interactions
C. The Main Effects for the 5 factors are not aliased or confounded but the 2-way interactions are confounded with the 3-way interactions
D. The experiment has 8 experimental runs with the first factor at the high level

QUESTION 18
Which statement(s) are correct about the Pareto Chart shown here for the DOE analysis? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. It is unknown from this graph how many factors were in the Experimental Design
B. The factors to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal to 2.06
C. The effects to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal to 0.05
D. The factors to keep in the mathematical model with a 5% alpha risk are BE, AB, A and AD

QUESTION 19
Fractional Factorial, ____________and Response Surface Method are types of planned experiments.
A. Multi-Vari Analysis
B. Baldridge Channels
C. One Factor at a Time or OFAT
D. Factorial Design

QUESTION 20
Relative to a Design of Experiments the term ________________ refers to variables being a linear combination of each other.
A. Mirror Image
B. Directly Parallel
C. Collinear
D. None of the above
QUESTION 21
Which statement(s) are incorrect about Fractional Factorial Designs?
A. A Half Fractional Design for 5 factors has the same number of experimental runs as a Full Factorial Design for 4 factors assuming no repeats or replicates or Center Points
B. Quarter Fractional experiments can exist for those with 4 factors
C. Resolution V design is desired while controlling costs of experimentation
D. Half Fractional experiments do not exist for those designs with only 2 factors

If in an experiment all possible variable pairs sum to zero the design is Orthogonal.
A. True
B. False

Which Experimental Design typically is most associated with the fewest number of input variables or factors in the design?
A. Fractional Factorial design
B. Full Factorial design
C. Simple Linear Regression
D. Response Surface Design

The method of Steepest Ascent guides you toward a target inside the original inference space.
A. True
B. False

Situations where standardized work needs to be incorporated include all of these except _____________________.
A. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
C. Changeover instructions incomplete
D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion

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QUESTION: 1 A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
QUESTION: 2 When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the fieldwork starts, the comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit

QUESTION: 3 An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results

QUESTION: 4 Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess compliance to a specific requirement at all locations where that requirement is applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method

QUESTION: 5 Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes that statistical process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations are done correctly and are regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available

QUESTION: 6 When is it acceptable to grant an extension of the time frame for a corrective action?
A. When the auditor cannot perform the follow-up audit as scheduled
B. When the auditee determines that the proposed corrective action is not cost- effective
C. When the corrective action plan requires more time than originally anticipated
D. When there has been a change in operators who perform the task

QUESTION: 7 The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control charts?
A. p chart
B. u chart
C. np chart
D. c chart

QUESTION: 8 Auditors can use flowcharts in their work in order to
A. analyze the causal factors of process dispersion
B. understand the overall process or system being audited
C. distinguish variations in a process over time
D. determine process capability and uniformity

QUESTION: 9 An auditee responds to a corrective action request by stating that the problem has never occurred before and is “not the norm for our operation.” Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the lead auditor?
A. Note that the deficiency is the result of a random occurrence.
B. Draft a response explicitly requesting a more concise root-cause analysis.
C. Confer with the audit client to assess the appropriateness of the response.
D. Schedule a follow-up audit immediately.

QUESTION: 10 Which of the following is an audit reporting technique for prioritizing audit findings?
A. Weibull distribution
B. Risk-benefit ratio
C. Cognitive dissonance
D. Ishikawa diagram

QUESTION: 11 Which of the following is most important for an auditor to convey at an initial audit interview?
A. A give-and-take atmosphere that focuses on compromise
B. A formal approach that is guided by specific roles for each participant
C. An interest in cooperation and open dialogue
D. A personal approach to information gathering

QUESTION: 12 If the audit escort for one area is repeatedly late or unavailable, what is the best option open to the auditor?
A. Notify the auditee management of the consequences created by the delays.
B. Narrow the scope of the audit to accommodate the delays.
C. Proceed without the escort.
D. Assess system effectiveness using objective evidence from other areas.

QUESTION: 13 Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Range
QUESTION: 14 During the opening meeting, it is the auditee’s responsibility to
A. prepare the meeting agenda
B. set the audit schedule
C. state the audit purpose and scope
D. identify safety requirements

QUESTION: 15
Auditor independence includes freedom from which of the following?

I. Bias
II. Conflict of interest
III. External influences
IV.
Previous exposure to the area

A.
I and II only

B.
II and IV only

C.
I, II, and III only

D.
II, III and IV only

QUESTION: 16 Which of the following requests by an auditor is likely to obtain the most objective evidence for verification?
A. “What kind of information do you receive?”
B. “Who provides the information to you?”
C. “Describe how you receive information.”
D. “Show me the information you have received.”
QUESTION: 17
Audits are conducted against a performance standard to ensure which of the following?
I. Meaningful measurements
II. Objectively evaluated performance
III.
Perceptive observations

A.
I only

B.
I and II only

C.
II and III only

D.
I, II, and III

QUESTION: 18 While performing an internal audit, an auditor notices that an operator on one shift skips part of the documented procedure. In this situation, the auditor should do which of the following?
A. Make a note on the checklist and initial it.
B. Report it to the operator’s supervisor or manager.
C. Question the operator about the observation.
D. Ask another operator to evaluate the situation.

QUESTION: 19 An auditor is performing an audit of a drilling machine that produces 100 pieces a day and that is showing improved quality. Which of the following rules should be used for determining the proper sample size for a fixed level of confidence?
A. The moving average should be calculated.
B. The sample size should be decreased as the quality improves.
C. The AQL of the raw material should be used.
D. A 10% sample size should be used, regardless of the change in quality.
QUESTION: 20
An audit report should contain which of the following?

A. Audit findings
B. Root cause analysis
C. Corrective action
D. Re-audit schedule

QUESTION: 21 The objective evidence supporting an audit observation must be
A. recorded on the working papers
B. verified by the escort
C. mentioned to the auditee
D. written as a nonconformance

QUESTION: 22 Generally, which of the following is the most meaningful way to trace a finished product?
A. Forward from starting with the acquisition of raw materials
B. Forward from the first production activity
C. Backward from the start of the assembly process
D. Backward from the end point

QUESTION: 23 When a proposed corrective action plan is judged unacceptable, an auditor should do which of the following?
A. Revise the submitted plan on the basis of the auditor’s knowledge and technical expertise.
B. Notify the auditee and request that a new plan be submitted by the next level of management.
C. Discuss the plan’s deficiencies with the auditee and request a revised plan.
D. Suggest that the auditee benchmark the deficient area and then rewrite the plan.

QUESTION: 24 Who makes the final determination regarding the distribution of the audit report?
B. The audit group manager
C. The auditee
D. The client

QUESTION: 25 The confidence level in a sampling plan is defined as the
A. degree of uncertainty that the selected sample contains at leastone example of any errors thatare present
B. degree of certainty that the selected sample contains at least one example of any errors that are present
C. lowest performance level that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited
D. maximum error rate that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited

QUESTION: 26
Which of the following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?

A. Histograms
B. Frequency distributions
C. Pareto charts
D. Process observations

QUESTION: 27 An auditor finds deficiencies in the order entry, purchasing, product test, and shipping functions of a potential supplier. Which of them should have the highest priority in the audit report?
A. Order entry
B. Product test
D. Shipping

QUESTION: 28 After an external audit, the auditee may be asked to evaluate which of the following auditor skills or elements of the audit?
A. Interviewing, interaction, accuracy of the audit report
B. Audit scheduling, auditor training records, observing an audit
C. Communication, listening, checklist preparation
D. Clarity of past audit reports, number of findings, lack of bias

QUESTION: 29 To determine whether a finding is a minor, isolated incident or a serious, chronic problem, an auditor should consult with the
A. auditee’s quality assurance inspector
B. auditee’s department manager
C. audit team
D. client

QUESTION: 30 Which two of the following conditions must be met in order to infer statistical significance about the results of an audit sample?
I. The population must be homogeneous.
II. The sample size must be greater than 10.
III. The sample must be random.
IV.
The sample must be taken from multiple locations.

A.
I and II
B.I
and III

C.
II and III

D.
III and IV