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The most reliable Cisco CyberOps Associate 200-201 practice exam questions and answers (free)


200-201 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
Correct Answer: B


200-201 exam questions-q2

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on
the Internet. After collecting this packet capture the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the
Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?
A. Base64 encoding
B. transport layer security encryption
C. SHA-256 hashing
D. ROT13 encryption
Correct Answer: B

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data availability
B. data normalization
C. data signature
D. data protection
Correct Answer: B

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?
A. internet
B. transport
C. application
D. data link
Correct Answer: C

Which event artifact is used to identity HTTP GET requests for a specific file?
A. destination IP address
C. HTTP status code
Correct Answer: D

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?
A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator
B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access
C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator
D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access
Correct Answer: B

What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?
A. identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities
B. detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code
C. conducts vulnerability scans on the network
D. manages a list of reported vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?
A. any potential danger to an asset
B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the application
C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design
D. the individuals who perform an attack
Correct Answer: B

Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system?
A. application-level blacklisting
B. host-based IPS
C. application-level whitelisting
D. antivirus
Correct Answer: C

An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including
email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected
machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.
Which testing method did the intruder use?
A. social engineering
B. eavesdropping
C. piggybacking
D. tailgating
Correct Answer: A

Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. colo?ur
B. col[0-8]+our
C. colou?r
D. col[0-9]+our
Correct Answer: C

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Correct Answer: D

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)
Updated: Nov 12, 2020
Q&As: 80

Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic URL filtering
B. advanced analytics
C. dynamic data analysis
D. intrusion analysis
E. reputation analytics
Correct Answer: BC

What does remote access use to verify identity?
B. Agents
C. Remote Access VPN
D. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: C

Which two attack vectors are protected by Visibility and Enforcement? (Choose two.)
A. Cloud
B. Mobile
C. Endpoints
D. Email
E. Web
Correct Answer: AE

What do customers receive when implementing TrustSec?
A. SL decryption enabling secure communications on and off company networks
B. Context-aware access enhancing the forensic capabilities available to their IT team
C. Device profiling and onboarding, enabling businesses to control company role policies across all network services 1
D. Dynamic role-based access control that enables them to enforce business role policies across all network services
Correct Answer: D

How does AMP\\’s file reputation feature help customers?
A. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
B. It increases the accuracy of threat detection with Big Data analytics
C. It enables point in time detection through a one-to-one engine
D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
Correct Answer: C

In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)
A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions
Correct Answer: AC

What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)
A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.
Correct Answer: BE

Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. pxGrid
B. Cisco Security Connector
C. Duo
D. Stealthwatch
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: AE

Which feature of Cognitive Intelligence can separate statistically normal traffic from anomalous traffic?
A. Event classification
B. Anomaly detection
C. Anomaly modeling
D. Trust modeling
Correct Answer: B

In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats
Correct Answer: D

What are two capabilities of Cisco\\’s NGFW Identity Based Policy Control feature? (Choose two.)
A. security enforced at the DNS layer
B. access to multiple data layers
C. access to Trojan downloader
D. see and share malware details
E. threats stopped from getting in and spreading
Correct Answer: AB

What are two solutions for Cisco Cloud Security? (Choose two.)
A. cloud data security
B. cloud-delivered security
C. advanced network security
D. intrusion prevention
E. cloud security
Correct Answer: BE

What are three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose three )
A. Roaming Security
B. Advanced Threat
C. Cloud Security
D. D loT Security .
E. Voice and Collaboration
F. Firewalls
Correct Answer: BCD

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Exam Code: 300-410 (Updated 118 Q&As)
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

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Cisco CCNP 300-410 Practice Test Questions Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from the network to R2?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address:
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 ospf database command and is presented with the
output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q3

A. link-local
B. area
C. As (OSPF domain)
D. reserved
Correct Answer: B

What is the output of the following command: show ip vrf
A. Show\\’s default RD values
B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF
C. Show\\’s routing protocol information associated with a VRF.
D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF
Correct Answer: A


Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not
correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?
A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.
Correct Answer: D


Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q6

Refer to the exhibit. An IP SLA was configured on router R1 that allows the default route to be modified in the event that
Fa0/0 loses reachability with the router R3 Fa0/0 interface. The route has changed to flow through router R2. Which
debug command is used to troubleshoot this issue?
A. debug ip flow
B. debug ip sla error
C. debug ip routing
D. debug ip packet
Correct Answer: C


Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q7

A. The flow exporter is configured but is not used.
B. The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.
C. The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.
D. The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.
Correct Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit. After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both spoke-tospoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q8

A. Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3.
B. Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address on R2 and R3.
C. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address on R2 and R3.
D. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address on R2 and R3.
E. Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.
Correct Answer: AD

After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for
several service provides. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local
networks to all SP neighbors?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit.

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q10

An engineer is monitoring reachability of the configured default routes to ISP1 and ISP2. The default route from ISP1 is
preferred if available. How is this issue resolved?
A. Use the icmp-echo command to track both default routes
B. Use the same AD for both default routes
C. Start IP SLA by matching numbers for track and ip sla commands
D. Start IP SLA by defining frequency and scheduling it
Correct Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit.

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q11

An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired.
Which command fixes the issue?
A. R1(config)# ip route 10 track 1
B. R1(config)# ip route
C. R1(config)#ip sla track 1
D. R1(config)# ip route track 1
Correct Answer: D
Note: By default Static Router AD value-1 hence ip route track 1 means AD-1 which must be
less than of back up route AD.
Define the backup route to use when the tracked object is unavailable.
!— The administrative distance of the backup route must be greater than
!— the administrative distance of the tracked route.
!— If the primary gateway is unreachable, that route is removed
!— and the backup route is installed in the routing table
!— instead of the tracked route.

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration must be configured on the spoke A router to enable a dynamic
DMVPN tunnel with the spoke B router?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?
A. It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
C. It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables
D. It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
Correct Answer: D

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