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QUESTION 1 You have an on-premises network that contains 100 servers. You need to recommend a solution that provides additional resources to your users. The solution must minimize capital and operational expenditure costs. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a complete migration to the public cloud B. an additional data center C. a private cloud D. a hybrid cloud Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a Canadian government contractor B. a European government contractor C. a United States government entity D. a United States government contractor E. a European government entity Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government
QUESTION 6 You have an on-premises application that sends email notifications automatically based on a rule. You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You need to recommend a serverless computing solution for the application. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a web app B. a server image in Azure Marketplace C. a logic app D. an API app Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1. You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1. VNET1 is deleted automatically. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. is moved automatically to another resource group C. continues to function normally D. is now a read-only object Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
QUESTION 9 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple subscriptions. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Management groups C. Azure policies D. Azure App Service plans Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You plan to deploy a critical line-of-business application to Azure. The application will run on an Azure virtual machine. You need to recommend a deployment solution for the application. The solution must provide a guaranteed availability of 99.99 percent. What is the minimum number of virtual machines and the minimum number of availability zones you should recommend for the deployment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 customized virtual machines each week. Thirty of the virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and 20 of the virtual machines run Ubuntu Linux. You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the virtual machines. What should you recommend? A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances B. Azure virtual machine scale sets C. Azure DevTest Labs D. Microsoft Managed Desktop Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 When can a security program be considered effective? A. Audits are rec/Jarty performed and reviewed. B. Vulnerabilities are proactively identified. C. Risk is lowered to an acceptable level. D. Badges are regiiartv performed and validated Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Changes to a Trusted Computing Base (TCB) system that could impact the security posture of that system and trigger a recertification activity are documented in the A. security impact analysis. B. structured code review. C. routine self assessment. D. cost benefit analysis. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What is the MOST effective method of testing custom application code? A. Negative testing B. White box testing C. Penetration testing D. Black box testing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 How is remote authentication Dial-In user service (RADIUS) authentication accomplished? A. It uses clear text and shared secret keys. B. It uses clear text and firewall rules. C. It relies on Virtual Private Networks (VPN). D. It relies on asymmetric encryption keys. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated? A. The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured B. A penetration test of the network will fail C. The network is compliant to industry standards D. All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which one of the following effectively obscures network addresses from external exposure when implemented on a firewall or router? A. Network Address Translation (NAT) B. Application Proxy C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2 D. Address Masking Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs? A. Check arguments in function calls B. Test for the security patch level of the environment C. Include logging functions D. Digitally sign each application module Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Even though a particular digital watermark is difficult to detect, which of the following represents a way it might still be inadvertently removed? A. Truncating parts of the data B. Applying Access Control Lists (ACL) to the data C. Appending non-watermarked data to watermarked data D. Storing the data in a database Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A software scanner identifies a region within a binary image having high entropy. What does this MOST likely indicate? A. Encryption routines B. Random number generator C. Obfuscated code D. Botnet command and control Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following is a PRIMARY security concern? A. Availability B. Confidentiality C. Integrity D. Ownership Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following? A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) D. Message Digest 5 (MD5) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack? A. parameterized database queries B. whitelist input values C. synchronized session tokens D. use strong ciphers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 What MUST each information owner do when a system contains data from multiple information owners? A. Provide input to the Information System (IS) owner regarding the security requirements of the data B. Review the Security Assessment report (SAR) for the Information System (IS) and authorize the IS to operate. C. Develop and maintain the System Security Plan (SSP) for the Information System (IS) containing the data D. Move the data to an Information System (IS) that does not contain data owned by other information owners Correct Answer: C
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Effective EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography. Correct Answer: signature A digital signature is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography. A digital signature not only validates the sender\\’s identity, but also ensures that the document\\’s contents have not been altered. It verifies that the source and integrity of the document is not compromised since the document is signed. A digital signature provides the following assurances: Authenticity, Integrity, and Non-repudiation. Microsoft Office 2007 Excel and Word provide a feature known as Signature line to insert a user\\’s digital signature on a document.
QUESTION 2 Which of the following layers refers to the higher-level protocols used by most applications for network communication? A. Transport layer B. Link layer C. Application layer D. Internet layer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs? A. Contingency plan B. Disaster recovery plan C. Business continuity plan D. Continuity of Operations Plan Correct Answer: A A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer option D is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible. Answer option B is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for ITrelated infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option C is incorrect. Business continuity planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. The BCP lifecycle is as follows:
QUESTION 4 Which of the following forms of recognition of the sender can inform the data receiver of all segments that have arrived successfully? A. negative acknowledgment B. the cumulative reset C. with block D. None E. selective acknowledgment Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is a worldwide organization whose mission is to create, refine and promote internet safety standards? A. None B. SPROUT C. ANSI D. IEEE E. WASC Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which of the following cables is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light? A. Coaxial cable B. Twisted pair cable C. Plenum cable D. Fiber optic cable Correct Answer: D Fiber optic cable is also known as optical fiber. It is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light. It is of cylindrical shape and consists of three concentric sections: the core, the cladding, and the jacket. Optical fiber carries much more information than conventional copper wire and is in general not subject to electromagnetic interference and the need to retransmit signals. Most telephone company\\’s long-distance lines are now made of optical fiber. Transmission over an optical fiber cable requires repeaters at distance intervals. The glass fiber requires more protection within an outer cable than copper. Answer option B is incorrect. Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors (the forward and return conductors of a single circuit) are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. It consists of the following twisted pair cables: Shielded Twisted Pair: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) is a special kind of copper telephone wiring used in some business installations. An outer covering or shield is added to the ordinary twisted pair telephone wires; the shield functions as a ground. Twisted pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers to the telephone company. Shielded twisted pair is often used in business installations. Unshielded Twisted Pair: Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is the ordinary wire used in home. UTP cable is also the most common cable used in computer networking. Ethernet, the most common data networking standard, utilizes UTP cables. Twisted pair cabling is often used in data networks for short and medium length connections because of its relatively lower costs compared to optical fiber and coaxial cable.UTP is also finding increasing use in video applications, primarily in security cameras. Many middle to highend cameras include a UTP output with setscrew terminals. This is made possible by the fact that UTP cable bandwidth has improved to match the baseband of television signals. Answer option A is incorrect. Coaxial cable is the kind of copper cable used by cable TV companies between the community antenna and user homes and businesses. Coaxial cable is sometimes used by telephone companies from their central office to the telephone poles near users. It is also widely installed for use in business and corporation Ethernet and other types of local area network. Coaxial cable is called “coaxial” because it includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis. The outer channel serves as a ground. Many of these cables or pairs of coaxial tubes can be placed in a single outer sheathing and, with repeaters, can carry information for a great distance. It is shown in the figure below:
Answer option C is incorrect. Plenum cable is cable that is laid in the plenum spaces of buildings. The plenum is the space that can facilitate air circulation for heating and air conditioning systems, by providing pathways for either heated/ conditioned or return airflows. Space between the structural ceiling and the dropped ceiling or under a raised floor is typically considered plenum. However, some drop ceiling designs create a tight seal that does not allow for airflow and therefore may not be considered a plenum air-handling space. The plenum space is typically used to house the communication cables for the building\\’s computer and telephone network.protocols. Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These are invalid tags.
QUESTION 8 Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to prevent interruptions to normal business activity? A. Disaster Recovery Plan B. Business Continuity Plan C. Contingency Plan D. Continuity of Operations Plan Correct Answer: B BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer option C is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer option A is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option D is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization\\’s essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.
QUESTION 9 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.The is a communication protocol that communicates information between the network routers and the multicast end stations. Correct Answer: IGMP The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communication protocol that communicates information between the network routers and the multicast end stations. It allows the receivers to request a multicast data stream from a specific group address. However, multicast traffic is sent to a single MAC address but is processed by multiple hosts. The IGMP allows an end station to connect to a multicast group and leave it, while being connected to the group address. It can be effectively used for gaming and showing online videos. Although it does not actually act as a transport protocol, it operates above the network layer. It is analogous to ICMP for unicast connections. It is susceptible to some attacks, so firewalls commonly allow the user to disable it if not needed.
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management? A. ANSI B. IEEE C. ITU D. ICANN Correct Answer: D ICANN stands for Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers. ICANN is responsible for managing the assignment of domain names and IP addresses. ICANN\\’s tasks include responsibility for IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, top-level domain name system management, and root server system management functions. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management. Answer option B is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. Answer option C is incorrect. The International Telecommunication Union is an agency of the United Nations which regulates information and communication technology issues. ITU coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum, promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits, works to improve telecommunication infrastructure in the developing world and establishes worldwide standards. ITU is active in areas including broadband Internet, latestgeneration wireless technologies, aeronautical and maritime navigation, radio astronomy, satellite-based meteorology, convergence in fixed-mobile phone, Internet access, data, voice, TV broadcasting, and next-generation networks. Answer option A is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). Longestablished computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
QUESTION 11 A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides an attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform war dialing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. ToneLoc B. Wingate C. THC-Scan D. NetStumbler Correct Answer: CA THC-Scan and ToneLoc are tools used for war dialing. A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides the attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Answer option D is incorrect. NetStumbler is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards. It detects wireless networks and marks their relative position with a GPS. It uses an 802.11 Probe Request that has been sent to the broadcast destination address. Answer option B is incorrect. Wingate is a proxy server.
QUESTION 12 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A network is a local area network (LAN) in which all computers are connected in a ring or star topology and a bit- or tokenpassing scheme is used for preventing the collision of data between two computers that want to send messages at the same time. Correct Answer: Token Ring A Token Ring network is a local area network (LAN) in which all computers are connected in a ring or star topology and a bit- or token-passing scheme is used in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that want to send messages at the same time. The Token Ring protocol is the second most widely-used protocol on local area networks after Ethernet. The IBM Token Ring protocol led to a standard version, specified as IEEE 802.5. Both protocols are used and are very similar. The IEEE 802.5 Token Ring technology provides for data transfer rates of either 4 or 16 megabits per second. Working: Empty information frames are constantly circulated on the ring. When a computer has a message to send, it adds a token to an empty frame and adds a message and a destination identifier to the frame. The frame is then observed by each successive workstation. If the workstation sees that it is the destination for the message, it copies the message from the frame and modifies the token back to 0. When the frame gets back to the originator, it sees that the token has been modified to 0 and that the message has been copied and received. It removes the message from the particular frame. The frame continues to circulate as an empty frame, ready to be taken by a workstation when it has a message to send.
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Effective EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 What are the security risks of running a “repair” installation for Windows XP? A. There are no security risks when running the “repair” installation for Windows XP B. Pressing Shift+F1 gives the user administrative rights C. Pressing Ctrl+F10 gives the user administrative rights D. Pressing Shift+F10 gives the user administrative rights Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Identify the framework that comprises of five levels to guide agency assessment of their security programs and assist in prioritizing efforts for improvement: A. Information System Security Assessment Framework (ISSAF) B. Microsoft Internet Security Framework C. Nortells Unified Security Framework D. Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Julia is a senior security analyst for Berber Consulting group. She is currently working on a contract for a small accounting firm in Florida; They have given her permission to perform social engineering attacks on the company to see if their in-house training did any good. Julia calls the main number for the accounting firm and talks to the receptionist. Julia says that she is an IT technician from the company\\’s main office in Iowa; She states that she needs the receptionist\\’s network username and password to troubleshoot a problem they are having. Julia says that Bill Hammond, the CEO of the company, requested this information. After hearing the name of the CEO, the receptionist gave Julia all the information she asked for. What principal of social engineering did Julia use? A. Reciprocation B. Friendship/Liking C. Social Validation D. Scarcity Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following equipment could a pen tester use to perform shoulder surfing? A. Binoculars B. Painted ultraviolet material C. Microphone D. All the above Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following protocols cannot be used to filter VoIP traffic? A. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP) B. Real-time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP) C. Session Description Protocol (SDP) D. Real-Time Publish Subscribe (RTPS) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Firewall is an IP packet filter that enforces the filtering and security policies to the flowing network traffic. Using firewalls in IPv6 is still the best way of protection from low level attacks at the network and transport layers. Which one of the following cannot handle routing protocols properly? A. “Internet-router-firewall-net architecture” B. “Internet-firewall-router-net architecture” C. “Internet-firewall/router(edge device)-net architecture” D. “Internet-firewall -net architecture” Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 What are placeholders (or markers) in an HTML document that the web server will dynamically replace with data just before sending the requested documents to a browser? A. Server Side Includes B. Sort Server Includes C. Server Sort Includes D. Slide Server Includes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Variables are used to define parameters for detection, specifically those of your local network and/or specific servers or ports for inclusion or exclusion in rules. These are simple substitution variables set with the var keyword. Which one of the following operator is used to define meta-variables? A. “$” B. “#” C. “*” D. “?” Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of IDS is being used? A. Passive IDS B. Active IDS C. Progressive IDS D. NIPS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which vulnerability assessment phase describes the scope of the assessment, identifies and ranks the critical assets, and creates proper information protection procedures such as effective planning, scheduling, coordination, and logistics? A. Threat-Assessment Phase B. Pre-Assessment Phase C. Assessment Phase D. Post-Assessment Phase Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages occur in many situations, such as whenever a datagram cannot reach the destination or the gateway does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram. Each ICMP message contains three fields: type, code, and checksum. Different types of Internet Control Message Protocols (ICMPs) are identified by a TYPE field. If the destination is not reachable, which one of the following are generated? A. Type 8 ICMP codes B. Type 12 ICMP codes C. Type 3 ICMP codes D. Type 7 ICMP codes Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which one of the following scans starts, but does not complete the TCP handshake sequence for each port selected, and it works well for direct scanning and often works well through firewalls? A. SYN Scan B. Connect() scan C. XMAS Scan D. Null Scan Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a data scientist using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to normalize values to produce an output column into bins to predict a target column. Solution: Apply a Quantiles binning mode with a PQuantile normalization. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Use the Entropy MDL binning mode which has a target column. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/group-data-into-bins
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You need to identify the methods for dividing the data according, to the testing requirements. Which properties should you select? To answer, select the appropriate option-, m the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 You are analyzing a raw dataset that requires cleaning. You must perform transformations and manipulations by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to identify the correct modules to perform the transformations. Which modules should you choose? To answer, drag the appropriate modules to the correct scenarios. Each module may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Clean Missing Data Box 2: SMOTE Use the SMOTE module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to increase the number of underepresented cases in a dataset used for machine learning. SMOTE is a better way of increasing the number of rare cases than simply duplicating existing cases. Box 3: Convert to Indicator Values Use the Convert to Indicator Values module in Azure Machine Learning Studio. The purpose of this module is to convert columns that contain categorical values into a series of binary indicator columns that can more easily be used as features in a machine learning model. Box 4: Remove Duplicate Rows References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/smote https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/convert-to-indicator-values
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are analyzing a numerical dataset which contains missing values in several columns. You must clean the missing values using an appropriate operation without affecting the dimensionality of the feature set. You need to analyze a full dataset to include all values. Solution: Remove the entire column that contains the missing data point. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Use the Multiple Imputation by Chained Equations (MICE) method. References: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3074241/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clean-missing-data
QUESTION 5 You are analyzing a dataset by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to generate a statistical summary that contains the p-value and the unique count for each feature column. Which two modules can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Computer Linear Correlation B. Export Count Table C. Execute Python Script D. Convert to Indicator Values E. Summarize Data Correct Answer: BE The Export Count Table module is provided for backward compatibility with experiments that use the Build Count Table (deprecated) and Count Featurizer (deprecated) modules. E: Summarize Data statistics are useful when you want to understand the characteristics of the complete dataset. For example, you might need to know: How many missing values are there in each column? How many unique values are there in a feature column? What is the mean and standard deviation for each column? The module calculates the important scores for each column, and returns a row of summary statistics for each variable (data column) provided as input. Incorrect Answers: A: The Compute Linear Correlation module in Azure Machine Learning Studio is used to compute a set of Pearson correlation coefficients for each possible pair of variables in the input dataset. C: With Python, you can perform tasks that aren\\’t currently supported by existing Studio modules such as: Visualizing data using matplotlib Using Python libraries to enumerate datasets and models in your workspace Reading, loading, and manipulating data from sources not supported by the Import Data module D: The purpose of the Convert to Indicator Values module is to convert columns that contain categorical values into a series of binary indicator columns that can more easily be used as features in a machine learning model. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/export-count-table https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/summarize-data
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You need to modify the inputs for the global penalty event model to address the bias and variance issue. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You are using C-Support Vector classification to do a multi-class classification with an unbalanced training dataset. The C-Support Vector classification using Python code shown below:
You need to evaluate the C-Support Vector classification code. Which evaluation statement should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Automatically adjust weights inversely proportional to class frequencies in the input data The “balanced” mode uses the values of y to automatically adjust weights inversely proportional to class frequencies in the input data as n_samples / (n_classes * np.bincount(y)). Box 2: Penalty parameter Parameter: C : float, optional (default=1.0) Penalty parameter C of the error term. References: https://scikit-learn.org/stable/modules/generated/sklearn.svm.SVC.html
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You need to visually identify whether outliers exist in the Age column and quantify the outliers before the outliers are removed. Which three Azure Machine Learning Studio modules should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate modules from the list of modules to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are analyzing a numerical dataset which contains missing values in several columns. You need to analyze a full dataset to include all values. Solution: Use the Last Observation Carried Forward (LOCF) method to impute the missing data points. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Instead use the Multiple Imputation by Chained Equations (MICE) method. Replace using MICE: For each missing value, this option assigns a new value, which is calculated by using a method described in the statistical literature as “Multivariate Imputation using Chained Equations” or “Multiple Imputation by Chained Equations”. With a multiple imputation method, each variable with missing data is modeled conditionally using the other variables in the data before filling in the missing values. Note: Last observation carried forward (LOCF) is a method of imputing missing data in longitudinal studies. If a person drops out of a study before it ends, then his or her last observed score on the dependent variable is used for all subsequent (i.e., missing) observation points. LOCF is used to maintain the sample size and to reduce the bias caused by the attrition of participants in a study. References: https://methods.sagepub.com/reference/encyc-of-research-design/n211.xml https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3074241/
QUESTION 10 You are evaluating a completed binary classification machine learning model. You need to use the precision as the evaluation metric. Which visualization should you use? A. Violin pilot B. Gradient descent C. Box pilot D. Binary classification confusion matrix Correct Answer: D Incorrect Answers: A: A violin plot is a visual that traditionally combines a box plot and a kernel density plot. B: Gradient descent is a first-order iterative optimization algorithm for finding the minimum of a function. To find a local minimum of a function using gradient descent, one takes steps proportional to the negative of the gradient (or approximate gradient) of the function at the current point. C: A box plot lets you see basic distribution information about your data, such as median, mean, range and quartiles but doesn\\’t show you how your data looks throughout its range. References: https://machinelearningknowledge.ai/confusion-matrix-and-performance-metrics-machine-learning/
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You need to configure the Edit Metadata module so that the structure of the datasets match. Which configuration options should you select? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 2: Unchanged Note: Select the Categorical option to specify that the values in the selected columns should be treated as categories. For example, you might have a column that contains the numbers 0,1 and 2, but know that the numbers actually mean “Smoker”, “Non smoker” and “Unknown”. In that case, by flagging the column as categorical you can ensure that the values are not used in numeric calculations, only to group data.
QUESTION 12 You need to select an environment that will meet the business and data requirements. Which environment should you use? A. Azure HDInsight with Spark MLlib B. Azure Cognitive Services C. Azure Machine Learning Studio D. Microsoft Machine Learning Server Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are creating a new experiment in Azure Machine Learning Studio. One class has a much smaller number of observations than the other classes in the training set. You need to select an appropriate data sampling strategy to compensate for the class imbalance. Solution: You use the Stratified split for the sampling mode. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Instead use the Synthetic Minority Oversampling Technique (SMOTE) sampling mode. Note: SMOTE is used to increase the number of underepresented cases in a dataset used for machine learning. SMOTE is a better way of increasing the number of rare cases than simply duplicating existing cases. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/smote
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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You deploy SAP HANA by using SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances). For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 You are migrating SAP to Azure. The ASCS application servers are in one Azure zone, and the SAP database server in in a different Azure zone. ASCS/ERS is configured for high availability. During performance testing, you discover increased response times in Azure, even though the Azure environment has better computer and memory configurations than the on-premises environment. During the initial analysis, you discover an increased wait time for Enqueue. What are three possible causes of the increased wait time? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a missing Enqueue profile B. disk I/O during Enqueue backup operations C. misconfigured load balancer rules and health check probes for Enqueue and ASCS D. active Enqueue replication E. network latency between the database server and the SAP application servers Correct Answer: CDE E: The network latency across Availability Zones is not the same in all Azure regions. In some cases, you can deploy and run the SAP application layer across different zones because the network latency from one zone to the active DBMS VM is acceptable. But in some Azure regions, the latency between the active DBMS VM and the SAP application instance, when deployed in different zones, might not be acceptable for SAP business processes. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/sap-ha-availability-zones
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT You plan to deploy a highly available ASCS instance to SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES) virtual machines in Azure. You are configuring an internal Azure Standard Load Balancer for the ASCS instance. How should you configure the internal Standard Load Balancer? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You need to provide the Azure administrator with the values to complete the Azure Resource Manager template. Which values should you provide for diskCount, StorageAccountType, and domainName? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 4 Scenario: the Azure Resource Manager template that will be used to provision the production application servers. Ensure that each production application server has four 1-TB data disks. Box 2: Standard_LRS Scenario: Minimize costs whenever possible. Box 3: contoso.onmicrosoft.com The network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named ad.contoso.com. The Initial domain: The default domain (onmicrosoft.com) in the Azure AD Tenant. For example, contoso.onmicrosoft.com. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/plan-connect-userprincipalname
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure subscription. Your company has an SAP environment that runs on SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES) servers and SAP HANA. The environment has a primary site and a disaster recovery site. Disaster recovery is based on SAP HANA system replication. The SAP ERP environment is 4 TB and has a projected growth of 5% per month. The company has an uptime Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.99%, a maximum recovery time objective (RTO) of four hours, and a recovery point objective (RPO) of 10 minutes. You plan to migrate to Azure. You need to design an SAP landscape for the company. Which options meet the company\\’s requirements? A. 1. Azure virtual machines and SLES for SAP application servers 2. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for high availability and disaster recovery B. 1. ASCS/ERS and SLES clustering that uses the Pacemaker fence agent 2. SAP application servers deployed to an Azure Availability Zone 3. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for database high availability and disaster recovery C. 1. SAP application instances deployed to an Azure Availability Set 2. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for database high availability and disaster recovery D. 1. ASCS/ERS and SLES clustering that uses the Azure fence agent 2. SAP application servers deployed to an Azure Availability Set 3. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for database high availability and disaster recovery Correct Answer: B With Availability Zones, Azure offers industry best 99.99% VM uptime SLA. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-faqs
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You migrate SAP ERP Central Component (SAP ECC) production and non-production landscapes to Azure. You are licensed for SAP Landscape Management (LaMa). You need to refresh from the production landscape to the non-production landscape. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: From the Azure portal, create a service principal The Azure connector can use a Service Principal to authorize against Microsoft Azure. Follow these steps to create a Service Principal for SAP Landscape Management (LaMa). Step 2: Add permissions to the service principal The Service Principal does not have permissions to access your Azure resources by default. You need to give the Service Principal permissions to access them. Step 3: From the Cloud Managers tab in LaMa, add an adapter Create a new connector in SAP LaMa Open the SAP LaMa website and navigate to Infrastructure. Go to tab Cloud Managers and click on Add. Select the Microsoft Azure Cloud Adapter Step 4: Install and configure LaMA on an SAP NetWeater instance Provision a new adaptive SAP system You can manually deploy a new virtual machine or use one of the Azure templates in the quickstart repository. It contains templates for SAP NetWeaver ASCS, SAP NetWeaver application servers, and the database. You can also use these templates to provision new hosts as part of a system copy/clone etc. Note: To support customers on their journey into a cloud model (hybrid or entirely public cloud), SAP and Microsoft partnered to create an adapter that integrates the SAP management capabilities of LaMa with the IaaS advantages of Microsoft Azure. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/lama-installation
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Your on-premises network contains an Active Directory domain. You have an SAP environment on Azure that runs on SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES) servers. You configure the SLES servers to use domain controllers as their NTP servers and their DNS servers. You need to join the SLES servers to the Active Directory domain. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: Install the samba-winbind package Install samba-winbind Step 2: Add realm details to /etc/krb5.conf and /etc/samba/smb.conf Edit files – best way to do this is to use yast on test machine and copy files from it In following examples you need to replace EXAMPLE/EXAMPLE.COM/.example.com with your values/settings /etc/samba/smb.conf [global] workgroup = EXAMPLE usershare allow guests = NO #disallow guests from sharing idmap gid = 10000-20000 idmap uid = 10000-20000 kerberos method = secrets and keytab realm = EXAMPLE.COM security = ADS template homedir = /home/%D/%U template shell = /bin/bash winbind offline logon = yes winbind refresh tickets = yes /etc/krb5.conf [libdefaults] default_realm = EXAMPLE.COM clockskew = 300 [realms] AZ-120 PDF Dumps | AZ-120 Exam Questions | AZ-120 Braindumps 11 / 2 EXAMPLE.COM = { kdc = PDC.EXAMPLE.COM default_domain = EXAMPLE.COM admin_server = PDC.EXAMPLE.COM } .. Step 3: Run net ads join -U administrator Join the SLES 12 Server to the AD domain References: https://www.suse.com/support/kb/doc/?id=7018461
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You plan to deploy multiple SAP HANA virtual machines to Azure by using an Azure Resource Manager template. How should you configure Accelerated Networking and Write Accelerator in the template? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: true enableAcceleratedNetworking: If the network interface is accelerated networking enabled. To further reduce network latency between Azure VMs, we [Micorosoft] recommend that you choose Azure Accelerated Networking. Use it when you deploy Azure VMs for an SAP workload, especially for the SAP application layer and the SAP DBMS layer. Box 2: true Write Accelerator should be used for the volumes that contain the transaction log or redo logs of a DBMS. It is not recommended to use Write Accelerator for the data volumes of a DBMS as the feature has been optimized to be used against log disks. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/dbms_guide_general
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: No To log in to a Linux VM with Azure AD credentials, install the Azure Active Directory login VM extension. Note: Azure AD Connect is the Microsoft tool designed to meet and accomplish your hybrid identity goals. Box 2: Yes If you deploy SAP VMs in a cross-premises scenario, where on-premises Active Directory and DNS are extended in Azure, it is expected that the VMs are joining an on-premises domain. Box 3: No References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/deployment-guide
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP You have an SAP environment on Azure. You use Azure Site Recovery to protect an SAP production landscape. You need to validate whether you can recover the landscape in the event of a failure. The solution must minimize the impact on the landscape. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Step 1: Create a virtual network… We recommended that for test failover, you choose a network that\\’s isolated from the production recovery site network specific in the Compute and Network settings for each VM. By default, when you create an Azure virtual network, it is isolated from other networks. The test network should mimic your production network: The test network should have same number of subnets as your production network. Subnets should have the same names. The test network should use the same IP address range. Step 2: Add a public IP address… Because Site Recovery does not replicate the cloud witness, we recommend that you deploy the cloud witness in the disaster recovery region. Step 3: Shut down production virtual machines Make sure that the primary VM is shut down when you run the test failover. Otherwise there will be two VMs with the same identity, running in the same network at the same time. This can lead to unexpected consequences. Step 4: Select Test failover from the Recovery Plans blade References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-test-failover-to-azure
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You deploy SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances). You need to back up the SAP HANA database to Azure. Solution: You configure DB13 to back up directly to a local disk. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B You need to back up the SAP HANA database to Azure, not to a local disk. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/sap-hana-db-abouthttps://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/backup/backup-azure-sap-hana-database#configure-backup
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT You are designing the backup for an SAP database. You have an Azure Storage account that is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: standard solid-state drives (SSDs) Standard SSD Managed Disks, a low-cost SSD offering, are optimized for test and entry-level production workloads requiring consistent latency. Box 2: to another Azure region Geo-redundant storage (GRS) copies your data synchronously three times within a single physical location in the primary region using LRS. It then copies your data asynchronously to a single physical location in a secondary region that is hundreds of miles away from the primary region. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/managed-disks/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy#geo-redundant-storage
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QUESTION 1 A technician is configuring a SOHO router to ensure network computers can only use secured protocols on the Internet. Which of the following ports should be allowed? A. 143 B. 23 C. 443 D. 3269 E. 3389 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 The technician is dispatched to a multi-function device that users print and copy from all day. The technician is told pages that are copied all have a line on them on the left hand side of the page. The technician prints a printer test page and does not see the line on the page. The technician\\’s NEXT step would be which of the following? A. Replace the toner cartridge to eliminate the lines. B. Print from another workstation to recreate the problem. C. Close the trouble ticket and document no trouble found. D. Copy a printed page to recreate the problem. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A technician is trying to remove a resilient computer virus. The virus keeps coming back after rebooting the system because some program or service has locked some of the virus\\’ files and is preventing the AV from cleaning the system. Which of the following is the BEST approach to try and remove the virus while minimizing negative impact to the system? A. Use REGSRV32 to deregister the virus DLLs. B. Run the antivirus after rebooting in safe mode. C. Use the repair disk and follow the prompts. D. Use the recovery console to disable all windows services. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A user reports the screen on a mobile device frequently dims even when the device settings are not being changed. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Faulty backlight B. High contrast mode C. Auto-brightness D. Power saving mode Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A technician is working on a user\\’s PC. After testing the theory of the cause, which of the following could the technician perform NEXT? (Select TWO). A. Resolve issue B. Inform user C. New theory or escalate D. Document issue E. Verify system functionality Correct Answer: AC
CompTIA 220-1001 exam practice questions 1-5
QUESTION 1 A technician is configuring a new web server and must have over 10TB of fault-tolerant storage, while minimizing the number of failure points. The applications on the server also require the highest performance available. Which of the following configurations would the technician MOST likely select? A. RAID 0 with 1500rpm 15TB drives B. RAID 1 with 1000rpm 8TB drives C. RAID 5 with 7200rpm 5TB drives D. RAID 10 with 5400rpm 6TB drives Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.) A. Remove the case and organize the parts. B. Document the screw locations. C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials. D. Consult colleagues for advice. E. Place the device in rice for a few days. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 A user notices the system clock is changed every morning. The computer is shut down daily. A technician checks the time zone and finds it is correct, and then checks the BIOS settings and finds the time to be incorrect. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. The CMOS battery does not have a charge. B. Daylight savings time is not enabled. C. BIOS time is set to Universal Time Coordinated. D. The NTP server has gone offline. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 An administrator has configured a server to host virtualizes instances. The requirements of each VM must be able to scale automatically depending on peak and off-peak usage. Which of the following terms BEST describes this type of cloud concept? A. Over provisioning B. Measured pooling C. Resources pooling D. Rapid elasticity Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A customer asks a technician to help set up a specialized computing system for video editing. Which of the following should the technician install on the workstation to BEST meet the customer\\’s specifications? (Choose two.) A. SSD B. Dual monitors C. Gigabit NIC D. Hypervisor E. Docking station F. NAS Correct Answer: AB
CompTIA 220-1002 exam practice questions1-5
QUESTION 1 A small business has an open wireless network so vendors can connect to the network without logging in. The business owners are concerned that a nearby company is connecting and using the wireless connection without permission. If the small business requires that the network remain open, which of the following configuration settings should be changed to address these concerns? A. Default SSID B. MAC filtering C. Power levels D. Content filtering E. Firewall Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A SOHO customer has recently experienced a major hurricane. The customer has no backups and has lost all data and hardware associated with the company. The customer calls a contractor to assist in the rebuilding process and needs suggestions on the best way to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following recommendations should the contractor give to the customer? (Select two.) A. Backup testing B. Cloud storage C. Local storage backups D. Data recovery E. Hot site F. Waterproof devices Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3 A user needs assistance setting up auto-sync on a Windows 8 phone. Which of the following tools is MOST appropriate for this scenario? A. Google Sync B. OneNote C. Dropbox D. Amazon Cloud Sync Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 During the firmware upgrade of a web server, a power outage occurred. The outage caused a failure within the upgrade. Which of the following plans must be implemented to revert back to the most recent version of the firmware? A. Backout plan B. Contingency plan C. Alternative plan D. Backup plan Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Over the years a user has been accidentally creating copies of folders in a personal drive and as a result, there are now hundreds of “copy of copy” folders dotted throughout the drive. Which of the following Windows command line tools might a technician use to obtain a complete list of all the folders for use in a deletion script? A. dir B. 1s C. rd D. del Correct Answer: D
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Comprehensive knowledge of Microsoft 70-331 exam practice questions and answers Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 products is considered a very important qualification and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.
QUESTION 1
You need to import employee photos into SharePoint user profiles by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Define a mapping for the thumbnailPhoto attribute of the Picture user profile property.
B. Run the Update-SPUserSolution Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run an incremental synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
D. Run a full synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
E. Run the Update-SPProfilePhotoStore Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
F. Define a mapping for the photo attribute of the Picture user profile property.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation:
A: Step 3 below.
D: Step 5 below.
E: Step 6 below.
Note: Importing Images into SharePoint User Profiles My Sites To make the user images that we have uploaded into the thumbnail Photo attribute in Active Directory available in SharePoint we will first need to map it to the Picture property in the User Profile Service Application.
Firstly you will need to go into the user Profile Service Application.
1. Central Admin > Application Management > Service Applications > Manage Service Applications > User Profile Service Application
2. Then you will need to go into the manage User Properties section and edit the picture property.
3. Next, we will map the Active Directory property thumbnail Photo to the picture property in SharePoint
4. Once the mapping has been applied the manage User Properties page will look like this.
5. Now we will need to run aFull User Profile Synchronizationjob so that SharePoint can import the user images from Active Directory Synchronization > Start Profile Synchronization > Start Full Synchronization
6. Lastly, we will need to force SharePoint to update the User Profile Database This will create the thumbnails that are used in My Sites and the User Profile Service. This will need to be run in the SharePoint PowerShell Console with the appropriate My Site permissions.
QUESTION 2 70-331 exam
You create a User Profile Synchronization connection.
You need to grant the necessary permissions to the synchronization account.
What should you do?
A. Grant the account Full Control on the active user’s OU.
B. Grant the account Full Control on the AuthenticatedUsers AD security group.
C. Grant the account Read permission on the domain.
D. Grant the account the Replicate Directory Changes permission on the domain.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that content authors can publish the specified files.
What should you do?
A. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
B. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the authoring web application.
C. Create one authoring site collection. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
D. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You copy the content of the SharePoint installation media and software updates to your hard drive.
You need to meet the setup requirements for future SharePoint server installations.
What should you do? 70-331 exam
A. Extract the content of each file to the Updates folder by running the /extract: command.
B. Upgrade the installation media by running the /lang: command.
C. Extract the content of each file to the Setup folder by running the /extract: command.
D. Extract the content of each file to the PrerequisiteInstallerFiles folder by running the /extract: command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You need to implement corporate sizing and performance guidelines for general usage scenarios.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network-attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 100 milliseconds.
B. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 4 TB.
C. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network-attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 20 milliseconds.
D. Limit the number of documents in each document library to 20 million.
E. Limit the number of documents in each content database to 10 million.
F. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 200 GB.
Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation:
C: Network Attached Storage (NAS) is only supported by SharePoint 2013 with iSCSI and if TTFB is less than 20ms.
E: The largest number of items per content database that has been tested on SharePoint Server 2013 is 60 million items, including documents and list items. If you plan to store more than 60 million items in SharePoint Server 2013, you must deploy multiple content databases.
F: We strongly recommended limiting the size of content databases to 200 GB, except when the circumstances in the following rows in this table apply. If you are using Remote BLOB Storage (RBS), the 70-331 exam total volume of remote BLOB storage and metadata in the content database must not exceed this limit.
Note: The use of RBS-enabled content databases larger than 4TB with collaboration sites is not supported.
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QUESTION 1 An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN? A. ISE server B. local WLC C. RADIUS server D. anchor WLC Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What are two common sources of interface for WI-FI networks? (Choose two.) A. radar B. LED lights C. rogue AP D. conventional oven E. fire alarm Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server? A. syslog level errors and less severity messages B. syslog level errors messages C. all syslog levels messages D. syslog level errors and greater severity messages Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which statement about a fabric access point is true? A. It is in local mode an must be connected directly to the fabric border node. B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. C. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch. D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery? A. CISCO-DNA-CONTROlLLER.local B. CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.local D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices? A. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server. B. It is no supported on Cisco devices. C. It required certificates for authentication. D. It is used for HTTP and HTTPs requests. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming is true? A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect access points. B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key Management. C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is supported. D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management. Correct Answer: A References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-DesignGuide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/ch7_HREA.html
QUESTION 8 Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type 2 hypervisor? A. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS. B. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it. C. Type 1 hypervisor relics on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources. D. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.
Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning- tree port-priority 32 command on GO/1 on SW2. but the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Lmk2 to resolve the issue? A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1. B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1. C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2. D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 When reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state? A. Mismatched OSPF network type B. Mismatched areas C. Mismatched MTU size D. Mismatched OSPF link costs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.) A. TCP window size B. TCP MSS C. IP MTU D. DF bit clear E. MTU ignore Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric? A. LISP B. IS-IS C. Cisco TrustSec D. VXLAN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URI. /dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project What does the code mean? A. The client made a request a resource that does not exist. B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request. C. The request accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed. D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, Information about the resource is in the response body. Correct Answer: A
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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Q&As: 97
QUESTION 11 You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
70-489 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phones. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.
QUESTION 12 You need to implement social features.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
dropdown list in the answer area.)
Correct Answer:
Testlet 1 Topic 3, Contoso Ltd Background Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production. Search The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results. Search Engine Optimization The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following 70-489 dumps requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true Managed Metadata Service (MMS) The MMS must include three-term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features. Offices Term Set The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane. Cities Term Set The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical. If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices term set before it can be added to the Cities term set. If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change in the Cities term set. Features Term Set You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The 070-489 pdf features term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about each property, such as whether the building is a single-family house or a condominium. The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the Excel file into the term store in each server environment. Web Application The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles folder. Site Collections and Content The web application includes the following three site collections. Board Member Site Collection The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the 70-489 vce site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board members. Internet Site Collection Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices. Each office must have its own page on the site. The pages for each office must have the same style and structure. Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office. The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a property. The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company. Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member. The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents, including their contact information, certifications, and picture. When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling. The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their 70-489 vce features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web form that is used specifically for data collection.
The webform must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property. Agent Site Collection The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The Agent site collection has the following requirements: The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the website. A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set. Page Layouts and Web Parts Page Layouts You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements: The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts. The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must display biographical information about the board of directors. You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file. Web Parts The Agent Web Part has the following requirements: The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be used by the Web Part.
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