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300-410 Exam Dumps 2022

Updated Cisco 300-410 exam dumps (April). It contains 548+ new 300-410 ENARSI exam question study materials to help you study the 300-410 exam efficiently.

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Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

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New Cisco 300-410 exam dumps comes with free Q&A:

Q&A 1

You configured a device as an IP SLA responder using the following configuration:

Which line indicates that the device is not a Cisco device?

A. frequency 30
B. timeout 1000
C. TCP-connect 10.0.0.1 23 control disable
D. tag FLL-RO

Correct Answer: C

The IP SLA TCP connect operation is used to gather statistics on connection-oriented services. The TCP- connect 10.0.0.1 23 control disable command specifies the IP address to which the responder should respond, the port number on which to respond and it disables the control protocol normally used to inform the responder to temporarily enable the port specified. by the configuration in the sender.

When the responder is a non-Cisco device, a well-known port number must be chosen and the control protocol should be disabled on the responder.

When a Cisco device is the responder, then any port number can be chosen and the control protocol should be left enabled. The frequency 30 command specifies how often the test should occur in seconds. It is not changed in any way as a result of the responder being a non-Cisco device.

The timeout 1000 command specifies in milliseconds the amount of time an IP SLAs operation waits for a response from its request packet. It is not changed in any way as a result of the responder being a non-Cisco device. The tag FLL-RO command simply applies a user-specified identifier to the IP SLAs operation and is changed in any way as a result of the responder being a non-Cisco device.

Objective: Infrastructure Services
Sub-Objective: Configure and verify IP SLA

References:
IP SLAs Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS Release 15MandT > Configuring IP SLAs TCP Connect Operations Cisco > Cisco IOS IP SLAs Command Reference > TCP-connect

Q&A 2

With respect to modifying an OSPF router ID to a loopback address, which of the following statements are true?

A. OSPF is not as reliable if a loopback interface is configured.
B. Using a loopback address avoids wasting an additional IP address.
C. A loopback interface is not always active, and it can go “down” like a real interface.
D. The loopback address does not automatically appear in the routing table of neighboring OSPF routers, so it cannot be pinged from other routers unless you include it with a network statement on the router local to the loopback interface.

Correct Answer: D

A loopback address does not automatically appear in neighboring routers\’ routing tables, so it cannot be pinged for network troubleshooting.

A workaround for this problem is to add a network statement under OSPF that advertises the loopback address network so that other routers will know how to reach your loopback.

A loopback address is an IP address assigned to a loopback interface, which is a logical interface on a router that behaves like a physical interface. Their advantage is that, unlike physical interfaces, logical interfaces do not go down.

For example: Router(config)# interface loopback 0
Router(config-if)# ip address 172.17.1.1 255.255.255.0
In the example, a loopback IP address is used by OSPF to provide its router ID. This type of address is preferred because it is assumed to be more stable than a router ID tied to a physical interface.

The traditional problem with a router ID tied to a physical interface is that if the physical interface were to go down, the router would have to change its router ID to some other value.

That would cause the OSPF neighbor relationships to reset and change values in the link-state advertisements (LSAs), causing a disruption to the OSPF area.

With this consideration in mind, OSPF is more reliable when using a loopback interface than using a physical interface. Using a loopback address does not avoid wasting an additional IP address. The address must still be unique. A loopback interface is always active, and it cannot go “down” as a physical interface can.

Objective: Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective: Configure and verify OSPF operations
References: Cisco > IP Routing: OSPF Configuration Guide > Configuring OSPF > Forcing the Router ID Choice with a Loopback Interface

Q&A 3

Which of the following commands is used to verify the link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses of an IPv6 router?

A. show ipv6 neighbors (only link-local addresses)
B. show ipv6 route
C. show ipv6 protocols
D. show ipv6 interface

Correct Answer: D

The show ipv6 interface command is used to verify the link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses assigned to an IPv6-enabled router interface. The show ipv6 interface command displays information regarding that interface, such as the physical state, MTU, and IPv6 enable/disable state.

A partial output of the show ipv6 interface command on an IPv6-enabled router named it is as follows:

In the given sample output, you can see that the Fa0/1 interface of rtrA has the link-local address FE80::6339:7BFF:FE5D:A031/64 and the global unicast address 2001:7067:90D1:1::1. The global unicast address is not in EUI-64 format because when the ipv6 address command was issued, the eui64 keyword was not used.

If EUI-64 format had been specified with the eui64 keyword, the global unicast address would have been 2001:7067:90D1:1:6339:7BFF:FE5D:A031.

An IPv6-enabled interface has not only a link-local and global unicast address, but also one or more multicast addresses. A multicast address is an IPv6 address that has the prefix FF00::/8. These addresses are assigned to interfaces of different nodes such that they appear as a logical group.

This implies that when a packet is destined for a multicast address, that packet is delivered to all the interfaces that have the same multicast address.

The various multicast groups are as follows: FF02::1 Indicates the group of all the nodes on the local segment FF02::2 Indicates the group of all the routers on the local segment FF02::1:FF00:0/104 Indicates a solicited-node multicast group for every unicast or anycast address assigned to the interface

You can also notice in the sample output that the Fa0/1 interface belongs to three multicast groups: FF02::1, FF02::2, and FF02::1:FF5D:A031. The first two multicast groups refer to the all-host and all-router multicast groups, respectively.

The third group, FF02::1:FF5D:A031, is the solicited-node multicast address. This address is created for every unicast or anycast address. A solicited-node multicast address is determined by assigning the least significant 24 bits of the unicast address to the least significant 24 bits of the FF02::1:FF00:0 address.

The show ipv6 neighbors command displays the link-local /global unicast addresses of the neighbors, including other information such as state and the next-hop interface.

The show ipv6 route command is used to view the IPv6 routing table on the router. This command displays the prefixes, administrative distance, metric, and next-hop addresses for various IPv6 networks.
The show ipv6 protocols command is used to view the active routing protocols for IPv6 on the router.

This command shows the interfaces, redistribution status, and summarization status about each of the routing protocols enabled on the router. Objective: Layer 3 Technologies Sub-Objective: Identify IPv6 addressing and subnetting

References:

Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > show ipv6 eigrp topology through show ipv6 nat statistics > show ipv6 interface Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > show ipv6 nat translations through show ipv6 protocols > show ipv6 neighbors Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > show ipv6 nat translations through show ipv6 protocols > show ipv6 protocols
Cisco > Products and Services > Cisco IOS and NX-OS Software > Cisco IOS Technologies > IPv6 > Product Literature White Papers > Cisco IOS IPv6 Multicast Introduction Cisco > IPv6 Implementation Guide, Release 15.2MandT > Implementing IPv6 Multicast

Q&A 4

Which command can you use to display the area border routers (ABRs) and the routes to them?

A. show ip ospf dr
B. show ip opsf bdr
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf border-routers

Correct Answer: D

The correct answer is show ip ospf border-routers. The following commands are available to verify OSPF configurations: show ip ospf border-routers – displays internal ISPF routing table entries for an ABR. show ip ospf virtual-links – displays the current state of OSPF virtual links. show ip ospf – displays information about the router\’s role and each area to which the router is connected. show ip ospf database – displays the contents of the router\’s topological database.

Note that a number of keywords can be used with the show ip ospf database command to get specific information. The command show ip ospf dr is not correct because dr is not a parameter of the show ip ospf command. The command show ip ospf bdr is not correct because bdr is not a parameter of the show ip ospf command.

Objective: Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective: Configure and verify network types, area types, and router types
References: Cisco > Cisco IOS IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference > show ip ospf border-routers

Q&A 5

Examine the following output of the show ip ospf interface command.

What would be the effect of executing the auto-cost reference bandwidth 2000 command on Router43 in router OSPF mode?

A. the cost of the Serial interface would increase to 20
B. the cost of the FastEthernet interfaces would increase to 2000
C. the cost of the Serial interface would increase to 647
D. the cost of the FastEthernet interfaces would increase to 20

Correct Answer: D

If the auto-cost reference bandwidth 2000 command is executed in router OSPF mode it will result in a cost to the FastEthernet interfaces of 20. The formula for arriving at the cost is: reference bandwidth / interface bandwidth = cost

The default reference bandwidth for FastEthernet is 100 Mbps. If the reference bandwidth is set at 2000 Mbps using the auto-cost reference command, and the FastEthernet interface has a bandwidth of 100 Mbps, the resulting cost is 20 (2000 / 100 = 20).

The auto-cost reference bandwidth command is executed in router OSPF mode to affect all interfaces. Alternatively, the cost of each interface can be set separately with the ip ospf cost command issued in interface configuration mode.

The two commands can also be used in combination: you can set all interfaces with the auto-cost reference bandwidth command, and then set a single interface to a different cost with the ip ospf cost command.

The command would not result in the cost of the Serial interface increasing to 20 or to 647. With a reference bandwidth of 2000 Mbps and interface bandwidth of 1544 kbps (the default bandwidth of a serial interface), the resulting cost would be 1294.

Objective:
Layer 3 Technologies
Sub-Objective:
Configure and verify OSPF path preference

References:
Cisco > Home > Support > Technology Support > IP > IP Routing > Technology Information > Technology White Paper OSPF Design Guide > OSPF Cost Cisco > Cisco IOS IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference > show ip ospf interface Cisco > Cisco IOS IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference > auto-cost

Q&A 6

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the MPLS terms from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place

+
device that forwards traffic based on labels: P
+
path that the labeled packet takes: LSP
+
device that is unaware of MPLS labeling: CE
+
device that removes and adds the MPLS labeling: PE

Q&A 7

Which show command displays the status of all of a router\\’s Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) connections in a concise format?

A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp summary
C. show ip bgp connections
D. show ip bgp neighbor\\’s summary

Correct Answer: B

The correct answer is show ip bgp summary.
Although show ip bgp neighbors will show you the status of your connections to neighbors, only show ip bgp summary shows it to you in a concise, summarized format, with one neighbor listed per line. It displays both iBGP and eBGP neighbors and the number of prefixes that have been learned from the neighbor.

Below is an example of the output of the show ip bgp summary command:

The following information can be obtained from this output:
The BGP session to 192.168.5.1 is established. A number in the State column indicates that the session is established.

This number indicates the number of prefixes received from the neighbor. Router6 is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 192.168.6.1 neighbor. This is indicated by the keyword Active in the State column.

Several show commands can be used to verify BGP configuration and operation:
show ip bgp – displays the contents of the BGP routing table show ip bgp summary – displays the status of BGP connections in a summary format show ip bgp neighbors – displays information about the TCP and BGP connections to neighbors

Objective: Layer 3 Technologies Sub-Objective: Describe, configure, and verify BGP peer relationships and authentication
References: Cisco IOS Master Command List, Release 12.4 > a through b > BGP > Commands: show ip through T > show ip bgp summary

Q&A 8

You have recently joined a company as the network administrator. You have been asked to complete the configuration on the border routers for an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel between several IPv6 network domains. The commands that are currently configured on the routers are as follows:

ipv6 route tunnel interface tunnel ipv6 address tunnel source
Which of the following additional commands is required to complete the configuration of automatic 6-to-4 tunnel on the border routers?

A. tunnel mode ipv6ip
B. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4
C. tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel
D. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

Correct Answer: B

The correct answer is to use the tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4 command to complete the configuration of an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel. This command requires the use of IPv6 unicast addresses that have the 2002::/16 prefix.

The types of tunneling mechanisms supported by IPv6 are: Automatic 6-to-4 tunnel ISATAP tunnel Manually configured tunnel GRE tunnel Apart from using a tunneling mechanism, interoperability between IPv4 and IPv6 can be provided by using a dual-stack infrastructure or Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation (NAT-PT).

A dual-stack infrastructure allows you to use both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on the same router/host. NAT-PT is used to translate IPv4 addresses to IPv6 and vice versa. The tunnel mode ipv6ip command should not be used to complete the configuration because this command specifies IPv6 as the passenger protocol and creates a manually configured tunnel.

The tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel command is not required to enable automatic 6-to-4 tunneling on the border routers. This command creates an automatic IPv4-compatible IPv6 tunnel between the routers.
The tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap command should not be used because this command creates an ISATAP tunnel.

Objective:
Network Principles
Sub-Objective:
Recognize proposed changes to the network
References:
Cisco IOS IPv6 Configuration Guide; Implementing Tunneling for IPv6 > Configuring Manual IPv6 Tunnels Cisco > Cisco IOS IPv6 Command Reference > tunnel mode ipv6ip

Q&A 9

Refer to the exhibit. The AP status from Cisco DNA Center Assurance Dashboard shows some physical connectivity issues from access switch interface G1/0/14.

Which command generates the diagnostic data to resolve the physical connectivity issues?

A. check cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14
B. verify cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14
C. show cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14
D. test cable-diagnostics tdr interface GigabitEthernet1/0/14

Correct Answer: D

Q&A 10

You are configuring NAT64 to allow communication between a host running IPv6 and a server running IPv4. The router R1 sits between the host and the server. The router\\’s Fa0/2/7 interface is connected to the IPv6 host, and the Fa0/2/6 interface is connected to the IPv4 server.

The IPv6 host has an IPv6 address of 2001::a00:1/128 and the IPv4 server is at 10.0.0.1. Below is the relevant configuration on R1:

When the IPv4 server responds to the IPv6 host, what IPv6 address will be in the source address in the packet?

A. 2001::a001
B. 2001::A00:B
C. 3001::a00:1
D. 2001::A00:A

Correct Answer: C

NAT64 is a solution when IPv6 hosts need to communicate with IPv4-only servers. When the translation occur on the router the IPv4 address 10.0.0.1 will converted to hex as a00:1 and will be attached to the end of the stateful prefix of 3001::/96 that was configured on the router interface connected to the IPv4 server. The result will be 3001::a00:1.

The address will not be 2001::a001. The prefix that will be attached to the hex version of 10.0.0.1 will not be that of the interface fa0/2/7 but will be the prefix that was configured on that interface for nat64 translation which is 3301::/96. The address will not be 2001::a00:b.

That is the IPv6 address on the interface connected to the IPv6 host, but that address is not used for IPv4 to IPv6 communication. A translated address will be generated by converting the IPv4 address of the IPv4 host to hex and attaching it to the IPv6 prefix configured on the interface connected to the IPv4 server.

The address will not be 2001::A00:A. That is the IPv6 address of the IPv6 host. That was statically mapped to 10.0.0.10 in the configuration and as such will be the IPv4 address used by the IPv6 host on the IPv4 side of the router.

Objective:
Infrastructure Services
Sub-Objective:
Describe IPv6 NAT
References:
Stateful Network Address Translation 64 (PDF)

Q&A 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator sets up an OSPF routing protocol for a DMVPN network on the hub router.

Which configuration command is required to establish a DMVPN tunnel with multiple spokes?

A. ip ospf network point-to-point on the hub router
B. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint on one spoke router
C. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint on both spoke routers
D. ip ospf network point-to-point on both spoke routers

Correct Answer: C

Q&A 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet is redistributed from EIGRP to OSPF routing protocols?

A. 10.2.2.0/24
B. 10.1.4.0/26
C. 10.1.2.0/24
D. 10.2.3.0/26

Correct Answer: A

Q&A 13

Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes why the EIGRP neighbors of this router are not learning routes that are received from OSPF?

A. The subnet defined in OSPF is not part of area 0.
B. Default metrics are not configured under EIGRP.
C. There is no overlap in the subnets advertised.
D. The routing protocols do not have the same AS number.

Correct Answer: B

……

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Microsoft Fundamentals DP-900 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
When provisioning an Azure Cosmos DB account, which feature provides redundancy within an Azure region?
A. multi-master replication
B. Availability Zones
C. automatic failover
D. the strong consistency level
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics of real-time data processing? Each correct answer present a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Data is processed as it is created.
B. Low latency is expected
C. High latency acceptable
D. Data is processed periodically
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Your company has a reporting solution that has paginated reports. The reports query a dimensional model in a data
warehouse. Which type of processing does the reporting solution use?
A. stream processing
B. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
C. batch processing
D. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Match the tools to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate tool from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each tool may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
Your company is designing a data store tor internet-connected temperature sensors. The collected data will be used to
analyze temperature trends. Which type of data store should you use?
A. relational
B. columnar
C. graph
D. time series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q6.QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of the Azure Cosmos DB Table API as compared to Azure Table storage?
A. supports partitioning
B. provides resiliency if art Azure region fads
C. provides a higher storage capacity
D. supports a multi-master model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Match the Azure data factory components to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each component
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q8

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You have the following SQL query.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q9

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Hot Area:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 10
You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet.
You recently changed your external IP address.
After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure.
What is a possible cause of the issue?
A. a database-level firewall
B. role-based access control (RSAC)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Domain Name Service (DNS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have an e-commerce application that reads and writes data to an Azure SQL database. Which type of processing
does the application use?
A. stream processing
B. batch processing
C. Online Analytical Processing (OLTP)
D. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Match the types of workloads to the appropriate scenarios.
To answer, drag the appropriate workload type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each workload
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 10 You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet. You recently changed your external IP address. After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure. What is a possible cause of the issue? A. a database-level firewall B. role-based access control (RSAC) C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) D. Domain Name Service (DNS) Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 You have an e-commerce application that reads and writes data to an Azure SQL database. Which type of processing does the application use? A. stream processing B. batch processing C. Online Analytical Processing (OLTP) D. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Match the types of workloads to the appropriate scenarios. To answer, drag the appropriate workload type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each workload type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:

QUESTION 13
You need to develop a solution to provide data to executives. the solution must provide an interactive graphic interface,
depict various key performance indications, and support data exploration by using drill down. What should you use in
Microsoft Power BI?
A. a dashboard
B. Microsoft Power Apps
C. a dataflow
D. a report
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

An administrator performs a major upgrade of a Cisco Meeting Server cluster that contains multiple database nodes.
Which step ensures that the Call Bridge can use the database?

A. The command database cluster initialize must be run on the master database node.
B. The master database node must be the first server to complete the upgrade process.
C. The command database cluster upgrade_schema must be run on the master database node.
D. The master database node must create a new database cluster and join the peer servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/210530-configure-cisco-meetingserver-call-brid.html

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit. What does this notification indicate about activity over the last 90 days?

A. In cluster 2, more licenses have been used than are installed for less than 15 days.
B. In cluster 3, the license agreement will remain in compliance for 20 more days.
C. In cluster 4, at least 5 percent of the installed licenses have not been used.
D. In cluster 6, the license agreement has been out of compliance for more than 30 days.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

cms1> webadmin Enabled : true TLS listening interface : a Key listening port : 445 Key file : webadmin.key Certificate
file : webadmin.crt HTTP redirect : Disabled STATUS : webadmin running cms1> pki inspect webadmin.crt Checking
ssh public keys . . . not found Checking user configured certificates and keys . . .

found File contains a PEM encoded certificate Certificate: Data: Version: 3 (0x2) Serial Number: 638104639 (0x2608b43f) Signature Algorithm:
sha256WithRSAEncryption Issuer: 0=Cisco Systems, Inc.

Validity Not Before: Dec 4 11:58:31 2020 GMT Not After :
Dec 3 11:58:31 2025 GMT Subject : 0=Cisco Systems, Inc Subject Public Key Info: Public Key Algorithm: rsaEncryption
RSA Public-Key: (2048 bit) Modulus:

00 : 9e : c9 : 0e :ba : 1d : 5b : 10 : f7 : 6c : 0d : 9a : 9e : 37 : 8d :
91 : b1 : d8 : 91 : 63 : 1e : 9b : e3 : 19 : 6e : 9e : f7 : d1 : c9 : fe :
91 : 9d : c4 : 55 : 32 : 77 : 98 : f1 : 81 : fd : c3 : 55 : b5 : 04 : 1a : 3c : fb : b9 : 67 : 6c : eb : 66 : 23 : 91 : 5a : 8f : 25 : 4e :
59 : 8f :

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer tries to configure Cisco Meeting Server as a Conference Bridge on the Cisco UCM, but
the Conference Bridge does not register. Which configuration step should be completed?

A. HTTP redirection must be enabled for Web Admin.
B. A CA-signed certificate must be issued and installed for Web Admin.
C. Web Admin must be configured to run on TCP port 443.
D. SSH public keys must be installed.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which of the following protocol or Expressway-E service is required for external web app participants to join a Cisco
Meeting Server version 3.0 conference as guests?

A. H.323
B. SIP
C. TURN
D. XMPP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

After performing an upgrade of the Cisco Meeting Server cluster, an engineer sees an error message indicating that
Cisco Meeting Server is not licensed. Also, no spaces or users show in the GUI. What should be done to resolve this
issue?

A. The database cluster upgrade_schema command must be run on the new database cluster master.
B. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded using the same file to upgrade all nodes.
C. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded with the database master being first and then all peers.
D. New database certificates must be generated for each peer in the cluster.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Release_Notes/Version-3-0/Cisco-Meeting-Server-Release-Notes-3-0.pdf

QUESTION 6

An administrator must create conference resources for phones that are registered to Cisco UCM. The administrator
adds Cisco Meeting Server as a Conference Bridge to Cisco UCM to accomplish this task. Where should the
administrator add the Conference Bridge to allow phones to use Cisco Meeting Server for conferences?

A. to a device pool
B. to a media resource group
C. to a SIP trunk
D. to a security profile

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213820-configure-cisco-meetingserver-and-cucm.html

QUESTION 7

To which two places should an administrator go to view an upcoming meeting scheduled on Cisco Meeting Server?
(Choose two.)

A. Cisco Meeting Server MMP interface
B. Cisco Meeting Management meetings interface
C. Cisco Meeting Server web user interface
D. Cisco Meeting Server API
E. Cisco TMS interface

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/Cisco-Meeting-Management/User-Guide/CiscoMeeting-Management-3-1-User-Guide-Video-Operator.pdf

QUESTION 8

How should an administrator configure Skype for Business to work with a Cisco Meeting Server cluster?

A. with the CsTrustedApplicationPool on the Lync/Skype server to specify the Cisco Meeting Server Web Admin FQDN
B. with the CsTrustedApplication Pool on the Lync/Skype server to specify port 5060
C. with CsStaticRoute on the Lync/Skype server to the first Call Bridge in the cluster
D. with the CsTrustedApplication Pool ComputerFqdn to the first Call Bridge in the cluster

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/212217-configure-cisco-meetingserver-and-skype.html#anc13

QUESTION 9

An engineer plans a Cisco Meeting Server deployment for a small company that has 60 percent of its employees
working on-site and 40 percent working remotely. The company security policy limits core server access to internal
clients. Which deployment model should be used?

A. Single Combined
B. Single Split
C. Cluster
D. Scalable and Resilient

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://cmslab.ciscolive.com/pod7

QUESTION 10

Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 4938 v=0 o=Acano 0 0 IN IP4 10.0.101.120 s=c=IN IP4 10.0.101.120
b=CT:16 t=0 0 m=audio 50262 RTP/AVP 108 107 109 110 9 99 111 100 104 103 0 8 15 102 18 13 118 101 a=crypto:1
AEAD_AES_128_GCM |2^48 a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM

|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_80
|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_32 |2^48 m=video 50264 RTP/AVP 97 116 114 96 34 31 100 121
b=TIAS:16000 a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM |2^48 a=crypto:2
AEAD_AES_256_GCM |2^48 a=crypto:3

AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_80 |2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_32 |2^48 a=content:main a=sendrecv
a=sprop-source:1 count=2;policies=cs:1 a=sprop-simul:1 1 * a=rtcp-fb:* nack pli a=rtcp-fb:* ccm fir a=rtcp-fb:* ccm ciscoscr a=extmap:1 http://protocols.cisco.com/virtualid a=extmap:2 http://protocols.cisco.com/framemarking a=rtpmap:97

H264/90000 a=fmtp:97 profile-level-id=42800a;max-mpbs=489600;max-fs=8160;max-cpb=4000;max-dpd=4752;maxfps=6000

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that they do not see a high-quality picture on the high-definition endpoints when they call into Cisco Meeting Server. An engineer must extract the SDP that is offered by Cisco Meeting Server from the SIP traces to troubleshoot. What is the cause of this issue?

A. Cisco Meeting Server is not configured for H.265 to support high-definition video calling.
B. The AES ciphers are not compatible with high-definition video calling.
C. The Content-Length value in the SDP does not support high-definition video calling.
D. The SIP call bandwidth is not at a value that supports high-definition video calling.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

An administrator sets up conference resources by using a clustered Cisco Meeting Server deployment for video
endpoints that are registered to Expressway. The administrator must ensure that no single server gets overloaded within the cluster. What should be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. a record with the cluster FQDN of the Cisco Meeting Server in the external DNS servers.
B. Expressway-C as the traversal client to Expressway-E.
C. Cisco Meeting Server and Expressway-C in the same domain.
D. a separate zone for Cisco Meeting Server servers in the cluster.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server with Expressway for external web app access and must enable
participants to use the web app to join conferences that are hosted on the meeting server. Which service should be
used in the Expressway-E to accomplish this goal?

A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. SIP
C. XMPP server
D. TURN

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-MeetingServer-Deployment-Planning-and-Preparation-with-Expressway-Guide.pdf

QUESTION 13

An engineer must configure Cisco Meeting Server integration to Cisco UCM. Which DNS A record must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. Call Bridge
B. SRV
C. Conference Name
D. Cisco UCM Subscriber

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213821-configure-and-integratecms-single-combi.html

QUESTION 14

Which type of zone should be configured on the Expressway-C to route calls to Cisco Meeting Server spaces?

A. ENUM
B. DNS
C. traversal
D. neighbor

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

A corporation must configure Cisco TelePresence Management Suite Extension for Microsoft Exchange for users to
schedule meetings with Outlook. What must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. Cisco UCM endpoints
B. a client certificate and password to interact with Active Directory
C. Room mailboxes dedicated for the use of TelePresence scheduling
D. Cisco TMS provisioning extension

Correct Answer: D

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[AI-102 practice test q1-q15] Free sharing of AI-102 exam questions and answers from Pass4itSure

QUESTION 1 #

You build a language model by using a Language Understanding service. The language model is used to search for
information on a contact list by using an intent named FindContact. A conversational expert provides you with the following list of phrases to use for training. Find contacts in London.

Who do I know in Seattle?
Search for contacts in Ukraine.
You need to implement the phrase list in Language Understanding.
Solution: You create a new entity for the domain.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

Instead, use a new intent for location.
Note: An intent represents a task or action the user wants to perform. It is a purpose or goal expressed in a user\\’s
utterance.
Define a set of intents that corresponds to actions users want to take in your application.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/luis/luis-concept-intent

QUESTION 2 #

DRAG-DROP
You are developing a call to the Face API. The call must find similar faces from an existing list named employee’s faces.
The employee faces list contains 60,000 images.

How should you complete the body of the HTTP request? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets.
Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

AI-102 q2

Box 1: LargeFaceListID
LargeFaceList: Add a face to a specified large face list, up to 1,000,000 faces.

Note: Given query face\\’s face, to search the similar-looking faces from a faced array, a facelift, or a large face list. A
“faceListId” is created by FaceList – Create containing persistedFaceIds that will not expire. And a “largeFaceListId” is
created by LargeFaceList – Create containing persistedFaceIds that will also not expire.

Incorrect Answers:
Not “faceListId”: Add a face to a specified face list, up to 1,000 faces.
Box 2: matchFace
Find similar has two working modes, “matchPerson” and “watch face”. “matchPerson” is the default mode that tries to
find faces of the same person as possible by using internal same-person thresholds.

It is useful to find a known
person\\’s other photos. Note that an empty list will be returned if no faces pass the internal thresholds. “matchFace” mode ignores same-person thresholds and returns ranked similar faces anyway, even the similarity is low. It can be used in the cases like searching for celebrity-looking faces.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/faceapi/face/findsimilar

QUESTION 3 #

You have the following C# method for creating Azure Cognitive Services resources programmatically.

AI-102 q3

You need to call the method to create a free Azure resource in the West US Azure region. The resource will be used to
generate captions of images automatically. Which code should you use?

A. create_resource(client, “res1”, “ComputerVision”, “F0”, “westus”)
B. create_resource(client, “res1”, “CustomVision.Prediction”, “F0”, “westus”)
C. create_resource(client, “res1”, “ComputerVision”, “S0”, “westus”)
D. create_resource(client, “res1”, “CustomVision.Prediction”, “S0”, “westus”)
Correct Answer: B

Many of the Cognitive Services have a free tier you can use to try the service. To use the free tier, use F0 as the SKU
for your resource. There are two tiers of keys for the Custom Vision service. You can sign up for an F0 (free) or S0
(standard) subscription through the Azure portal.

Incorrect Answers:
A: There is no free tier (F0) for ComputerVision.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/cognitive-services-apis-create-account-clientlibrary?pivots=programming-language-csharp https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/custom-visionservice/limits-and-quotas

QUESTION 4 #

You successfully run the following HTTP request.
POST-https://management.azure.com/subscriptions/18c51a87-3a69-47a8-aedca54745f708a1/resourceGroups/RG1/providers/Microsoft.CognitiveServices/accounts/contosol/regenerateKey?apiversion=2017-04-18
Body{“keyName”: “Key2”}
What is the result of the request?

A. A key for Azure Cognitive Services was generated in Azure Key Vault.
B. A new query key was generated.
C. The primary subscription key and the secondary subscription key were rotated.
D. The secondary subscription key was reset.
Correct Answer: B

Accounts – Regenerate Key regenerates the specified account key for the specified Cognitive Services account.
Syntax: POST https://management.azure.com/subscriptions/{subscriptionId}/resourceGroups/{resourceGroupName}/providers/
Microsoft.CognitiveServices/accounts/{accountName}/regenerateKey?api-version=2017-04-18

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/cognitiveservices/accountmanagement/accounts/regeneratekey

QUESTION 5 #

You are developing a photo application that will find photos of a person based on a sample image by using the Face
API.
You need to create a POST request to find the photos.
How should you complete the request? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may
be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

AI-102 q5

Correct Answer:

AI-102 q5-2

Box 1: detect
Face – Detect With Url: Detect human faces in an image, return face rectangles, and optionally with faces, landmarks,
and attributes. POST {Endpoint}/face/v1.0/detect

Box 2: match person
Find similar has two working modes, “matchPerson” and “watch face”. “matchPerson” is the default mode that tries to
find faces of the same person as possible by using internal same-person thresholds. It is useful to find a known
person\\’s other photos. Note that an empty list will be returned if no faces pass the internal thresholds. “matchFace” mode ignores same-person thresholds and returns ranked similar faces anyway, even the similarity is low. It can be used in the cases like searching for celebrity-looking faces.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/faceapi/face/detectwithurl
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/faceapi/face/findsimilar

QUESTION 6 #

You have a Video Indexer service that is used to provide a search interface over company videos on your company\’s
website.
You need to be able to search for videos based on who is present in the video.
What should you do?

A. Create a personal model and associate the model to the videos.
B. Create person objects and provide face images for each object.
C. Invite the entire staff of the company to Video Indexer.
D. Edit the faces in the videos.
E. Upload names to a language model.
Correct Answer: A

Video Indexer supports multiple Person models per account. Once a model is created, you can use it by providing the
model ID of a specific Person model when uploading/indexing or reindexing a video. Training a new face for a video
updates the specific custom model that the video was associated with.

Note: Video Indexer supports face detection and celebrity recognition for video content. The celebrity recognition feature covers about one million faces based on commonly requested data sources such as IMDB, Wikipedia, and top LinkedIn influencers.

Faces that aren\’t recognized by the celebrity recognition feature are detected but left unnamed. Once you
label a face with a name, the face and name get added to your account\’s Person model. Video Indexer will then
recognize this face in your future videos and past videos.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/media-services/video-indexer/customize-person-model-with-api

QUESTION 7 #

HOTSPOT
You need to create a new resource that will be used to perform sentiment analysis and optical character recognition
(OCR). The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use a single key and endpoint to access multiple services. Consolidate billing for future services that you might use.
Support the use of Computer Vision in the future.
How should you complete the HTTP request to create the new resource? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AI-102 q7

Correct Answer:

AI-102 q7-2

Box 1: PUT
Sample Request: PUT https://management.azure.com/subscriptions/00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000/resourc
eGroups/test-rg/providers/Microsoft.DeviceUpdate/accounts/contoso?api-version=2020-03-01-preview

Incorrect Answers:
PATCH is for updates.
Box 2: CognitiveServices
Microsoft Azure Cognitive Services provide us to use its pre-trained models for various Business Problems related to
Machine Learning.

List of Different Services are:
Decision
Language (includes sentiment analysis)
Speech
Vision (includes OCR)
Web Search

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/deviceupdate/resourcemanager/accounts/create
https://www.analyticsvidhya.com/blog/2020/12/microsoft-azure-cognitive-services-api-for-ai-development/

QUESTION 8 #

You are building a multilingual chatbot.
You need to send a different answer for positive and negative messages.
Which two Text Analytics APIs should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.) NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Linked entities from a well-known knowledge base
B. Sentiment Analysis
C. Key Phrases
D. Detect Language
E. Named Entity Recognition
Correct Answer: BD

B: The Text Analytics API\’s Sentiment Analysis feature provides two ways for detecting positive and negative
sentiment. If you send a Sentiment Analysis request, the API will return sentiment labels (such as “negative”, “neutral”
and “positive”) and confidence scores at the sentence and document level.

D: The Language Detection feature of the Azure Text Analytics REST API evaluates text input for each document and
returns language identifiers with a score that indicates the strength of the analysis.
This capability is useful for content stores that collect arbitrary text, where language is unknown.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/text-analytics/how-tos/text-analytics-how-tosentiment-analysis?tabs=version-3-1
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/text-analytics/how-tos/text-analytics-how-to-languagedetection

QUESTION 9 #

HOTSPOT
You are building a chatbot by using the Microsoft Bot Framework SDK.
You use an object named UserProfile to store user profile information and an object named ConversationData to store
information related to a conversation. You create the following state accessors to store both objects in state.

var userStateAccessors = _userState.CreateProperty(name of(UserProfile));
var conversationStateAccessors = _conversationState.CreateProperty(name of(ConversationData));
The state storage mechanism is set to Memory Storage.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

AI-102 q9

Box 1: Yes
You create property accessors using the CreateProperty method that provides a handle to the BotState object. Each
state property accessor allows you to get or set the value of the associated state property.
Box 2: Yes
Box 3: No
Before you exit the turn handler, you use the state management objects\’ SaveChangesAsync() method to write all
state changes back to storage.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/bot-service/bot-builder-howto-v4-state

QUESTION 10 #

You need to build a chatbot that meets the following requirements:
Supports chit-chat, knowledge base, and multilingual models Perform sentiment analysis on user messages Selects
the best language model automatically
What should you integrate into the chatbot?

A. QnA Maker, Language Understanding, and Dispatch
B. Translator, Speech, and Dispatch
C. Language Understanding, Text Analytics, and QnA Maker
D. Text Analytics, Translator, and Dispatch
Correct Answer: C

Language Understanding: An AI service that allows users to interact with your applications, bots, and IoT devices by
using natural language.

QnA Maker is a cloud-based Natural Language Processing (NLP) service that allows you to create a natural
conversational layer over your data. It is used to find the most appropriate answer for any input from your custom
knowledge base (KB) of information.

Text Analytics: my insights in unstructured text using natural language processing (NLP)–no machine learning
expertise required. Gain a deeper understanding of customer opinions with sentiment analysis. The Language Detection feature of the Azure Text Analytics, REST API evaluates text input

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: Dispatch uses sample utterances for each of your bot\’s different tasks (LUIS, QnA Maker, or custom), and
builds a model that can be used to properly route your user\’s request to the right task, even across multiple bots.
Reference:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/text-analytics/ https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/cognitive-services/qnamaker/overview/overview

QUESTION 11 #

You are developing a smart e-commerce project.
You need to implement auto-completion as part of the Cognitive Search solution.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose three.)
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Make API queries to the autocomplete endpoint and include the suggested name in the body.
B. Add a suggester that has the three product name fields as source fields.
C. Make API queries to the search endpoint and includes the product name fields in the search fields query parameter.
D. Add a suggester for each of the three product name fields.
E. Set the search analyzer property for the three product name variants.
F. Set the analyzer property for the three product name variants.
Correct Answer: ABF

Scenario: Support autocompletion and autosuggestion based on all product name variants.
A: Call a suggester-enabled query, in the form of a Suggestion request or Autocomplete request, using an API. API
usage is illustrated in the following call to the Autocomplete REST API.
POST /indexes/myxboxgames/docs/autocomplete?searchandapi-version=2020-06-30
{ “search”: “minecraf”, “suggesterName”: “sg”}

B: In Azure Cognitive Search, typeahead or “search-as-you-type” is enabled through a suggester. A suggester provides a list of fields that undergo additional tokenization, generating prefix sequences to support matches on partial terms. For example, a suggester that includes a City field with a value for “Seattle” will have prefix combinations of “sea”, “seat”, “seat”, and “Seattle” to support typeahead.

F. Use the default standard Lucene analyzer (“analyzer”: null) or a language analyzer (for example, “analyzer”:
“en. Microsoft”) on the field.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/index-add-suggesters

QUESTION 12 #

You plan to use a Language Understanding application named app1 that is deployed to a container.
App1 was developed by using a Language Understanding authoring resource named lu1.
App1 has the versions shown in the following table.

AI-102 q12

You need to create a container that uses the latest deployable version of app1.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. (Choose three.)

Select and Place:

AI-102 q12-2

Correct Answer:

AI-102 q12-3

QUESTION 13 #

You build a custom Form Recognizer model.
You receive sample files to use for training the model as shown in the following table.

AI-102 q13

B. File2
C. File3
D. File4
E. File5
F. File6
Correct Answer: ACF

Input requirements
Form Recognizer works on input documents that meet these requirements:
The format must be JPG, PNG, PDF (text or scanned), or TIFF. Text-embedded PDFs are best because there\\’s no
possibility of error in character extraction and location.
File size must be less than 50 MB.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/form-recognizer/overview

QUESTION 14 #

You develop an application to identify species of flowers by training a Custom Vision model.
You receive images of new flower species.
You need to add the new images to the classifier.
Solution: You add the new images and labels to the existing model. You retrain the model and then publish the model.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The model needs to be extended and retrained.

QUESTION 15 #

You have 100 chatbots that each have its own Language Understanding model. Frequently, you must add the same phrases to each model.

You need to programmatically update the Language Understanding models to include the new phrases.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

AI-102 q15

Box 1: AddPhraseListAsync Example: Add phraselist feature
var phraselistId = await client.Features.AddPhraseListAsync(appId, versionId, new PhraselistCreateObject
{ EnabledForAllModels = false, IsExchangeable = true, Name = “QuantityPhraselist”, Phrases = “few,more,extra”
});
Box 2: PhraselistCreateObject
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/luis/client-libraries-rest-api

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MB-240: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service
MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Core Finance and Operations
MB-310: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance
MB-320: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing
MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management
MB-400: Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Developer

MB-500: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Apps Developer
MB-600: Microsoft Dynamics 365 + Power Platform Solution
MB-700: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect
MB-800: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant
MD-100: Windows 10
MD-101: Managing Modern Desktops
MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services
MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security
MS-203: Microsoft 365 Messaging
MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork
MS-301: Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
MS-500: Microsoft 365 Security Administration
MS-600: Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core Services
MS-700: Managing Microsoft Teams
PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker
PL-200: Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant
PL-400: Microsoft Power Platform Developer
SC-200: Microsoft Security Operations Analyst
SC-300: Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator
SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

For more details, check out the official website. I won’t introduce it in detail here.

Reminder: Role-based certification and professional certification are valid for one year. (The purpose of this new method is to enable technical professionals to demonstrate that their skills are relevant in the market and to help them keep up with evolving technology.)

How to pass the Microsoft role-based certification?

Here I will explain to you the process and learning method of the role-based certification exam, of course, including the method of passing the exam!

In the first step, you will choose a learning path based on the role you desire to prepare for the exam. For example, take practice tests to build your confidence and let you know where you are weak and become strong.

In the second step, when you are ready to take the exam, plan to spend about three hours, including 30 minutes of introduction, instructions, and comments. You need to answer 40-60 questions.

The most important point, make sure you have the current requirements and training sites to have the best chance of passing the exam.

In this case, for example, you passed the 70-XXX series of exams (currently the 70-XXX series of exams have been replaced by the new role-based certification). Then you need Transition exams.

Transition exams

Passed the exam, what do I need to do?

First of all, congratulations! When looking for other opportunities in your industry, you take the lead. Your badge-updated with a new look. Actively prepare and look forward to the start of your new job!

Are you ready? help you practice!

The following focuses on two popular exam details: I have spent time sorting out a lot of useful exam information guides. Yes! This is the latest free exam practice new content.

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Wish you all the best in your certification journey!

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Certifications: CompTIA Security+

Exam Code: SY0-501

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Update CompTIA SY0-501 Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of perfect forward secrecy?
A. Using quantum random number generation to make decryption effectively impossible
B. Preventing cryptographic reuse so a compromise of one operation does not affect other operations
C. Implementing elliptic curve cryptographic algorithms with truly random numbers
D. The use of NDAs and policy controls to prevent disclosure of company secrets
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A company is performing an analysis of the corporate enterprise network with the intent of identifying any one system,
person, function, or service that, when neutralized, will cause or cascade disproportionate damage to the company\\’s
revenue, referrals, and reputation.
Which of the following an element of the BIA that this action is addressing?
A. Identification of critical systems
B. Single point of failure
C. Value assessment
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks the security architect to design a method for contractors to access the
company\\’s internal wiki, corporate directory, and email services securely without allowing access to systems beyond
the scope of their project. Which of the following methods would BEST fit the needs of the CISO?
A. VPN
B. PaaS
C. laaS
D. VDI
Correct Answer: A

……

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 practice test question answers q1-q13

QUESTION 1
While performing surveillance activities, an attacker determines that an organization is using 802.1X to secure LAN
access. Which of the following attack mechanisms can the attacker utilize to bypass the identified network security?
A. MAC spoofing
B. Pharming
C. Xmas attack
D. ARP poisoning
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following threats has sufficient knowledge to cause the MOST danger to an organization?
A. Competitors
B. Insiders
C. Hacktivists
D. Script kiddies
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
When systems, hardware, or software are not supported by the original vendor, it is a vulnerability known as:
A. system sprawl
B. end-of-life systems
C. resource exhaustion
D. a default configuration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
While performing a penetration test, the technicians want their efforts to go unnoticed for as long as possible while they
gather useful data about the network they are assessing. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for the
technicians?
A. Vulnerability scanner
B. Offline password cracker
C. Packet sniffer
D. Banner grabbing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An organization plans to transition the intrusion detection and prevention techniques on a critical subnet to an anomalybased system. Which of the following does the organization need to determine for this to be successful?
A. The baseline
B. The endpoint configurations
C. The adversary behavior profiles
D. The IPS signatures
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST explains how the use of configuration templates reduces organization risk?
A. It ensures consistency of configuration for initial system implementation.
B. It enables system rollback to a last known-good state if patches break functionality.
C. It facilitates fault tolerance since applications can be migrated across templates.
D. It improves vulnerability scanning efficiency across multiple systems.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the appropriate network structure used to protect servers and services that must be provided to
external clients without completely eliminating access for internal users?
A. NAC
B. VLAN
C. DMZ
D. Subnet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A department head at a university resigned on the first day of the spring semester. It was subsequently determined that
the department head deleted numerous files and directories from the server-based home directory while the campus
was closed. Which of the following policies or procedures could have prevented this from occurring?
A. Time-of-day restrictions
B. Permission auditing and review
C. Offboarding
D. Account expiration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst is assessing a small company\\’s internal servers against recommended security practices. Which of
the following should the analyst do to conduct the assessment? (Select TWO).
A. Compare configurations against platform benchmarks,
B. Confirm adherence to the company\\’s industry-specific regulations.
C. Review the company\\’s current security baseline,
D. Verify alignment with policy related to regulatory compliance
E. Run an exploitation framework to confirm vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following network vulnerability scan indicators BEST validates a successful, active scan?
A. The scan job is scheduled to run during off-peak hours.
B. The scan output lists SQL injection attack vectors.
C. The scan data identifies the use of privileged-user credentials.
D. The scan results identify the hostname and IP address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A systems developer needs to provide machine-to-machine interface between an application and a database server in
the production environment. This interface will exchange data once per day. Which of the following access control
account practices would BEST be used in this situation?
A. Establish a privileged interface group and apply read-write permission to the members of that group.
B. Submit a request for account privilege escalation when the data needs to be transferred.
C. Install the application and database on the same server and add the interface to the local administrator group.
D. Use a service account and prohibit users from accessing this account for development work.
Correct Answer: D

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