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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file? A. SSH B. TCP C. TLS D. HTTP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication. Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using? A. Base64 encoding B. transport layer security encryption C. SHA-256 hashing D. ROT13 encryption Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity? A. data availability B. data normalization C. data signature D. data protection Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall? A. internet B. transport C. application D. data link Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which event artifact is used to identity HTTP GET requests for a specific file? A. destination IP address B. TCP ACK C. HTTP status code D. URI Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)? A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework? A. identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities B. detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code C. conducts vulnerability scans on the network D. manages a list of reported vulnerabilities Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability? A. any potential danger to an asset B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the application C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design D. the individuals who perform an attack Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system? A. application-level blacklisting B. host-based IPS C. application-level whitelisting D. antivirus Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network. Which testing method did the intruder use? A. social engineering B. eavesdropping C. piggybacking D. tailgating Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”? A. colo?ur B. col[0-8]+our C. colou?r D. col[0-9]+our Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor? A. SSL interception B. packet header size C. signature detection time D. encryption Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity? A. examination B. investigation C. collection D. reporting Correct Answer: C
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Exam Name: Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE) Updated: Nov 12, 2020 Q&As: 80
QUESTION 1 Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose two.) A. dynamic URL filtering B. advanced analytics C. dynamic data analysis D. intrusion analysis E. reputation analytics Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 What does remote access use to verify identity? A. MFA B. Agents C. Remote Access VPN D. AMP for Endpoints Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which two attack vectors are protected by Visibility and Enforcement? (Choose two.) A. Cloud B. Mobile C. Endpoints D. Email E. Web Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4 What do customers receive when implementing TrustSec? A. SL decryption enabling secure communications on and off company networks B. Context-aware access enhancing the forensic capabilities available to their IT team C. Device profiling and onboarding, enabling businesses to control company role policies across all network services 1 D. Dynamic role-based access control that enables them to enforce business role policies across all network services Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 How does AMP\\’s file reputation feature help customers? A. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting B. It increases the accuracy of threat detection with Big Data analytics C. It enables point in time detection through a one-to-one engine D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.) A. Expand their IT departments B. Decrease internal access and reporting C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7 What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.) A. Require and install agents on mobile devices. B. Block BYOD devices. C. Limit internal access to networks D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter. E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 8 Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.) A. pxGrid B. Cisco Security Connector C. Duo D. Stealthwatch E. AMP for Endpoints Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 9 Which feature of Cognitive Intelligence can separate statistically normal traffic from anomalous traffic? A. Event classification B. Anomaly detection C. Anomaly modeling D. Trust modeling Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS? A. Flexible AAA Options B. Identity Services Engine C. Differentiated Mobile Access D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 What are two capabilities of Cisco\\’s NGFW Identity Based Policy Control feature? (Choose two.) A. security enforced at the DNS layer B. access to multiple data layers C. access to Trojan downloader D. see and share malware details E. threats stopped from getting in and spreading Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12 What are two solutions for Cisco Cloud Security? (Choose two.) A. cloud data security B. cloud-delivered security C. advanced network security D. intrusion prevention E. cloud security Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13 What are three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose three ) A. Roaming Security B. Advanced Threat C. Cloud Security D. D loT Security . E. Voice and Collaboration F. Firewalls Correct Answer: BCD
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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Refer to the following output: Router#show ip nhrp detail 1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat registered used NBMA address: 10.12.1.2 What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information? A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server. B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry. C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router. D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request. E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 ospf database command and is presented with the output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?
A. link-local B. area C. As (OSPF domain) D. reserved Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is the output of the following command: show ip vrf A. Show\\’s default RD values B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF C. Show\\’s routing protocol information associated with a VRF. D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times? A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode. B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode. C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode. D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. An IP SLA was configured on router R1 that allows the default route to be modified in the event that Fa0/0 loses reachability with the router R3 Fa0/0 interface. The route has changed to flow through router R2. Which debug command is used to troubleshoot this issue? A. debug ip flow B. debug ip sla error C. debug ip routing D. debug ip packet Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A. The flow exporter is configured but is not used. B. The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction. C. The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface. D. The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both spoke-tospoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3. B. Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3. C. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3. D. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3. E. Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for several service provides. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local networks to all SP neighbors?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is monitoring reachability of the configured default routes to ISP1 and ISP2. The default route from ISP1 is preferred if available. How is this issue resolved? A. Use the icmp-echo command to track both default routes B. Use the same AD for both default routes C. Start IP SLA by matching numbers for track and ip sla commands D. Start IP SLA by defining frequency and scheduling it Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/200785-ISP-Failover-with-default-routes-using-I.html
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired. Which command fixes the issue? A. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1 B. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 C. R1(config)#ip sla track 1 D. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1 Correct Answer: D Note: By default Static Router AD value-1 hence ip route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0. 1.1.1.1 track 1 means AD-1 which must be less than of back up route AD. Define the backup route to use when the tracked object is unavailable. !— The administrative distance of the backup route must be greater than !— the administrative distance of the tracked route. !— If the primary gateway is unreachable, that route is removed !— and the backup route is installed in the routing table !— instead of the tracked route. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/200785-ISP-Failover-with-default-routes-using-I.html https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-generation-firewalls/118962-configureasa-00.html
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration must be configured on the spoke A router to enable a dynamic DMVPN tunnel with the spoke B router?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true? A. It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables B. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables C. It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables D. It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables. Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 When provisioning an Azure Cosmos DB account, which feature provides redundancy within an Azure region? A. multi-master replication B. Availability Zones C. automatic failover D. the strong consistency level Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What are two characteristics of real-time data processing? Each correct answer present a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Data is processed as it is created. B. Low latency is expected C. High latency acceptable D. Data is processed periodically Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3 Your company has a reporting solution that has paginated reports. The reports query a dimensional model in a data warehouse. Which type of processing does the reporting solution use? A. stream processing B. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) C. batch processing D. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Match the tools to the appropriate descriptions. To answer, drag the appropriate tool from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Your company is designing a data store tor internet-connected temperature sensors. The collected data will be used to analyze temperature trends. Which type of data store should you use? A. relational B. columnar C. graph D. time series Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
.QUESTION 7 What is a benefit of the Azure Cosmos DB Table API as compared to Azure Table storage? A. supports partitioning B. provides resiliency if art Azure region fads C. provides a higher storage capacity D. supports a multi-master model Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Match the Azure data factory components to the appropriate descriptions. To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
QUESTION 9 You have the following SQL query.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet. You recently changed your external IP address. After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure. What is a possible cause of the issue? A. a database-level firewall B. role-based access control (RSAC) C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) D. Domain Name Service (DNS) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 You have an e-commerce application that reads and writes data to an Azure SQL database. Which type of processing does the application use? A. stream processing B. batch processing C. Online Analytical Processing (OLTP) D. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Match the types of workloads to the appropriate scenarios. To answer, drag the appropriate workload type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each workload type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 You need to develop a solution to provide data to executives. the solution must provide an interactive graphic interface, depict various key performance indications, and support data exploration by using drill down. What should you use in Microsoft Power BI? A. a dashboard B. Microsoft Power Apps C. a dataflow D. a report Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 You have an on-premises network that contains 100 servers. You need to recommend a solution that provides additional resources to your users. The solution must minimize capital and operational expenditure costs. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a complete migration to the public cloud B. an additional data center C. a private cloud D. a hybrid cloud Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a Canadian government contractor B. a European government contractor C. a United States government entity D. a United States government contractor E. a European government entity Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government
QUESTION 6 You have an on-premises application that sends email notifications automatically based on a rule. You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You need to recommend a serverless computing solution for the application. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a web app B. a server image in Azure Marketplace C. a logic app D. an API app Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1. You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1. VNET1 is deleted automatically. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. is moved automatically to another resource group C. continues to function normally D. is now a read-only object Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
QUESTION 9 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple subscriptions. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Management groups C. Azure policies D. Azure App Service plans Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You plan to deploy a critical line-of-business application to Azure. The application will run on an Azure virtual machine. You need to recommend a deployment solution for the application. The solution must provide a guaranteed availability of 99.99 percent. What is the minimum number of virtual machines and the minimum number of availability zones you should recommend for the deployment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 customized virtual machines each week. Thirty of the virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and 20 of the virtual machines run Ubuntu Linux. You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the virtual machines. What should you recommend? A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances B. Azure virtual machine scale sets C. Azure DevTest Labs D. Microsoft Managed Desktop Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 When can a security program be considered effective? A. Audits are rec/Jarty performed and reviewed. B. Vulnerabilities are proactively identified. C. Risk is lowered to an acceptable level. D. Badges are regiiartv performed and validated Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Changes to a Trusted Computing Base (TCB) system that could impact the security posture of that system and trigger a recertification activity are documented in the A. security impact analysis. B. structured code review. C. routine self assessment. D. cost benefit analysis. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What is the MOST effective method of testing custom application code? A. Negative testing B. White box testing C. Penetration testing D. Black box testing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 How is remote authentication Dial-In user service (RADIUS) authentication accomplished? A. It uses clear text and shared secret keys. B. It uses clear text and firewall rules. C. It relies on Virtual Private Networks (VPN). D. It relies on asymmetric encryption keys. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated? A. The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured B. A penetration test of the network will fail C. The network is compliant to industry standards D. All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which one of the following effectively obscures network addresses from external exposure when implemented on a firewall or router? A. Network Address Translation (NAT) B. Application Proxy C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2 D. Address Masking Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs? A. Check arguments in function calls B. Test for the security patch level of the environment C. Include logging functions D. Digitally sign each application module Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Even though a particular digital watermark is difficult to detect, which of the following represents a way it might still be inadvertently removed? A. Truncating parts of the data B. Applying Access Control Lists (ACL) to the data C. Appending non-watermarked data to watermarked data D. Storing the data in a database Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A software scanner identifies a region within a binary image having high entropy. What does this MOST likely indicate? A. Encryption routines B. Random number generator C. Obfuscated code D. Botnet command and control Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following is a PRIMARY security concern? A. Availability B. Confidentiality C. Integrity D. Ownership Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following? A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) D. Message Digest 5 (MD5) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack? A. parameterized database queries B. whitelist input values C. synchronized session tokens D. use strong ciphers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 What MUST each information owner do when a system contains data from multiple information owners? A. Provide input to the Information System (IS) owner regarding the security requirements of the data B. Review the Security Assessment report (SAR) for the Information System (IS) and authorize the IS to operate. C. Develop and maintain the System Security Plan (SSP) for the Information System (IS) containing the data D. Move the data to an Information System (IS) that does not contain data owned by other information owners Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography. Correct Answer: signature A digital signature is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography. A digital signature not only validates the sender\\’s identity, but also ensures that the document\\’s contents have not been altered. It verifies that the source and integrity of the document is not compromised since the document is signed. A digital signature provides the following assurances: Authenticity, Integrity, and Non-repudiation. Microsoft Office 2007 Excel and Word provide a feature known as Signature line to insert a user\\’s digital signature on a document.
QUESTION 2 Which of the following layers refers to the higher-level protocols used by most applications for network communication? A. Transport layer B. Link layer C. Application layer D. Internet layer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs? A. Contingency plan B. Disaster recovery plan C. Business continuity plan D. Continuity of Operations Plan Correct Answer: A A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer option D is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible. Answer option B is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for ITrelated infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option C is incorrect. Business continuity planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. The BCP lifecycle is as follows:
QUESTION 4 Which of the following forms of recognition of the sender can inform the data receiver of all segments that have arrived successfully? A. negative acknowledgment B. the cumulative reset C. with block D. None E. selective acknowledgment Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is a worldwide organization whose mission is to create, refine and promote internet safety standards? A. None B. SPROUT C. ANSI D. IEEE E. WASC Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which of the following cables is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light? A. Coaxial cable B. Twisted pair cable C. Plenum cable D. Fiber optic cable Correct Answer: D Fiber optic cable is also known as optical fiber. It is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light. It is of cylindrical shape and consists of three concentric sections: the core, the cladding, and the jacket. Optical fiber carries much more information than conventional copper wire and is in general not subject to electromagnetic interference and the need to retransmit signals. Most telephone company\\’s long-distance lines are now made of optical fiber. Transmission over an optical fiber cable requires repeaters at distance intervals. The glass fiber requires more protection within an outer cable than copper. Answer option B is incorrect. Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors (the forward and return conductors of a single circuit) are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. It consists of the following twisted pair cables: Shielded Twisted Pair: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) is a special kind of copper telephone wiring used in some business installations. An outer covering or shield is added to the ordinary twisted pair telephone wires; the shield functions as a ground. Twisted pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers to the telephone company. Shielded twisted pair is often used in business installations. Unshielded Twisted Pair: Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is the ordinary wire used in home. UTP cable is also the most common cable used in computer networking. Ethernet, the most common data networking standard, utilizes UTP cables. Twisted pair cabling is often used in data networks for short and medium length connections because of its relatively lower costs compared to optical fiber and coaxial cable.UTP is also finding increasing use in video applications, primarily in security cameras. Many middle to highend cameras include a UTP output with setscrew terminals. This is made possible by the fact that UTP cable bandwidth has improved to match the baseband of television signals. Answer option A is incorrect. Coaxial cable is the kind of copper cable used by cable TV companies between the community antenna and user homes and businesses. Coaxial cable is sometimes used by telephone companies from their central office to the telephone poles near users. It is also widely installed for use in business and corporation Ethernet and other types of local area network. Coaxial cable is called “coaxial” because it includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis. The outer channel serves as a ground. Many of these cables or pairs of coaxial tubes can be placed in a single outer sheathing and, with repeaters, can carry information for a great distance. It is shown in the figure below:
Answer option C is incorrect. Plenum cable is cable that is laid in the plenum spaces of buildings. The plenum is the space that can facilitate air circulation for heating and air conditioning systems, by providing pathways for either heated/ conditioned or return airflows. Space between the structural ceiling and the dropped ceiling or under a raised floor is typically considered plenum. However, some drop ceiling designs create a tight seal that does not allow for airflow and therefore may not be considered a plenum air-handling space. The plenum space is typically used to house the communication cables for the building\\’s computer and telephone network.protocols. Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These are invalid tags.
QUESTION 8 Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to prevent interruptions to normal business activity? A. Disaster Recovery Plan B. Business Continuity Plan C. Contingency Plan D. Continuity of Operations Plan Correct Answer: B BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer option C is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer option A is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option D is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization\\’s essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.
QUESTION 9 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.The is a communication protocol that communicates information between the network routers and the multicast end stations. Correct Answer: IGMP The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communication protocol that communicates information between the network routers and the multicast end stations. It allows the receivers to request a multicast data stream from a specific group address. However, multicast traffic is sent to a single MAC address but is processed by multiple hosts. The IGMP allows an end station to connect to a multicast group and leave it, while being connected to the group address. It can be effectively used for gaming and showing online videos. Although it does not actually act as a transport protocol, it operates above the network layer. It is analogous to ICMP for unicast connections. It is susceptible to some attacks, so firewalls commonly allow the user to disable it if not needed.
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management? A. ANSI B. IEEE C. ITU D. ICANN Correct Answer: D ICANN stands for Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers. ICANN is responsible for managing the assignment of domain names and IP addresses. ICANN\\’s tasks include responsibility for IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, top-level domain name system management, and root server system management functions. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is a non-profit organization that oversees the allocation of IP addresses, management of the DNS infrastructure, protocol parameter assignment, and root server system management. Answer option B is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. Answer option C is incorrect. The International Telecommunication Union is an agency of the United Nations which regulates information and communication technology issues. ITU coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum, promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits, works to improve telecommunication infrastructure in the developing world and establishes worldwide standards. ITU is active in areas including broadband Internet, latestgeneration wireless technologies, aeronautical and maritime navigation, radio astronomy, satellite-based meteorology, convergence in fixed-mobile phone, Internet access, data, voice, TV broadcasting, and next-generation networks. Answer option A is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). Longestablished computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
QUESTION 11 A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides an attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform war dialing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. ToneLoc B. Wingate C. THC-Scan D. NetStumbler Correct Answer: CA THC-Scan and ToneLoc are tools used for war dialing. A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides the attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Answer option D is incorrect. NetStumbler is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards. It detects wireless networks and marks their relative position with a GPS. It uses an 802.11 Probe Request that has been sent to the broadcast destination address. Answer option B is incorrect. Wingate is a proxy server.
QUESTION 12 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A network is a local area network (LAN) in which all computers are connected in a ring or star topology and a bit- or tokenpassing scheme is used for preventing the collision of data between two computers that want to send messages at the same time. Correct Answer: Token Ring A Token Ring network is a local area network (LAN) in which all computers are connected in a ring or star topology and a bit- or token-passing scheme is used in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that want to send messages at the same time. The Token Ring protocol is the second most widely-used protocol on local area networks after Ethernet. The IBM Token Ring protocol led to a standard version, specified as IEEE 802.5. Both protocols are used and are very similar. The IEEE 802.5 Token Ring technology provides for data transfer rates of either 4 or 16 megabits per second. Working: Empty information frames are constantly circulated on the ring. When a computer has a message to send, it adds a token to an empty frame and adds a message and a destination identifier to the frame. The frame is then observed by each successive workstation. If the workstation sees that it is the destination for the message, it copies the message from the frame and modifies the token back to 0. When the frame gets back to the originator, it sees that the token has been modified to 0 and that the message has been copied and received. It removes the message from the particular frame. The frame continues to circulate as an empty frame, ready to be taken by a workstation when it has a message to send.
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QUESTION 1 What are the security risks of running a “repair” installation for Windows XP? A. There are no security risks when running the “repair” installation for Windows XP B. Pressing Shift+F1 gives the user administrative rights C. Pressing Ctrl+F10 gives the user administrative rights D. Pressing Shift+F10 gives the user administrative rights Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Identify the framework that comprises of five levels to guide agency assessment of their security programs and assist in prioritizing efforts for improvement: A. Information System Security Assessment Framework (ISSAF) B. Microsoft Internet Security Framework C. Nortells Unified Security Framework D. Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Julia is a senior security analyst for Berber Consulting group. She is currently working on a contract for a small accounting firm in Florida; They have given her permission to perform social engineering attacks on the company to see if their in-house training did any good. Julia calls the main number for the accounting firm and talks to the receptionist. Julia says that she is an IT technician from the company\\’s main office in Iowa; She states that she needs the receptionist\\’s network username and password to troubleshoot a problem they are having. Julia says that Bill Hammond, the CEO of the company, requested this information. After hearing the name of the CEO, the receptionist gave Julia all the information she asked for. What principal of social engineering did Julia use? A. Reciprocation B. Friendship/Liking C. Social Validation D. Scarcity Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following equipment could a pen tester use to perform shoulder surfing? A. Binoculars B. Painted ultraviolet material C. Microphone D. All the above Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following protocols cannot be used to filter VoIP traffic? A. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP) B. Real-time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP) C. Session Description Protocol (SDP) D. Real-Time Publish Subscribe (RTPS) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Firewall is an IP packet filter that enforces the filtering and security policies to the flowing network traffic. Using firewalls in IPv6 is still the best way of protection from low level attacks at the network and transport layers. Which one of the following cannot handle routing protocols properly? A. “Internet-router-firewall-net architecture” B. “Internet-firewall-router-net architecture” C. “Internet-firewall/router(edge device)-net architecture” D. “Internet-firewall -net architecture” Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 What are placeholders (or markers) in an HTML document that the web server will dynamically replace with data just before sending the requested documents to a browser? A. Server Side Includes B. Sort Server Includes C. Server Sort Includes D. Slide Server Includes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Variables are used to define parameters for detection, specifically those of your local network and/or specific servers or ports for inclusion or exclusion in rules. These are simple substitution variables set with the var keyword. Which one of the following operator is used to define meta-variables? A. “$” B. “#” C. “*” D. “?” Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of IDS is being used? A. Passive IDS B. Active IDS C. Progressive IDS D. NIPS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which vulnerability assessment phase describes the scope of the assessment, identifies and ranks the critical assets, and creates proper information protection procedures such as effective planning, scheduling, coordination, and logistics? A. Threat-Assessment Phase B. Pre-Assessment Phase C. Assessment Phase D. Post-Assessment Phase Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages occur in many situations, such as whenever a datagram cannot reach the destination or the gateway does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram. Each ICMP message contains three fields: type, code, and checksum. Different types of Internet Control Message Protocols (ICMPs) are identified by a TYPE field. If the destination is not reachable, which one of the following are generated? A. Type 8 ICMP codes B. Type 12 ICMP codes C. Type 3 ICMP codes D. Type 7 ICMP codes Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which one of the following scans starts, but does not complete the TCP handshake sequence for each port selected, and it works well for direct scanning and often works well through firewalls? A. SYN Scan B. Connect() scan C. XMAS Scan D. Null Scan Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a data scientist using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to normalize values to produce an output column into bins to predict a target column. Solution: Apply a Quantiles binning mode with a PQuantile normalization. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Use the Entropy MDL binning mode which has a target column. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/group-data-into-bins
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You need to identify the methods for dividing the data according, to the testing requirements. Which properties should you select? To answer, select the appropriate option-, m the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 You are analyzing a raw dataset that requires cleaning. You must perform transformations and manipulations by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to identify the correct modules to perform the transformations. Which modules should you choose? To answer, drag the appropriate modules to the correct scenarios. Each module may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Clean Missing Data Box 2: SMOTE Use the SMOTE module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to increase the number of underepresented cases in a dataset used for machine learning. SMOTE is a better way of increasing the number of rare cases than simply duplicating existing cases. Box 3: Convert to Indicator Values Use the Convert to Indicator Values module in Azure Machine Learning Studio. The purpose of this module is to convert columns that contain categorical values into a series of binary indicator columns that can more easily be used as features in a machine learning model. Box 4: Remove Duplicate Rows References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/smote https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/convert-to-indicator-values
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are analyzing a numerical dataset which contains missing values in several columns. You must clean the missing values using an appropriate operation without affecting the dimensionality of the feature set. You need to analyze a full dataset to include all values. Solution: Remove the entire column that contains the missing data point. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Use the Multiple Imputation by Chained Equations (MICE) method. References: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3074241/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clean-missing-data
QUESTION 5 You are analyzing a dataset by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to generate a statistical summary that contains the p-value and the unique count for each feature column. Which two modules can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Computer Linear Correlation B. Export Count Table C. Execute Python Script D. Convert to Indicator Values E. Summarize Data Correct Answer: BE The Export Count Table module is provided for backward compatibility with experiments that use the Build Count Table (deprecated) and Count Featurizer (deprecated) modules. E: Summarize Data statistics are useful when you want to understand the characteristics of the complete dataset. For example, you might need to know: How many missing values are there in each column? How many unique values are there in a feature column? What is the mean and standard deviation for each column? The module calculates the important scores for each column, and returns a row of summary statistics for each variable (data column) provided as input. Incorrect Answers: A: The Compute Linear Correlation module in Azure Machine Learning Studio is used to compute a set of Pearson correlation coefficients for each possible pair of variables in the input dataset. C: With Python, you can perform tasks that aren\\’t currently supported by existing Studio modules such as: Visualizing data using matplotlib Using Python libraries to enumerate datasets and models in your workspace Reading, loading, and manipulating data from sources not supported by the Import Data module D: The purpose of the Convert to Indicator Values module is to convert columns that contain categorical values into a series of binary indicator columns that can more easily be used as features in a machine learning model. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/export-count-table https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/summarize-data
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You need to modify the inputs for the global penalty event model to address the bias and variance issue. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You are using C-Support Vector classification to do a multi-class classification with an unbalanced training dataset. The C-Support Vector classification using Python code shown below:
You need to evaluate the C-Support Vector classification code. Which evaluation statement should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Automatically adjust weights inversely proportional to class frequencies in the input data The “balanced” mode uses the values of y to automatically adjust weights inversely proportional to class frequencies in the input data as n_samples / (n_classes * np.bincount(y)). Box 2: Penalty parameter Parameter: C : float, optional (default=1.0) Penalty parameter C of the error term. References: https://scikit-learn.org/stable/modules/generated/sklearn.svm.SVC.html
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You need to visually identify whether outliers exist in the Age column and quantify the outliers before the outliers are removed. Which three Azure Machine Learning Studio modules should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate modules from the list of modules to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are analyzing a numerical dataset which contains missing values in several columns. You need to analyze a full dataset to include all values. Solution: Use the Last Observation Carried Forward (LOCF) method to impute the missing data points. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Instead use the Multiple Imputation by Chained Equations (MICE) method. Replace using MICE: For each missing value, this option assigns a new value, which is calculated by using a method described in the statistical literature as “Multivariate Imputation using Chained Equations” or “Multiple Imputation by Chained Equations”. With a multiple imputation method, each variable with missing data is modeled conditionally using the other variables in the data before filling in the missing values. Note: Last observation carried forward (LOCF) is a method of imputing missing data in longitudinal studies. If a person drops out of a study before it ends, then his or her last observed score on the dependent variable is used for all subsequent (i.e., missing) observation points. LOCF is used to maintain the sample size and to reduce the bias caused by the attrition of participants in a study. References: https://methods.sagepub.com/reference/encyc-of-research-design/n211.xml https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3074241/
QUESTION 10 You are evaluating a completed binary classification machine learning model. You need to use the precision as the evaluation metric. Which visualization should you use? A. Violin pilot B. Gradient descent C. Box pilot D. Binary classification confusion matrix Correct Answer: D Incorrect Answers: A: A violin plot is a visual that traditionally combines a box plot and a kernel density plot. B: Gradient descent is a first-order iterative optimization algorithm for finding the minimum of a function. To find a local minimum of a function using gradient descent, one takes steps proportional to the negative of the gradient (or approximate gradient) of the function at the current point. C: A box plot lets you see basic distribution information about your data, such as median, mean, range and quartiles but doesn\\’t show you how your data looks throughout its range. References: https://machinelearningknowledge.ai/confusion-matrix-and-performance-metrics-machine-learning/
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You need to configure the Edit Metadata module so that the structure of the datasets match. Which configuration options should you select? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 2: Unchanged Note: Select the Categorical option to specify that the values in the selected columns should be treated as categories. For example, you might have a column that contains the numbers 0,1 and 2, but know that the numbers actually mean “Smoker”, “Non smoker” and “Unknown”. In that case, by flagging the column as categorical you can ensure that the values are not used in numeric calculations, only to group data.
QUESTION 12 You need to select an environment that will meet the business and data requirements. Which environment should you use? A. Azure HDInsight with Spark MLlib B. Azure Cognitive Services C. Azure Machine Learning Studio D. Microsoft Machine Learning Server Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are creating a new experiment in Azure Machine Learning Studio. One class has a much smaller number of observations than the other classes in the training set. You need to select an appropriate data sampling strategy to compensate for the class imbalance. Solution: You use the Stratified split for the sampling mode. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Instead use the Synthetic Minority Oversampling Technique (SMOTE) sampling mode. Note: SMOTE is used to increase the number of underepresented cases in a dataset used for machine learning. SMOTE is a better way of increasing the number of rare cases than simply duplicating existing cases. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/smote
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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You deploy SAP HANA by using SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances). For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 You are migrating SAP to Azure. The ASCS application servers are in one Azure zone, and the SAP database server in in a different Azure zone. ASCS/ERS is configured for high availability. During performance testing, you discover increased response times in Azure, even though the Azure environment has better computer and memory configurations than the on-premises environment. During the initial analysis, you discover an increased wait time for Enqueue. What are three possible causes of the increased wait time? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a missing Enqueue profile B. disk I/O during Enqueue backup operations C. misconfigured load balancer rules and health check probes for Enqueue and ASCS D. active Enqueue replication E. network latency between the database server and the SAP application servers Correct Answer: CDE E: The network latency across Availability Zones is not the same in all Azure regions. In some cases, you can deploy and run the SAP application layer across different zones because the network latency from one zone to the active DBMS VM is acceptable. But in some Azure regions, the latency between the active DBMS VM and the SAP application instance, when deployed in different zones, might not be acceptable for SAP business processes. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/sap-ha-availability-zones
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT You plan to deploy a highly available ASCS instance to SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES) virtual machines in Azure. You are configuring an internal Azure Standard Load Balancer for the ASCS instance. How should you configure the internal Standard Load Balancer? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You need to provide the Azure administrator with the values to complete the Azure Resource Manager template. Which values should you provide for diskCount, StorageAccountType, and domainName? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 4 Scenario: the Azure Resource Manager template that will be used to provision the production application servers. Ensure that each production application server has four 1-TB data disks. Box 2: Standard_LRS Scenario: Minimize costs whenever possible. Box 3: contoso.onmicrosoft.com The network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named ad.contoso.com. The Initial domain: The default domain (onmicrosoft.com) in the Azure AD Tenant. For example, contoso.onmicrosoft.com. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/plan-connect-userprincipalname
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure subscription. Your company has an SAP environment that runs on SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES) servers and SAP HANA. The environment has a primary site and a disaster recovery site. Disaster recovery is based on SAP HANA system replication. The SAP ERP environment is 4 TB and has a projected growth of 5% per month. The company has an uptime Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.99%, a maximum recovery time objective (RTO) of four hours, and a recovery point objective (RPO) of 10 minutes. You plan to migrate to Azure. You need to design an SAP landscape for the company. Which options meet the company\\’s requirements? A. 1. Azure virtual machines and SLES for SAP application servers 2. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for high availability and disaster recovery B. 1. ASCS/ERS and SLES clustering that uses the Pacemaker fence agent 2. SAP application servers deployed to an Azure Availability Zone 3. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for database high availability and disaster recovery C. 1. SAP application instances deployed to an Azure Availability Set 2. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for database high availability and disaster recovery D. 1. ASCS/ERS and SLES clustering that uses the Azure fence agent 2. SAP application servers deployed to an Azure Availability Set 3. SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances) that uses SAP HANA system replication for database high availability and disaster recovery Correct Answer: B With Availability Zones, Azure offers industry best 99.99% VM uptime SLA. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-faqs
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You migrate SAP ERP Central Component (SAP ECC) production and non-production landscapes to Azure. You are licensed for SAP Landscape Management (LaMa). You need to refresh from the production landscape to the non-production landscape. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: From the Azure portal, create a service principal The Azure connector can use a Service Principal to authorize against Microsoft Azure. Follow these steps to create a Service Principal for SAP Landscape Management (LaMa). Step 2: Add permissions to the service principal The Service Principal does not have permissions to access your Azure resources by default. You need to give the Service Principal permissions to access them. Step 3: From the Cloud Managers tab in LaMa, add an adapter Create a new connector in SAP LaMa Open the SAP LaMa website and navigate to Infrastructure. Go to tab Cloud Managers and click on Add. Select the Microsoft Azure Cloud Adapter Step 4: Install and configure LaMA on an SAP NetWeater instance Provision a new adaptive SAP system You can manually deploy a new virtual machine or use one of the Azure templates in the quickstart repository. It contains templates for SAP NetWeaver ASCS, SAP NetWeaver application servers, and the database. You can also use these templates to provision new hosts as part of a system copy/clone etc. Note: To support customers on their journey into a cloud model (hybrid or entirely public cloud), SAP and Microsoft partnered to create an adapter that integrates the SAP management capabilities of LaMa with the IaaS advantages of Microsoft Azure. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/lama-installation
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Your on-premises network contains an Active Directory domain. You have an SAP environment on Azure that runs on SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES) servers. You configure the SLES servers to use domain controllers as their NTP servers and their DNS servers. You need to join the SLES servers to the Active Directory domain. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: Install the samba-winbind package Install samba-winbind Step 2: Add realm details to /etc/krb5.conf and /etc/samba/smb.conf Edit files – best way to do this is to use yast on test machine and copy files from it In following examples you need to replace EXAMPLE/EXAMPLE.COM/.example.com with your values/settings /etc/samba/smb.conf [global] workgroup = EXAMPLE usershare allow guests = NO #disallow guests from sharing idmap gid = 10000-20000 idmap uid = 10000-20000 kerberos method = secrets and keytab realm = EXAMPLE.COM security = ADS template homedir = /home/%D/%U template shell = /bin/bash winbind offline logon = yes winbind refresh tickets = yes /etc/krb5.conf [libdefaults] default_realm = EXAMPLE.COM clockskew = 300 [realms] AZ-120 PDF Dumps | AZ-120 Exam Questions | AZ-120 Braindumps 11 / 2 EXAMPLE.COM = { kdc = PDC.EXAMPLE.COM default_domain = EXAMPLE.COM admin_server = PDC.EXAMPLE.COM } .. Step 3: Run net ads join -U administrator Join the SLES 12 Server to the AD domain References: https://www.suse.com/support/kb/doc/?id=7018461
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You plan to deploy multiple SAP HANA virtual machines to Azure by using an Azure Resource Manager template. How should you configure Accelerated Networking and Write Accelerator in the template? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: true enableAcceleratedNetworking: If the network interface is accelerated networking enabled. To further reduce network latency between Azure VMs, we [Micorosoft] recommend that you choose Azure Accelerated Networking. Use it when you deploy Azure VMs for an SAP workload, especially for the SAP application layer and the SAP DBMS layer. Box 2: true Write Accelerator should be used for the volumes that contain the transaction log or redo logs of a DBMS. It is not recommended to use Write Accelerator for the data volumes of a DBMS as the feature has been optimized to be used against log disks. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/dbms_guide_general
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: No To log in to a Linux VM with Azure AD credentials, install the Azure Active Directory login VM extension. Note: Azure AD Connect is the Microsoft tool designed to meet and accomplish your hybrid identity goals. Box 2: Yes If you deploy SAP VMs in a cross-premises scenario, where on-premises Active Directory and DNS are extended in Azure, it is expected that the VMs are joining an on-premises domain. Box 3: No References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/workloads/sap/deployment-guide
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP You have an SAP environment on Azure. You use Azure Site Recovery to protect an SAP production landscape. You need to validate whether you can recover the landscape in the event of a failure. The solution must minimize the impact on the landscape. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Step 1: Create a virtual network… We recommended that for test failover, you choose a network that\\’s isolated from the production recovery site network specific in the Compute and Network settings for each VM. By default, when you create an Azure virtual network, it is isolated from other networks. The test network should mimic your production network: The test network should have same number of subnets as your production network. Subnets should have the same names. The test network should use the same IP address range. Step 2: Add a public IP address… Because Site Recovery does not replicate the cloud witness, we recommend that you deploy the cloud witness in the disaster recovery region. Step 3: Shut down production virtual machines Make sure that the primary VM is shut down when you run the test failover. Otherwise there will be two VMs with the same identity, running in the same network at the same time. This can lead to unexpected consequences. Step 4: Select Test failover from the Recovery Plans blade References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-test-failover-to-azure
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You deploy SAP HANA on Azure (Large Instances). You need to back up the SAP HANA database to Azure. Solution: You configure DB13 to back up directly to a local disk. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B You need to back up the SAP HANA database to Azure, not to a local disk. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/sap-hana-db-abouthttps://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/backup/backup-azure-sap-hana-database#configure-backup
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT You are designing the backup for an SAP database. You have an Azure Storage account that is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: standard solid-state drives (SSDs) Standard SSD Managed Disks, a low-cost SSD offering, are optimized for test and entry-level production workloads requiring consistent latency. Box 2: to another Azure region Geo-redundant storage (GRS) copies your data synchronously three times within a single physical location in the primary region using LRS. It then copies your data asynchronously to a single physical location in a secondary region that is hundreds of miles away from the primary region. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/managed-disks/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy#geo-redundant-storage
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.QUESTION 7
