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Practice it | Cisco 350-401 Exam Practice Test Questions
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QUESTION 1 An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN? A. ISE server B. local WLC C. RADIUS server D. anchor WLC Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What are two common sources of interface for WI-FI networks? (Choose two.) A. radar B. LED lights C. rogue AP D. conventional oven E. fire alarm Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server? A. syslog level errors and less severity messages B. syslog level errors messages C. all syslog levels messages D. syslog level errors and greater severity messages Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which statement about a fabric access point is true? A. It is in local mode an must be connected directly to the fabric border node. B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. C. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch. D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery? A. CISCO-DNA-CONTROlLLER.local B. CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.local D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices? A. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server. B. It is no supported on Cisco devices. C. It required certificates for authentication. D. It is used for HTTP and HTTPs requests. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming is true? A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect access points. B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key Management. C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is supported. D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management. Correct Answer: A References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-DesignGuide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/ch7_HREA.html
QUESTION 8 Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type 2 hypervisor? A. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS. B. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it. C. Type 1 hypervisor relics on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources. D. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.
Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning- tree port-priority 32 command on GO/1 on SW2. but the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Lmk2 to resolve the issue? A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1. B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1. C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2. D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 When reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state? A. Mismatched OSPF network type B. Mismatched areas C. Mismatched MTU size D. Mismatched OSPF link costs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.) A. TCP window size B. TCP MSS C. IP MTU D. DF bit clear E. MTU ignore Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric? A. LISP B. IS-IS C. Cisco TrustSec D. VXLAN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URI. /dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project What does the code mean? A. The client made a request a resource that does not exist. B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request. C. The request accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed. D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, Information about the resource is in the response body. Correct Answer: A
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The Cisco 400-051 exam validates that candidates have the skills to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot enterprise collaboration and communication networks.
It will enable candidates to bridge their core technology expertise with knowledge of the evolving technologies that are being adopted at an accelerated pace, such as cloud, IoT, and network programmability.
Exam Pattern
Give the candidate 120 minutes and they must resolve 90 – 110 questions during this time. The syllabus is predetermined and any applicant with a score of more than 70% (700 points) is eligible for certification.
Examination fee
Some candidates have special discounts.
Job Prospects
Wired and wireless network work. It Professional Network Engineer
Have you applied for the CCIE Collaboration Written certification exam and are looking for enough help to pass the exam and get the best results?Do you know why many candidates are unable to pass the Cisco 400-051 certification exam? This is because they lack an appropriate course of action.
Syllabus
Protocols and APIs 12% Infrastructure and Quality of Services 10% Call Control and Dial plan 20% Endpoints, User Management, and Mobility 10% Edge Services 16% Media Resources, Meetings, and Call Recording 12% Collaboration Applications 10% Evolving Technologies v1.1 10%
Learning materials
1.Instructor-led training: Cisco Expert-Level Training For CCIE Collaboration v2.0 Exams
2.Books: Study Material Exam Resources Evolving Technologies Study Resources CCIE Collaboration Learning Matrix v2.0 Evolving Technology v1.1 Learning Matrix
Latest 400-051 Practice Questions for Your Cisco CCIE Collaboration Written Certification Exam
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. The snippet is part of a PRT log from a jabber for windows user who is unable to login via Mobile and Remote Access (MRA).which is the root cause of this issue? A. The Expressway-E certificate is self-signed. B. _collab-edge_tls.abc.com DNS SRV record is not created in the external DNS server. C. The Expressway-E is reachable on port 8443 but it rejects the connection due to client -side certificate issue. D. The user is trying to login from internal company network. E. The Expressway-E is not reachable on port 8443 due to firewall or network connectivity issue. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is troubleshooting a NTP synchronized issue in CUCM. Why is NTP unsynchronized? A. The NTP server used is a Windows based NTP server. B. The IOS Command NTP server 172.25.140.151 version 3 is advertising NTPv3. C. The NTP server stratum is higher than four. D. A firewall is blocking NTP port 123. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which Cisco ISO-XE dial-peer command has the highest preference for inbound H.323 dial- peer matching? A. Incoming calling-number e164-pattren-map B. Destination-pattern C. Incoming URI to D. Answer-address E. Incoming called-number Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 Which two file transfer protocols are used to send Call Detail Record flat files to third-party billing servers? (Choose two.) A. SCP B. SFTP C. TFTP D. FTP E. SOAP/HTTPS F. FTP over SSL Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which dial peer will be selected as the incoming dial-peer?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which set of information is replaced when Global Dial Plan Replication is configured? A. Local and learned directory URIs, enterprise alternate numbers,+E.164 numbers, and SIP route patterns throughout ILS network. B. Local and learned directory URIs, route partitions, directory numbers, and calling search space. C. Local and learned directory URIs, enterprise alternate numbers,+E.164 numbers, and number patterns throughout ILS network. D. Local and learned directory URIs, translation patterns, +E.164 numbers, and route patterns throughout ILS network. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Company ABC is deploying Mobile and Remote and Remote Access (MRA) to allow employees to login jabber clients from anywhere on the internet. What is the first DNS query a jabber client attempts to resolve from outside of the corporate network? A. DNS A record for _cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com B. DAS SRV record for _cuplogin._tcp.abc.com C. DAS SRV record for _ cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com D. DNS SRV record for _cisco-uds._tcp.abc.com E. DNS A record for _collab-edge._tls.abc.com F. DNS SRV record for _ collab-edge._tls.abc.com G) DNS A record for the Expressway-E FQDN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which Cisco IOS-EX dial-peer command has the lowest preference for inbound SIP dial-peer matching? A. Answer-address B. Destination-pattern C. Incoming URI to D. Incoming called-number E. Incoming called-number e164-pattern-map Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which 802.11e user priority value maps to Per Hop Behavior (PHB) CS3 for classification of voice and video control traffic? A. 4 B. 3 C. 6 D. 5 E. 2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 When a SIP INMTE destined to [email protected] arrives at a Cisco Meeting Server (CMS), which part of the Request-URI will CMS use to route the call? A. [email protected] B. outbound calls rules C. sip:[email protected] D. [email protected] E. Cciecollab.com Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11 Assuming all route patterns below are configured on a Cisco UCM, which route pattern will be matched when a user dials 2001? A. 200[^2-4]configured with urgent priority B. 200[1-4] configured with nonurgent priority C. 200x configured with urgent priority D. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority E. 200! Configured with urgent priority. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Company ABC is deploying Mobile and Remote and Remote Access (MRA) to allow employees to login jabber clients from anywhere on the internet. Which HTTPS request does a jabber client send after it successfully establishes a secured connection with a Cisco Expressway-E? A. get_cucm_uds B. get_user_config C. get_services_config D. get_edge_config E. get_jabber-config Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which two types of patterns are always nonurgent in Cisco Unified Communications Manager version 11.0 (Choose two.) A. Voice Mail Directory Number B. Remote Destination Directory Number C. Voice Mail Pilot D. Hunt Pilot E. Route Pattern F. Translation Pattern Correct Answer: AC
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Axis Certified Professional AX0-100 – Video Exam Questions and Answers
2020 practice tests for Axis AX0-100 Exam
QUESTION 1 Audio detection can be used A. Only with cameras with built in microphone. B. In all Axis cameras but an extra intelligent video (IV) module is necessary. C. Only in quiet areas. D. For detecting a change in decibel levels. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Outdoor ready cameras in the AXIS Q60 Series typically works with 60 W PoE, if we connect it to 30W PoE it will A. Work for a limited time. B. Give picture but impossible to pan and tilt. C. Work but with limited temperature specification. D. Work but with limited pan and tilt speed. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Why is it recommended to make a list of the Axis network video product serial numbers in an installation? A. It provides an overview of what equipment has been used B. The product name can be found inside the serial number C. It make it is easier to identify the camera in AXIS Camera Management D. It gives the status of the camera or encoder Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there\\’s any way to get more of the aisle and less of the shelves on the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best suggestion to the retailer? A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm C. Using Axis\\’ Corridor Format D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 If using H.264 compression, in theory, what could a video containing no l-frames look like? A. The first P-frame is visible during the whole video B. A black image is visible during the whole video C. All moving objects will be visible D. All non-moving objects will be visible Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 The Axis pixel counter allows a user to A. Convert pixels to actual distances. B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met. C. Determine the file size for each video frame. D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 When dealing with a complicated lighting scenario, such as a camera inside looking out through bright windows, which camera would best adapt to the scene to provide the highest image detail? A. AXIS M3204 B. AXIS P3304 C. AXIS P5534 D. AXIS Q1604 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 When using the view area functionality, each view area has its own video stream and (Choose two) A. Exposure control setting B. Text overlay setting C. User credentials D. PTZ setting E. Compression algorithm setting Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit? A. Noise is increased B. Frame rate is reduced C. Light sensitivity is decreased D. Resolution is reduced Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A customer wants his video surveillance system to completely cover the perimeter of his property. For the installer to ensure that the camera system is not subject to sabotage, he should A. Install more low-priced cameras to cover the complete site. B. Make sure each camera is seen by at least one other camera. C. Use PoE, and not a PoE splitter. D. Install thermal cameras. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which is an advantage of the H.264 compression standard? A. Bandwidth and storage usage is independent of the amount of motion in the video B. Compared to Motion JPEG. H.264 video reduces the CPU load when viewing the video C. In most situations, compared to Motion JPEG. H.264 video reduces bandwidth and storage usage D. The intra-frame coding makes the video less sensitive to network dropouts Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 The purpose of a DNS server is to A. Allocate IP addresses to devices within a network. B. Allocate MAC addresses to devices within a network. C. Translate host names such as www.axis.com to IP addresses. D. Translate host names such as www.axis.com to MAC addresses. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Where is the best place to mount a camera with a fixed iris? A. Outside, on a pole B. Inside, in a room with large windows C. Outside, in a shadowed position D. Inside, in a room with very strong light sources Correct Answer: D
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Microsoft MCSA (Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate)
The MCSA Windows Server 2016 consists of the following exams:
70-740 – Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Practice, practice, practice! ( Microsoft MCSA 70-740 )
This will help you understand how much time you need to answer in each section and will prepare you for the format and type of questions you are asking.
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1 that uses a single VHDX file VM1 is configured shown in the following table You plan to use VM1 as a virtual Machine Template to deploy shielded virtual machines You need to ensure that VM1 can be used to deploy shielded virtual machines What should you run?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet B. the Diskpart command C. the Set-VHD cmdlet D. the Set-VM cmdlet E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Windows Application proxy role service installed. You plan to deploy Remote Desktop Gateway (RD Gateway) services. Clients will connect to the RD Gateway services by using various types of devices including Windows, iOS and Android devices. You need to publish the RD Gateway services through the Web Application Proxy. Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You plan to use Windows Server Backup to back up all of the data on Server1. You create a new volume on Server1. You need to ensure that the new volume can be used as a backup target. The backup target must support incremental backups. Solution: You mount the volume to C:\Backup, and you format the volume by using exFAT. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains 25 servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You plan to manage the servers by using Windows Admin Center. You install Windows Admin Center on one of the servers. You need to ensure that connections to Windows Admin Center are authenticated by using multi-factor authentication (MFA). What should you do first? A. Install an extension to Windows Admin Center B. Configure Allowed groups C. Register the gateway to Azure AD D. Import a certificate by using Windows Admin Center Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/manage/windows-admin-center/configure/user-accesscontrol
QUESTION 6 In this section, you\\’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4 Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients Solution From Windows PowerShell on Setver1, you run the Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor cmdtel Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 You have a Scale-Out File Server that has a share named Share 1. Sharel contains a virtual disk trie named Diskl.vhd. You plan to create a guest failovcr cluster. You need to ensure thai you can use the virtual disk as a shared virtual disk for the guest failove* Cluster. Which cmdlet should you use? A. Oplimize-VHD B. Convert-VHD C. Set-VHO D. Optimtze-VHDSet Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 In this section, you\\’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration
You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies (NLMP). Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a sQUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, eries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,white others might not have a correct solution. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory. You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consume more than 4 GB of memory. Solution: You create a performance counter data collector. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 A company named Contoso, Ltd. has several servers that run Windows Server 2016. Contoso has a Hyper-V environment that uses failover clustering and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). The environment contains several Windows containers and several virtual machines. The WSUS deployment contains one upstream server that is located on the company’s perimeter network and several downstream servers located on the internal network. A firewall separates the upstream server from the downstream servers. You plan to deploy a human resources application to a new server named HRServer5. HRServer5 contains a FAT32-formatted data volume. The CIO of Contoso identifies the following requirements for the company’s IT department: 1.Deploy a failover cluster to two new virtual machines. 2.Store all application databases by using Encrypted File System (EFS). 3.Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server. 4.Produce a report that lists the processor time used by all of the processes on a server named Server1 for five hours. 5.Encrypt all communication between the internal network and the perimeter network, including all WSUS communications. 6.Automatically load balance the virtual machines hosted in the Hyper-V cluster when processor utilization exceeds 70 percent. Which networking mode should you configure for the Windows containers? A. 12tunnel B. 12bridge C. network address translation (NAT) D. transparent Correct Answer: D From the scenario: Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server. Transparent mode supports static or dynamic (using external DHCP server) IP allocation and assignment from IP addresses within container host\\’s network prefix. Incorrect Answers: A: L2Tunnel mode is reserved for private and public cloud deployments when containers are running on a tenant VM. B: L2Bridge mode only supports static IP assignment. C: NAT is the default network mode and attaches containers to a private IP subnet. This mode supports dynamic IP allocation and assignment but by Host Networking Service (HNS) from internal NAT subnet prefix. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/container-networking/advanced https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Containers/Windows-Container-Networking/ba-p/382298
QUESTION 11 You have just finished installing Windows Server 2016 on a new server. Your colleague has informed you that its essential that you must activate Windows Server. Which of the following command line tools can be used to Activate Windows Server? A. Netdom C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato B. Netsh C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato C. Ocsetup C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato D. Cscript C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato Correct Answer: D The correct answer is Cscript C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs -ato
QUESTION 12 You have a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster 1 that contains four nodes named Server1, Server2, Server3, Server4, Cluster1 hosts 40 virtual machines that are distributed evenly across the nodes. Server1 and Server2 are located in a data center in Madrid. Server3 and Server4 are located in a data center in Barcelona. You need to ensure that when you pause a node in the other data center. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer present part of the solution. A. Run the New-Cluster Fault Domain cmdlet. B. Run the Add-Cluster Group cmdlet. C. Configure a file share witness for each data center. D. Run the Set-Cluster Fault Domain cmdlet. E. Create an Active Directory site for each data center. F. Change the quorum configuration of the cluster to Node Majority. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and vSwitch3. You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that VM1 will retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1. What should you do? A. From Windows PowerShell on VM1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterTeamMapping cmdlet. B. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings on VM1. C. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfiguration cmdlet. D. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, add the adapter named Ethernet to the NIC team. Correct Answer: B https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/nic-teaming
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The Microsoft 70-742 exam covers installation, storage, and computing for Windows Server 2016. This exam tests the candidate’s ability to install, configure, and manage Windows Server 2016.should also be familiar implemented and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) ), and Web Application proxy.
Exam Pattern
Give the candidate 3 hours and they must resolve 40-60 questions during this time. The syllabus is predetermined and any applicant with a score of more than 70% (700 points) is eligible for certification.
Examination fee
$165.Some candidates have special discounts, including Microsoft Certified Trainers, Microsoft Partner Network Program members, and others.
Job Prospects
System Administrator System Engineer It Professional Network Engineer Network Administrato
Have you applied for the Windows Server 2016 certification exam and are looking for enough help to pass the exam and get the best results?Do you know why many candidates are unable to pass the Microsoft 70-742 certification exam? This is because they lack an appropriate course of action.
Syllabus
1.Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)
2.Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)
3.Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)
4.Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)
5.Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
Latest 70-742 Practice Questions for Your Microsoft Windows Server 2016 Certification Exam
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains 10 domains. The root domain contains a global catalog server named DC1. You remove the global catalog server role from DC1. You need to decrease the size of the Active Directory database on DC1. Solution: You stop the NTDS service on DC1. You run defrag.exe, and then start the NTDS service. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B You need to run ntdsutil.exe with the `compact to\\’ option. References: https://theitbros.com/active-directory-database-compact-defrag/
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You are troubleshooting a folder access issue for User1. You need a list of groups to which User1 is either a direct member or an indirect member. Solution: You run Get-ADUser –Identity User1 –Property MemberOf. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B The Get-ADUser cmdlet does not include the MemberOf property. The command above is, therefore, not valid. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/addsadministration/get-aduser?view=win10-ps
QUESTION 3 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed. You publish an application named App1 by using the Web Application Proxy. You need to change the URL that users use to connect to App1 when they work remotely. Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
The Set-WebApplicationProxyApplication cmdlet modifies settings of a web application published through Web Application Proxy. Specify the web application to modify by using its ID. Note that the method of preauthentication cannot be changed. The cmdlet ensures that no other applications are already configured to use any specified ExternalURL or BackendServerURL. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/itpro/powershell/windows/wap/setwebapplicationproxyapplication
QUESTION 4 Your company has a marketing department. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two top-level organizational units (OUs) named MKT_Comps and MKT_Users. MKT_Comps contains the computer accounts for the computers in the marketing department. MKT_Users contains the user accounts for the users in the marketing department. You link a new Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to MKT_Comps. You need to deploy a VPN connection to all of the users who sign in to the marketing department computers. The users must be able to modify the VPN connection settings. Where in GPO1 should you create the settings for the VPN connection? A. Computer Configuration/Policies/Administrative Templates/Network/network Connections B. User Configuration/Policies/Administrative Templates/Network/Network Connections C. User Configuration/Preferences/Control Panel Settings/Network Options D. Computer Configuration/Preferences/Control Panel Settings/Network Options Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. IPAM uses a Windows Internal Database. You install Microsoft SQL Server on Server1. You plan to move the IPAM database to SQL Server. You need to create a SQL Server login for the IPAM service account. For which user should you create the login? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an administrative workstation named WKS1 that runs Windows 10. You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You download a custom administrative template that contains the following files: App1.admx App1.adml You need to ensure that you can configure GPO1 by using the settings in the new administrative template. To where should you copy each file? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a server named Web1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to list all the SSL certificates on Web1 that will expire during the next 60 days. Solution: You run the following command. Get-ChildItem Cert:\LocalMachine\Trust |? { $_.NotAfter It (Get-Date).AddDays( 60 ) } Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For you convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario. You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.
Group1 and Group2 contain only user accounts. Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computer3 that runs Windows 10. Computer3 is currently in a workgroup. An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain. From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1. An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the SetADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected] End of repeated scenario. You need to ensure that Admin1 can convert Group1 to a global group. What should you do? A. Add Admin1 to the Enterprise Admin group. B. Remove all the member from Group1. C. Modify the Security settings of Group1. D. Convert Group1 to a universal security group. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. A partner organization has an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Adatum.com contains an Active Directory Rights Management (AD RMS) cluster installed on a server named adat1.adatum.com. Contoso.com contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster installed on a server named cont1.contoso.com. You need to allow the AD RMS cluster in adatum.com to accept rights account certificates (RACs) from contoso.com. What should you do? A. In contoso.com, import the trusted user domain file from adat1.adatum.com B. In adatum.com, import the trusted publishing domain file from adat1.adatum.com C. In contoso.com, import the trusted publishing domain file from cont1.contoso.com D. In adatum.com, import the trusted user domain file from cont1.contoso.com Correct Answer: D References: https://winintro.ru/rms_help.en/html/59c802d0-3982-432c-b06f-3e148dca0166.htm
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located in the perimeter network. You install the Active Directory Federation Services server role on Server1. You create an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm by using a certificate that has a subject name of sts.contoso.com. You need to enable certificate authentication from the Internet on Server1. Which two inbound TCP ports should you open on the firewall? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. 389 B. 443 C. 3389 D. 8531 E. 49443 Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named litwarenc.com and contoso.com. The contoso.com domain contains two domains controllers named LON-DC01 and LON-DC02. The domain controllers are located in a site named London that is associated to a subnet of 192.168.10.0/24 You discover that LON-DC02 is not a global catalog server. You need to configure LON-DC02 as a global catalog server. What should you do? A. From the properties of the LON-DC02 computer account in Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the NTDS settings. B. From the Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-ADOptionalFeature cmdlet. C. From Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the NTDS Settings object of the London site. D. From the properties of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU) in Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Security settings. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2016. You have a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 has two nodes named Server1 and Server2. All the optional features in Active Directory are enabled. A junior administrator accidentally deletes the computer object named Cluster1. You discover that Cluster1 is offline. You need to restore the operation of Cluster1 in the least amount of time possible. What should you do? A. Run the Enable-ADAccount cmdlet from Windows PowerShell. B. Perform an authoritative restore by running ntdutil.exe. C. Perform a tombstone reanimation by running ldp.exe. D. Recover a deleted object from the Active Directory Recycle Bin. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Your company has a main office and three branch offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The main office contains three domain controllers. Each branch office contains one domain controller. You discover the new settings in the Default Domain Policy are not applied in one of the branch offices, but all other Group Policy objects (GPOs) are applied. You need to check the replication of the Default Domain Policy for the branch office. What should you do from a domain controller in the main office? A. From Group Policy Management, click Default Domain Policy under Contoso.com, and then open the Scope tab. B. From a command prompt, run dcdiag.exe. C. From a command prompt, run repadmin.exe. D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-GPOReport cmdlet. Correct Answer: C
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Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
Skills measured
Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)
Microsoft other Certification ms-200 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do? A. Create a recovery database on another Exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery database. B. On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07. C. Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15. D. On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then restore a backup of the database. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains four Mailbox servers. You are decommissioning a Mailbox server named EX01. When you attempt to remove one of the mailbox databases from EX01, you receive a warning message that the database still contains mailboxes. You run Get-Mailbox -Server EX01 and confirm that all user mailboxes are hosted on other servers. You need to remove the mailbox database. What should you do first? A. Disable circular logging. B. Move the arbitration mailboxes to another server. C. Run eseutil /p. D. Stop the Microsoft Exchange Information Store service. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization. Users access their email by using a URL of https://mail.contoso.com. You are installing a new Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server to replace an existing Exchange Server 2016 server. You need to secure all the Exchange services by using a certificate. The solution must minimize warnings on client computers. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization for contoso.com that has two Internet-facing servers named EX01 and EX02. In the public DNS zone, you have two MX records for contoso.com. You discover that all email sent to the organization is delivered to EX01. However, when EX01 is down for maintenance, email messages are delivered successfully to EX02. You need to ensure that email is delivered to both EX01 and EX02 during normal operations. What should you modify? A. the priority of the MX records B. the properties of the Receive connector on EX01 C. the properties of the Receive connector on EX02 D. the weight of the MX records Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT Your network contains two Active Directory sites in London and Toronto. The London site contains a Mailbox server named LONEX01. The Toronto site contains a Mailbox server named TOREX01. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that uses a namespace of contoso.com. You need to ensure that all email sent to an email domain named fabrikam.com flows through the Toronto site. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 You manage a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has 3,000 users. Each user has a company-provided mobile device that uses Exchange ActiveSync. You discover that devices running a specific operating system version contain a bug that causes the excessive consumption of resources on the Exchange servers. You need to prevent the devices from accessing email until the devices are updated. Which cmdlet should you run? A. Set-ActiveSyncDeviceAutoblockThreshold B. Set-MobileDeviceMailboxPolicy C. New-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule D. Set-CasMailbox Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/devices/new-activesyncdeviceaccessrule?view=exchange-ps
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You need to configure the virtual directories to meet the technical requirements. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains two Mailbox servers as shown in the following table.
EX01 fails. You do not know how long it will take to recover EX01. You need to provide all affected users with the ability to send and receive email as quickly as possible. How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 9 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription for a company named Fabrikam,Inc. The company uses an Exchange Online tenant that has an email domain named fabirkam.com. Fabrikam works with a partner company Contoso, Ltd. that uses an email domain named contoso.com. A new security policy at Contoso states that any email sent from partners to Contoso employees must use TLS encryption. You need to ensure that email sent from Fabrikam to Contoso uses TLS. What should you create in the tenant? A. a new connector that specifies the contoso.com SMTP domain B. a remote domain named contoso.com C. a new connector that specifies the fabrikam.com SMTP domain D. a remote domain named fabrikam.com Correct Answer: A Configure a Send connector in Fabrikam to point to Contoso.
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a shared mailbox named Inquiries. You need to configure Inquiries to meet the following requirements: A user named User1 must have full access to the mailbox without having permissions to send email messages. A user named User2 must be able to send email messages that appear to come from the mailbox. How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. The company\\’s IT department has a monitoring application that generates email message alerts. You need to configure Exchange to accept messages from the monitoring application. The solution must ensure that messages are accepted regardless of their size. You create a new Receive connector scoped to the IP address of the server used by the monitoring application. Which two actions should you perform next? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Add the Exchange servers permission group to the Receive connector. B. Add the Exchange users permission group to the Receive connector. C. Grant the Ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Any-Recipient right to the NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON user account. D. Set the authentication mechanism to ExternalAuthoritative. E. Add the Anonymous users permission group to the Receive connector. Correct Answer: CE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/connectors/allow-anonymous-relay?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 12 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 Mailbox server named EX01. You run the command as shown in the following exhibit.
What is the effect of the configuration? A. The message tracking log files will be retained for 30 days, and then they will be purged. B. The message tracking log files will be purged immediately. C. The message tracking log files will be retained until the directory size limit is exceeded. D. The message tracking log files will be retailed for 365 days, and then they will be purged. Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-logs/configure-message-tracking?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 13 You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. B. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. D. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the databases on another server. Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 An OSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors? A. 100 B. 80 C. 60 D. 50 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 What two features are inherent advantages of MPLS VPN services? (Choose two.) A. service providers can provide additional services B. virtual private networks segment traffic and ensure privacy C. easier to troubleshoot than Layer 2 WAN technologies D. faster data transfer speeds at lower costs E. functions without Cisco Express Forwarding Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Two companies want to merge their OSPF networks, but they run different OSPF domains. Which option must be created to accomplish this requirement? A. OSPF virtual link to bridge the backboneareas of the two companies together B. Area on the ASBR of each company with the same area ID to bridge the networks together C. redistribute routes between domains D. NSSA on the ASBR of each company Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will result in the most efficient use of which technology? A. Layer 3 switching in the core B. Network Admission Control (NAC) C. IP telephony (voice and video) services D. ACLs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A network engineer is designing an address plan based on network applications. Which application presents the greatest need for its own address block? A. IP telephony B. management C. multicast D. physical security Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 An engineer wants to ensure that common services communicate to several applications in various EPGs. Which two features within Cisco ACI accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A. filter B. contract C. application profile D. bridge domain E. tenant Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7 Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions? A. FlexLinks B. loop-free U C. looped square D. looped triangle E. loop-free inverted U Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which Cisco NAC Appliance design is the most scalable in large Layer 2-to-distribution implementation? A. Layer 2 out-of-band B. Layer 2 in-band C. Layer 3 out-of-band D. Layer 3 in-band Correct Answer: B https://www.safaribooksonline.com/library/view/foundation-learning-guide/9780132652933/ch08.html “Layer 2 In-Band Designs The Layer 2 in-band topology is the most common deployment option. […] This is the most scalable design in large L2-to-distribution environments, because this design can be transparently implemented in the existing network supporting multiple access layer switches. It supports all network infrastructure equipment. The Cisco NAS supports per- user ACLs.”
QUESTION 9 Which three options are benefits of using VRFs within an enterprise network? (Choose three.) A. simplifies configuration and troubleshooting B. enables partitioning of network resources C. enhances security between user groups D. provides additional redundancy at Layer 3 E. allows for routing and forwarding separation F. improves routing protocol convergence Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 10 OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two) A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes D. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area E. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 A large-scale IP SLA deployment is causing memory and CPU shortages on the routers in an enterprise network. Which solution can be implemented to mitigate these issues? (E) A. An offline router for disaster recovery B. a CPE device that is managed by the network provider C. A shadow router D. A standby router for failover operation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which technology can block ports to provide a loop-free topology and does not contain a port state named “listening?” A. VLAN B. RPVST+ C. VSS D. STP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which three virtualization categories are in campus networks? (Choose three.) A. Layer 2 virtualization B. Layer 3 clustering C. network virtualization D. device virtualization E. network clustering F. device clustering Correct Answer: CDF
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The IT Fundamentals Certification Study Guide was designed to help you acquire the knowledge and skills to set up and use a computer at home securely and keep it in good working order, as well as provide informal support for PCs and simple computer networks to your colleagues in a small business. It will also assist you in preparation for the CompTIA A+ certification exam.
Set up a computer workstation running Windows and use basic software applications.
Understand the functions and types of devices used within a computer system.
Apply basic computer maintenance and support principles.
Understand some principles of software and database development.
Configure computers and mobile devices to connect to home networks and to the internet.
Identify security issues affecting the use of computers and networks.
Latest effective CompTIA FC0-U61 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication? A. Password and passphrase B. Fingerprint and retina scan C. Hardware token and smartphone D. Smart card and PIN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which of the following would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol? A. Document sharing software B. Instant messaging software C. Conferencing software D. Email software Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally protected slogan of a business? A. Contract B. Patent C. Copyright D. Trademark Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was performed? A. Data correlation B. Data manipulation C. Data gathering D. Data definition Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen. Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this? A. Encryption B. Compression C. Permissions D. Auditing Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue? A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN. B. Enable task scheduling. C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values. D. Review the fault tolerance configurations. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands should the administrator use? A. SELECT B. INSERT C. DELETE D. UPDATE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following data types should a developer use when creating a variable to hold a postal code? A. Integer B. String C. Float D. Boolean Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern? A. Eavesdropping B. Impersonating C. Destructing D. Altering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing? A. Turn on private browsing B. Delete browsing history on program close. C. Notify when downloads are complete. D. Configure prompting before downloading content. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems. Which of the following is being developed? A. Algorithm B. Software C. Pseudocode D. Flowchart Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible. The data does not need to remain persistent. Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data? A. Flat file B. Memory C. Relational database D. Solid state drive Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A desktop administrator just connected a printer to a workstation, but the workstation does not recognize the printer. Which of the following does the workstation MOST likely need for the printer to function? A. Permission B. Ink cartridge C. USB cable D. Driver Correct Answer: D
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:
Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
Identifying common software applications and their purpose
Using security and web browsing best practices
This exam is intended for candidates who are advanced end users and/or are considering a career in IT. The exam is also a good fit for individuals interested in pursuing professional-level certifications, such as A+.
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Free 56 Cisco CCIE 400-051 Practice test questions and answers
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes how this Cisco IOS SIP gateway, with an analog phone attached to its FXS port, handles an incoming informational SIP 180 response message without SDP? A. It will enable early media cut-through. B. It will generate local ring back. C. It will do nothing because the message is informational. D. It will terminate the call because this is an unsupported message format. E. It will take the FXS port offhook. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) feature allows you to specify whether 180 messages with Session Description Protocol (SDP) are handled in the same way as 183 responses with SDP. The 180 Ringing message is a provisional or informational response used to indicate that the INVITE message has been received by the user agent and that alerting is taking place. The 183 Session Progress response indicates that information about the call state is present in the message body media information. Both 180 and 183 messages may contain SDP, which allows an early media session to be established prior to the call being answered. Prior to this feature, Cisco gateways handled a 180 Ringing response with SDP in the same manner as a 183 Session Progress response; that is, the SDP was assumed to be an indication that the far end would send early media. Cisco gateways handled a 180 response without SDP by providing local ringback, rather than early media cut-through. This feature provides the capability to ignore the presence or absence of SDP in 180 messages, and as a result, treat all 180 messages in a uniform manner. The SIP–Enhanced 180 Provisional Response Handling feature allows you to specify which call treatment, early media or local ringback, is provided for 180 responses with SDP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/cube/configuration/guide/vb_book/vb_book/ vb_1506.html
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which number is sent as the caller ID when a user at extension 5001 places a call that matches this translation profile? A. 14087775001 B. +4087775001 C. 4087750001 D. +14087775001 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: When someone dials 5001, it will match rule 2 because it exactly starts with 5(five) using the ^ sign and ends with [0-9] followed by $. In replace pattern you can see +1408777 & \0 means all set of match pattern. Thus, +14087775001.
QUESTION 3 Which Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profile is also known as best-effort video on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? A. homogeneous B. guaranteed-audio C. rendezvous D. heterogeneous E. flex mode video Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video). As the name suggests, when Guaranteed Audio Conferences is configured, the system attempts to display video for all participants; however, it does not guarantee that the video of all participants is displayed. For those participants whose video is not displayed, participants are downgraded to audio-only and the profile guarantees preservation of the audio portion of the call. This option gives you added flexibility because the DSPs are not all reserved when the profile is created; the system attempts to reserve them when this profile is activated with an actual conference. For example: dspfarm profile 1 conference video guaranteed-audio codec h264 vga codec h264 4cif Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video- conferencing-isr-routers/qa_c67-649850.html
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls rang both phones and were answered by IP phone 2. Which option describes what will happen to the third incoming call? A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call. B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call. C. Only IP phone 1 rings and can answer the call. D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100. E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: As we can see busy-trigger-per-button set to 2 in voice register pool 1(IP Phone 1). So, IP Phone 1’s channel is free for receiving incoming calls and right now IP Phone 2 is busy answering call.
QUESTION 5 Which SIP message element is mapped to QSIG FACILITY messages being tunneled across a SIP trunk between two Cisco IOS gateways? A. SIP UPDATE B. SIP OPTIONS C. SIP SUBSCRIBE D. SIP INFO E. SIP NOTIFY Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Mapping of QSIG Message Elements to SIP Message Elements This section lists QSIG message elements and their associated SIP message elements when QSIG messages are tunneled over a SIP trunk. • QSIG FACILITY/NOTIFY/INFO <—> SIP INFO • QSIG SETUP <—> SIP INVITE • QSIG ALERTING <—> SIP 180 RINGING • QSIG PROGRESS <—> SIP 183 PROGRESS • QSIG CONNECT <—> SIP 200 OK • <—> SIP BYE/CANCEL/4xx—6xx Response Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/sip/configuration/guide/15_0/sip_15_0_book/tunneling_qsig.html
QUESTION 6 Which two types of line codes are configurable for an E1 PRI controller on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.) A. CRC4 B. AMI C. B8ZS D. HDB3 E. ESF F. SF Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configuring an NM-xCE1T1-PRI Card for an E1 Interface Perform this task to select and configure an NM-xCE1T1-PRI network module card as E1. SUMMARY STEPS 1. enable 2. configure terminal 3. card type e1 slot 4. controller e1 slot / port 5. linecode {ami | hdb3} 6. framing {crc4 | no-crc4} Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/interface/configuration/12-4/ir-12-4- book/ir-12-port-chann-nm.html
QUESTION 7 Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.) A. It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers. B. Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair. C. It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs. D. Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs. E. It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy. F. The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface. Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configure box-to-box redundancy when you: • Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active/standby (only the master CSS processes flows) • Can configure a dedicated Fast Ethernet (FE) link between the CSSs for the VRRP heartbeat Do not configure box-to-box redundancy when you: • Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active-active (both CSSs processing flows). Use VIP redundancy instead. • Cannot configure a dedicated FE link between the CSSs. • Require the connection of a Layer 2 device between the redundant CSS peers
QUESTION 8
IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, and the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2. Which option describes what will happen to the fourth incoming call? A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call. B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call. C. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call. D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100. E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: IP Phone 1 & 2 both have busy-trigger-per-button configured to 3 & 2 respectively. So, the 4th incoming call will get forwarded to 2100 as busy-triggers are exceeding in IP Phones. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_cr/c me_c1ht.html#wp1570384096
QUESTION 9 Which statement describes the question mark wildcard character in a SIP trigger that is configured on Cisco Unity Express? A. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9. B. It matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. C. It matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. D. It matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. E. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9, when used within square brackets. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Table 5-2 Trigger Pattern Wildcards and Special Characters Character Description Examples X The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9. The trigger pattern 9XXX matches all numbers in the range 9000 through 9999. ! The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. The trigger pattern 91! matches all numbers in the range 910 through 91999999999999999999999999999999. ? The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The trigger pattern 91X? matches all numbers in the range 91 through 91999999999999999999999999999999. + The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The trigger pattern 91X+ matches all numbers in the range 910 through 91999999999999999999999999999999. [ ] The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values. The trigger pattern 813510[012345] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105. – The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values. The trigger pattern 813510[0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105. ^ The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values. Ensure that it is the first character following the opening bracket ([). Each trigger pattern can have only one ^ character. The trigger pattern 813510[^0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135106
QUESTION 10 Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true? A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs. B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones. C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN. D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone. E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone. Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs. Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support. Mid-calls are either of the following: – Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with the phone. – Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered. Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN. State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it? A. FXS B. E&M C. BRI D. FXOE. DID Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configuring FXS and FXO Voice Ports to Support Caller ID To configure caller-ID on FXS and FXO voice ports, use the following commands beginning in global configuration mode: Command Purpose Step 1 Router(config)# caller-id enable Enables caller ID. This command applies to FXS voice ports that send caller-ID information and to FXO ports that receive it. By default caller ID is disabled. Note If the station-id or a caller-id alerting command is configured on the voice port, these automatically enable caller ID, and the caller-id enable command is not necessary. Step 2 Router(config-voiceport)# station-id name name Configures the station name on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station name on an FXO port of a router for which incoming Caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. The name argument is a character string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station. Note This command applies only to caller-ID calls, not Automatic Number Identification (ANI) calls. ANI supplies calling number identification only. Step 3 Router(config-voiceport)# station-id number number Configure the station number on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station number on an FXO port of a router for which incoming caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. If the caller-ID station number is not provided by either the incoming PSTN caller ID or by the station number configuration, the calling number included with the on-net routed call is determined by Cisco IOS software by using a reverse dial-peer search. In this case, the number is obtained by searching for a POTS dial-peer that refers to the voice-port and the destination- pattern number from that dial-peer is used. Number is a string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station telephone or extension number. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/voice/configuration/guide/fvvfax_c/vvfclid.ht ml
QUESTION 12 Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router? A. sequential B. peer C. longest idle D. parallel E. overlay Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox. The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group: Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32
QUESTION 13 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call? A. o B. c C. w D. x E. : Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.
QUESTION 14 Which codec is supported on the Cisco PVDM2 DSP modules but not on the PVDM3 DSP modules? A. G.728 B. G.729B C. G.729AB D. G.723 E. G.726 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: All codecs that are supported on the PVDM2 are supported on the PVDM3, except that the PVDM3 does not support the G.723 (G.723.1 and G.723.1A) codecs. The PVDM2 can be used to provide G.723 codec support or the G.729 codec can be as an alternative on the PVDM3 Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/1900/software/configuration/guide/Sof tware_Configuration/pvdm3_config.html
QUESTION 15 Which message is used by a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway to send periodic keepalives to its call agent? A. CRCX B. AUCX C. NTFY D. RQNT E. 200 OK Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: The gateway maintains this connection by sending empty MGCP Notify (NTFY) keepalive messages to Cisco CallManager at 15-second intervals. If the active Cisco CallManager fails to acknowledge receipt of the keepalive message within 30 seconds, the gateway attempts to switch over to the next highest order Cisco CallManager server that is available. If none of the Cisco CallManager servers respond, the gateway switches into fallback mode and reverts to its default H.323 session application for basic call control support of IP telephony activity in the network.
QUESTION 16 Refer to the exhibit
Which two statements about calls that match dial-peer voice 7 voip are true? (Choose two.) A. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 use G.711. B. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 have the Diversion header removed from SIP Invites. C. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 use NOTIFY-based, out-of-band DTMF relay. D. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 are marked with DSCP 32. E. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 are marked with DSCP 34. Correct Answer: BE Explanation Explanation/Reference: Dial peer 7 refers to SIP profile 102, which we can see is configured to have the Diversion header removed from SIP Invites. Dial peer 7 marks traffic with AF41, which is equivalent to DSCP 34.
QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements about the show command output are true? (Choose two.) A. T1 0/2/1 terminates Q.921 signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. B. T1 0/0/0 terminates Q.921 signaling on the gateway. C. T1 0/0/0 terminates SIP Signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. D. T1 0/0/0 terminates Q.931 signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. E. T1 0/2/1 terminates Q.931 signaling on the gateway. Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference: As you can see the T1 0/0/0:23 interface is active in layer 1,2(multi frame established) & 3,it means Q.931 signaling terminates at gateway and using backhauled technique q931 messages are going to CUCM server. But in case of T1 0/2/1 port multi frames are not established in layer 2.So, it’s not configured properly & doesn’t backhauling q931 messages to CUCM
QUESTION 18 When multiple greetings are enabled on Cisco Unity Express, which greeting will take the highest precedence? A. standard B. meeting C. busy D. closed E. internal Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Meeting greeting has the highest priority because it is set by the user when he doesn’t want to take the call and notices the caller he is online.
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. Which option describes what will happen to an incoming call that entered the call queue but all members of the hunt group are in Do Not Disturb status? A. The call is forwarded to extension 2120. B. The call is forwarded to extension 2220. C. The call is forwarded to extension 2003. D. The call is disconnected with user busy. E. The call is forwarded to extension 2100. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because all members of hunt group are unavailable or activate DnD and incoming queued call will forward to voicemail using the param voice-mail 2220 command. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/bacd/configuration/guide/cme 40tcl/40bacd.html#wpmkr1105714
QUESTION 20 Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.) A. homogeneous B. rendezvous C. guaranteed-audio D. scheduled E. guaranteed-video F. ad-hoc Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: Q. What video conferences are supported? A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video). Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice- video-conferencing-isr-routers/qa_c67-649850.html
QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit.Which out-of-dialog SIP OPTIONS ping response put dial-peer tag 1111 into its current operational state? A. 501 Not Implemented B. 504 Server Time-out C. 408 Request Timeout D. 486 Busy Here E. 503 Service Unavailable Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: SIP 503 Service Unavailable is commonly seen in a VoIP network when a SIP device (such as a SIP server) is knowingly unable to process a call. Typically when this happens the endpoint that originated the Invite will try the next available host it receives in the SIP Contact header.
QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit.The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager server at the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone received an IP address in the correct subnet and with a correct subnet mask from the DHCP server, but never completed registration with Cisco Unified CM. Assuming the IP phone is correctly defined on Unified CM, which two statements the network components are true? (Choose two.) A. The MAC address of the IP phone is 01ec44761e3e7d. B. The IP address of the DHCP server is 10.101.15.1. C. The MAC address of the VLAN 101 interface is 01ec44761e3e7d. D. The MAC address of the IP phone is ec44761e3e7d. E. There is no IP connectivity between the VLAN 101 interface of the branch router and the ip-helper address that is configured on this interface. F. Based on the information provided, we cannot conclude if there is IP connectivity between the IP phone and Cisco Unified CM.Correct Answer: DF Explanation Explanation/Reference: In the logs the only information that we get is about the mac address of the IP phone because the IP phone is raising the boot request.
QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit.
How many simultaneous outbound calls are possible with this Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration on these two phones? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 E. 11 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ephone is configured as octo line so maximum call number is 8 and it will be divided between lines.
QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibitYour customer sent you this debug output, captured on a Cisco IOS router (router A), to troubleshoot a problem where all H.323 calls that originate from another Cisco IOS router (router B) are being dropped almost immediately after arriving at router A. What is the reason for these disconnected calls? A. Calls were unsuccessful because of internal, memory-related problems on router A. B. Calls were rejected because the called number was denied on a configured class of restriction list on router A. C. Calls were rejected because the VoIP dial peer 1002 was not operational. D. Calls were unsuccessful because the router B IP address was not found in the trusted source IP address list on router A. E. Calls were rejected by router A because it received an admission reject from its gatekeeper because of toll fraud suspicion. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Trusted source IP address list on router is a list which secures the connectivity of router if it is enabled then we need to give the trusted entry for any route to reach.
QUESTION 25 Refer to the exhibit.
How many simultaneous inbound calls can be handled by these two IP phones? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 9 E. 10 Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: The line is configured as shared line so it will support maximum two calls at a time.
QUESTION 26 How many signaling bits are there in each T1 time slot using channel associated signaling with Super Frame? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 E. 12 Correct Answer: B ExplanationExplanation/Reference: Each T1 CAS has 24 channels that can transmit 8 bits per channel each. This gives us a total of 192 bits. The T1 has one additional bit for framing, bringing the total to 193 bits. Two types of line coding can be used on a T1 CAS. The first type of line coding is called Super Frame (SF). This is an older and less – efficient type of framing. Super Frame bundles 12 of these 193 – bit frames together for transport. It then uses the even ?numbered frames as signaling bits. The T1 CAS signaling then looks at every sixth frame for signaling information. This comes out to be 2 bits that are referred to as the A and B bits, which reside in frames 6 and 12.
QUESTION 27 Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express hunt group mechanisms keep track of the number of hops in call delivery decisions? (Choose two.) A. sequential B. peer C. longest idle D. parallel E. overlay F. linear Correct Answer: BC Explanation Explanation/Reference: Peer configures hunting in a circular manner among the hunt group member DNs and starts with the DN to the right of the last DN to ring. Longest-idle specify hunting on the DN which is idle for a longest period of time and the call will go to that DN of the hunt Group. Reference: http://ccievoice.ksiazek.be/?p=690
QUESTION 28 In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones? A. idle B. seized C. alerting D. ringing E. connected Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a second time disables SNR. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html
QUESTION 29 Which statement about what happens to a Cisco IOS SIP VoIP dial-peer that never received any responses to its out-of-dialog OPTIONS ping is true? A. Its admin state will be up but operational state will be down. B. Its admin and operational state will be down. C. Its admin and operational state will remain up. D. Its admin state will be up but operational state will be “busy-out”. E. Its admin and operational state will be “busy-out”. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: You can check the validity of your dial peer configuration by performing the following tasks: If you have relatively few dial peers configured, you can use the show dial-peer voice command to verify that the configuration is correct. To display a specific dial peer or to display all configured dial peers, use this command. The following is sample output from the show dial-peer voice command for a specific VoIP dial peer: router# show dial-peer voice 10 VoiceOverIpPeer10 tag = 10, dest-pat = \Q’, incall-number = \Q+14087′, group = 0, Admin state is up, Operation state is down Permission is Answer, type = voip, session-target = \Q’, sess-proto = cisco, req-qos = bestEffort, acc-qos = bestEffort, fax-rate = voice, codec = g729r8, Expect factor = 10,Icpif = 30, VAD = disabled, Poor QOV Trap = disabled, Connect Time = 0, Charged Units = 0 Successful Calls = 0, Failed Calls = 0 Accepted Calls = 0, Refused Calls = 0 Last Disconnect Cause is “” Last Disconnect Text is “” Last Setup Time = 0 To show the dial peer that matches a particular number (destination pattern), use the show dialplan number command. The following example displays the VoIP dial peer associated with the destination pattern 51234: router# show dialplan number 51234 Macro Exp.: 14085551234 VoiceOverIpPeer1004 tag = 1004, destination-pattern = \Q+1408555….’, answer-address = \Q’, group = 1004, Admin state is up, Operation state is up type = voip, session-target = \Qipv4:1.13.24.0′, ip precedence: 0 UDP checksum = disabled session-protocol = cisco, req-qos = best-effort, acc-qos = best-effort, fax-rate = voice, codec = g729r8, Expect factor = 10, Icpif = 30, VAD = enabled, Poor QOV Trap = disabled Connect Time = 0, Charged Units = 0 Successful Calls = 0, Failed Calls = 0 Accepted Calls = 0, Refused Calls = 0 Last Disconnect Cause is “” Last Disconnect Text is “” Last Setup Time = 0 Matched: +14085551234 Digits: 7 Target: ipv4:172.13.24.0
QUESTION 30 Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.) A. The ephone hunt group is mandatory. B. Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable. C. Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones. D. Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones. E. Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones. F. The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential. Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.ht ml
QUESTION 31 Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes how this Cisco IOS SIP gateway, with an analog phone attached to its FXS port, handles an incoming informational SIP 180 response message with SDP? A. It will enable early media cut-through. B. It will generate local ring back. C. It will do nothing because the message is informational. D. It will terminate the call because this is an unsupported message format. E. It will take the FXS port offhook. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 32 Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command? A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED B. TEI_ASSIGNED C. AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT D. STANDBY E. INITIALIZED Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.
QUESTION 33 Refer to the exhibit.
IP phone 1 has the MAC address 11111.1111.1111, while IP phone 2 has the MAC address 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, while the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2. What will happen to the fourth incoming call? A. Both phones will ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call. B. Both phones will ring and either phone can answer the call. C. Only IP phone 2 will ring and can answer the call. D. Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2100. E. Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2200. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: In shared line configuration phone share the same line so it is possible for any phone to answer the call.
QUESTION 34 Refer to the exhibit.
How many calls, inbound and outbound combined, are supported on the IP phone? A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 12 E. 50 Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Output incomplete to figure out the answer
QUESTION 35 In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM-12 DSP hardware based on? A. C542 B. C549 C. C5510 D. C5421 E. C5409 Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: NM-HDV has five SIMM sockets (called Banks) that hold the PVDM-12 cards. Each PVDM- 12 card contains three TI 549 DSPs. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/7x/uc7_0/media.html
QUESTION 36 Which enrollment method does a Cisco IOS VPN router trustpoint use to install a Certificate Authority Proxy Function certificate for LSC validation of a Cisco IP phone client? A. HTTP proxy server B. certificate authority server URL C. terminal D. self-signed E. registration authority Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Router(config)#crypto pki trustpoint CAPF enrollment terminal authorization username subjectname commonname revocation-check none Router(config)#crypto pki authenticate CAPF Router(config)# Things to Note: The enrollment method is terminal because the certificate has to be manually installed on the Router. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/authentication- authorization-accounting-aaa/116313-configure-anyconnect-00.html
QUESTION 37 Which three options are valid per-session video conference participants supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose three.) A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 9 F. 12 G. 16 Correct Answer: BDG Explanation Explanation/Reference: The integrated video conferencing services use the same DSP resources on PVDM3s that are used for widely deployed ISR G2 voice capabilities. These modules, in conjunction with Cisco IOS Software, perform audio and video mixing, video transcoding for certain resolutions, and other functions for video endpoints. PVDM3 modules support flexible media resources and conference profile management to maximize capacity with predictable end-user experiences. Both homogenous and heterogonous video conferences are supported. A homogenous conference refers to one in which participants connect to the ISR G2 with devices that support the same video format attributes (for example, the same codec, resolution, frame rate, and bit rate). A heterogeneous conference refers to one in which participants can connect to a conference bridge with devices that support different video format attributes. Each conference allows 4-, 8-, or 16-party participants. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice- video-conferencing-isr-routers/data_sheet_c78-649427.html
QUESTION 38 Which two are characteristics of jitter buffers? (Choose two.) A. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by turning variable network delays into constant delays at the destination end systems. B. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by turning variable network delays into constant delays at the sending systems. C. The role of the jitter buffer is to balance the delay and the probability of interrupted playout due to late packets. D. The role of the jitter buffer is to queue late packets and reorder out-of-order packets. E. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by queuing packets into constant delays at the sending systems. Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: Jitter buffers are used to remove the effects of jitter so that asynchronous packet arrivals are changed to a synchronous stream. The jitter buffer trades off between delay and the probability of interrupted playout because of late packets (discard). Reference: http://www.appneta.com/blog/jitter-voip/
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit.The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager serverat the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone could not register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. You have confirmed that the IP phone received an IP address in the correct subnet and with a correct subnet mask from the DHCP server. Assuming the IP phone is correctly defined on Unified CM, which two statements about the network components are true? (Choose two.) A. The MAC address of the IP phone is 01ec44761e3e. B. The IP address of the DHCP server is 10.101.15.1. C. The MAC address of the VLAN 101 interface is ec44761e3e7d. D. The IP address of the VLAN 101 interface is 10.101.15.1. E. There is IP connectivity between the VLAN 101 interface of the branch router and the ip- helper address that is configured on this interface. F. There is IP connectivity between the IP phone and the ip-helper address on the VLAN 101 interface. Correct Answer: DE Explanation Explanation/Reference: As we can see from the logs given first line relate that dhcp request is being relayed. So it clarifies there must be ip helper address commend given by the admin on interface vlan 101. Now we can see from the second line that giaddress is set as source address of vlan 101 by the dhcp as 10.101.15.1 to unicast the dhcp request
QUESTION 40 Assume the IP address of Cisco Unity Express is 10.1.1.1. Which URL provides Cisco Unity Express end users with a GUI interface to access and manage their messages and mailbox settings? A. http://10.1.1.1/Web/Common/Login.do B. http://10.1.1.1/ciscopca C. http://10.1.1.1/user D. http://10.1.1.1/inbox E. http://10.1.1.1/ Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: For user access cisco unity has predefined url and it is http://10.1.1.1/user
QUESTION 41 Refer to the exhibit.
Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit? A. e&m-wink-start B. e&m-delay-dial C. e&m-delay-dial D. e&m-lmr E. e&m-fgd Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can’t send ANI. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html
QUESTION 42 Which two analog telephony signaling methods are most vulnerable to glare conditions? (Choose two.) A. FXS Loop-start B. FXO Ground-start C. E&M Wink-start D. E&M Delay-dial E. E&M Immediate-start F. E&M Feature Group D Correct Answer: AE Explanation Explanation/Reference: The loop start signaling method is more common and is typically used by residential phone lines. When a voice port is configured with loop start signaling, the device (telephone) closes the circuit loop that signals the CO voice port to provide dial tone; an incoming call is signaled on the CO by supplying a predefined voltage on the line. The loop start signaling method has one main disadvantage in that it has no method of preventing both sides of the connection from attempting to seize the line at the same time; this condition is referred to as glare. Because of this, loop start signaling is typically not used on high demand circuits. With immediate-start, the calling side of the connection seizes the line by going off hook on the E-lead and address information is sent using dual-tone multifrequency (DTMF) digits. Immediate start signaling is vulnerable to glare just like loop- start signaling.
QUESTION 43 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a call in queue that was not answered by any member of the hunt group after the maximum amount of time allowed in the call queue expires? A. The call will be forwarded to extension 2120. B. The call will be forwarded to extension 2220. C. The call will be forwarded to extension 2003. D. The call will be disconnected with user busy. E. The call will be forwarded to 2100. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: As we can see in the configuration 2220 is configured as voice mail forwarding extension so the call will forward to voice mail.
QUESTION 44 Which two statements about the restrictions for support of H.239 are true? (Choose two.) A. SIP to H323 video calls using H.239 are not supported. B. Redundancy for H.323 calls is not supported. C. H.239 calls are not supported over intercluster trunks with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. H.239 is not supported with third-party endpoints. E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports a maximum of three video channels when using H.239. Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: Restriction for Support for H.239 The Support for H.239 feature has the following restrictions: Interworking SIP-H.323 Video calls using H.239 is not supported. Redundancy for H.323 calls is not supported. A fast-start request cannot include a request to open an H.239 additional video channel as it is not supported. H.239 systems based on H.235 is not supported. The SBC does not support call transfer for H.323 calls. When an H.323 endpoint is placed on hold, it closes its media as well as video channels. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/sbcu/2_xe/sbcu_ 2_xe_book/sbc_h239.html
QUESTION 45 Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router without having to shut and no shut the ports? A. THL tone sweep B. original tone sweep C. ECAN test D. inject-tone local sweep E. remote loop Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test requires minimal supervision. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance-choice.html
QUESTION 46 Which digital modulation method is used to transmit caller ID information on analog FXS ports on Cisco IOS routers? A. DTMF B. PSK C. FSK D. MF E. pulse dialing Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Link:-http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/vcr1/vcr1-cr-book/vcr-c4.html
QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit.
Which ds0-group option should you select to send automated number identification information on outbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit? A. e&m-fgd B. e&m-fgd C. fgd-eana D. e&m-delay-dial E. fgd-os Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: E&M signaling is often the preferred option for CAS because it avoids glare, it provides answer/disconnect supervision and it can receive Automatic Number Identification (ANI) with FGD and send ANI with FGD-EANA. In other words, you can have 1 channel-group for incoming calls and 1 channel-group for outgoing calls.
QUESTION 48 In Channel Associated Signaling on a T1 circuit using Extended Super Frame, how many signaling bits does each T1 timeslot have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 12 E. 24 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Each T1 channel carries a sequence of frames. These frames consist of 192 bits and an additional bit designated as the framing bit, for a total of 193 bits per frame. Super Frame (SF) groups twelve of these 193 bit frames together and designates the framing bits of the even numbered frames as signaling bits. CAS looks specifically at every sixth frame for the timeslot’s or channel’s associated signaling information. These bits are commonly referred to as A- and B-bits. Extended super frame (ESF), due to grouping the frames in sets of twenty-four, has four signaling bits per channel or timeslot. These occur in frames 6, 12, 18, and 24 and are called the A-, B-, C-, and D-bits respectively. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/digital-cas/22444-t1-cas- ios.html
QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit.
How many inbound calls can be handled simultaneously between ephone 1 and ephone 2 before a user busy tone is returned? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 E. 11 Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because hunt stop channel is set to 6 as it enables call hunting to up to six channels of this ephone-dn and remaining 2 channels are available for outgoing call features. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_cr/c me_e1ht.html
QUESTION 50 Refer to the exhibit.The exhibit shows an outgoing SIP 401 response message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to a SIP VoIP service provider gateway. Which action can the Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems administrator use to change the response to “200 OK”? A. Make sure the gateway IP address of the SIP VoIP service provider is defined correctly in Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. B. Enable OPTIONS ping on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. C. Disable OPTIONS ping on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. D. Create an SIP response alias to force outgoing 401 messages to “200 OK”. E. Disable digest authentication on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because Right now CUCM challenges the identity of a SIP user agent and must configure digest credentials for the application user in CUCM or you have to disable it for stop challenging by CUCM. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/security/9_0_1/secugd/CUCM_ BK_CCB00C40_00_cucm-security-guide-90/CUCM_BK_CCB00C40_00_cucm-security- guide_chapter_011010.html
QUESTION 51 In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM2-32 DSP hardware based on? A. C5441 B. C549 C. C5510 D. C5421 E. Broadcom 1500 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Table 6-2 DSP Resources on Cisco IOS Hardware Platforms with C5510 Chipset Hardware Module or Chassis DSP Configuration Maximum Number of Voice Terminations (Calls) per DSP and per Module Medium Complexity (8 calls per DSP) High Complexity (6 calls per DSP) Flex Mode1 (240 MIPS per DSP) VG-224 Fixed at 4 DSPs N/A 24 calls per platform Supported codecs: • G.711 (a-law, mu-law) • G.729a N/A NM-HD-1V2 Fixed at 1 DSP 4 calls per NM 4 calls per NM 240 MIPS per NM NM-HD-2V Fixed at 1 DSP 8 calls per NM 6 calls per NM 240 MIPS per NM NM-HD-2VE Fixed at 3 DSPs 24 calls per NM 18 calls per NM 720 MIPS per NM NM-HDV2 NM-HDV2-2T1/E1 NM-HDV2-1T1/E1 1 to 4 of: PVDM2-83 (½ DSP)PVDM2-16 (1 DSP)PVDM2-32 (2 DSPs)PVDM2-48 (3 DSPs)PVDM2-64 (4 DSPs) Calls per PVDM: 48162432 Calls per PVDM: 36121824 MIPS per PVDM: 120240480720960 Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42media.html
QUESTION 52 Which Cisco packet voice and video digital signal processor 3 can be used for video mixing on a Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2? A. PVDM3-16 B. PVDM3-32 C. PVDM3-64 D. PVDM3-128 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: All the PVDM3 types (that is, PVDM3-16, PVDM3-32, PVDM3-64, PVDM3-128, PVDM3- 192, and PVDM3-256) support switched-only video conferences. Only PVDM3-128 and higher modules support video conferencing with video mixing, transcoding and transrating. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video- conferencing-isr-routers/data_sheet_c78-649427.pdf
QUESTION 53 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. How much time does a member of the hunt group have to answer a queue call that is ringing on their extension? A. 5 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 30 seconds E. 40 seconds Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: As you can see the timeout 10 sec in ephone-hunt 1 means hunt group membes have to answer the queued call within 10 sec.
QUESTION 54 Refer to the exhibit.
This output was captured on a Cisco IOS gateway shortly after it became the active Cisco Unified Border Element in a box-to-box redundancy failover.How many calls are native to this Cisco Unified Border Element? A. 9 B. 12 C. 19 D. 31 E. 40 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Total no of calls =28+12=40. So, native calls are =40-9=31. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified- communications/unified-border-element/112095-cube-hsrp-config-00.html.
QUESTION 55 Which two responses from a SIP device, which is the only remote destination on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with OPTIONS ping enabled, cause the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”? (Choose two.) A. 503 Service Unavailable B. 408 Request Timeout C. 505 Version Not Supported D. 504 Server Timeout E. 484 Address Incomplete F. 404 Not Found Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: The remote peer may be marked as Out of Service if it fails to respond to OPTIONS, if it sends 503 or 408 responses, or if the Transport Control Protocol (TCP) connection cannot be established. If at least one IP address is available, the trunk is In Service; if all IP addresses are unavailable, the trunk is Out of Service. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_5_1/ccmcfg/bccm- 851-cm/b06siprf.html
QUESTION 56 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a new call that enters the call queue when there are already two calls in queue? A. The call will be forwarded to extension 2120. B. The call will be forwarded to extension 2220. C. The call will be forwarded to extension 2003. D. The call will be disconnected with user busy. E. The call will be forwarded to 2100. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: That is because queue over flow is forwarded to 2003 and maximum number of calls in queue is configured as two.
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Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 1 (ICND1)
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Free 30 Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-370 Practice test questions and answers
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should be verified? A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server C. that the user has an account on the authentication server D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a controller?(Choose two) A. show sysinfo B. show udi C. show inventory D. show boot E. show tech-support Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 While reviewing Clean Air data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default seventy level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the seventy level to its factory setting? A. informational B. major C. minor D. warning E. critical Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the engineer consider legal ramifications? A. rogue AP containment B. RF detection C. switch port tracing D. wire detection E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the CAPWAP messages? A. debug pm pki enable B. debug cert events enable C. debug capwap events enable D. debug capwap packet enable E. debug capwap errors enable Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Scenario The Big Engineering IT team has been working in the lab to do some testing of some new features the existing network won’t support. They are AP Croups, AP Failover, and Local Web Auth. They have been having problems with all three features. In this test environment the controllers only support the Composite and Structural Engineering and Aerodynamic Engineering groups. All SSIDs should omit the department name. Refer to the exhibit. This is a diagram of the floor plan for the Big Engineering office and the distribution of the departments. The tables below show how the controllers have been configured. Note, not all menu items, text boxes, or radio buttons are active.
When you review the configuration of the test network controller what needs to be changed to resolve the problems? (Choose four.) A. Change the High Availability Primary Controller Management Interface IP address. B. Remove the current WLANs and replace them with WLANs that have the same SSID names as on the AE-2504A controller. C. Add the Local Net User names and passwords D. Change the Layer 2 security to none and Layer 3 Security to Web Policy for the CSE-Contractors WLAN E. Remove me current WLAN from the CSE-WLAN AP Group and add all three of the WLANs configured in the CSE- 2504A F. Add the CSE APs to the CSE-WLANs AP-Group. Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 7 Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)A. The client has a 5 GHz connection. B. The client has authenticated. C. The client is 802.11n capable. D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP. E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8 The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit. A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join. B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware. C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version. D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue? Refer to the exhibit.
A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile. B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server. C. Reset the network settings on the devices. D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually. E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 An engineer is troubleshooting non-802 11 interference and observes this output. Which type of interference signaturescanbeidentified? Refer to the exhibit.
A. one frequency hopping Bluetooth B. two healthy CCK and one malformed OFDM C. three broadband jammers D. two strong microwave ovens and one moderate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A new wireless deployment with high AP density is experiencing high latency and connectivity issues on the 24 GHz band, despite an initial site survey done by a certified partner. Which option is the most impactful change a wireless consultant recommends? Refer to the exhibit.A. Increase the fragmentation threshold to allow larger packets over the air. B. Reduce the beacon period because it reduces the RF interference. C. Disable lower data rate, such as 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps. D. Disable the short preamble. E. Disable 80211g support to reduce interference. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A wireless user is experiencing connectivity issues with their Mac OS laptop. If the Mac is exhibiting the behavior of a “sticky client” how can the tech verity which AP the user is currently connected to? A. Hold shift while clicking the wireless icon. B. Hold option while clicking the wireless icon. C. Hold control while clicking the wireless icon. D. Hold command while clicking the wireless icon. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication. Which configurationiscausing the failure? A. The AP has override global credentials checked. B. The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE. C. The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISED. EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command causes this to occur? A. debug capwap detail enable B. debug capwap errors enable C. debug capwap info enable D. debug capwap events enable E. debug capwap packet enable F. debug capwap payload enable Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 A network engineer is troubleshooting why EAP authentication with a client is failing. Which two commands should be used to resolve the issue? (Choose two) A. debug dot1x notifications enable B. debug dot1x events enable C. debug arp D. debug aaa detail enable E. debug aaa events detail enable Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 16 Which channel width is the maximum that can be obtained by bonding two 802.11 ac subchannels according to US regulations? A. 160 MHz B. 120 MHz C. 84 MHz D. 240 MHz Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed. B. The AP successfully joined the controller. C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller. D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller. E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18 You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to access the standby unit? (Choose two.) A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface. B. Via Service Port Interface. C. Via SSH to the Management Interface. D. Via console connection. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19 Which ports require unrestricted port access for CleanAir RF spectrum analysis between the AP and Cisco Spectrum Expert? A. UDP 5246 and 5247 B. UDP 37540 and 37550 C. TCP 16113 and 16114 D. TCP 37540 and 37550 E. TCP 5246 and 5247 F. UDP 16113and 16114 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A recently acquired Cisco Aironet 1550 series AP is unable to join the WLC. This message is observed on the AP console: AAA Authentication Failure for UserName:CC93.1981.0035 User Type: WLAN USER Which action must be taken for the AP to associate with the controller? A. Add MAC address CC93.1981.0035 to the Security AAA AP policy Authorization List. B. Authenticate the AP to the WLC from the console using an admin account on the WLC. C. Add MAC address CC93.1981.035 to the Security AAA MAC Filtering tab. D. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:LSC tab. E. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:SSC tab. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client? A. siaddr B. ciaddr C. chaddr D. yiaddr E. giaddrCorrect Answer: C
QUESTION 22 Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout the building when browsing the Internet. Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences? A. low RSSI check B. 802.11r C. RX-SOP D. optimized roaming Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 A network engineer has identified clients who are experiencing delays white roaming. The network is configured with WPA2-Enterpnse. AES encryption, 802 1X authentication, and Cisco Centralized Key Management . Which change resolves the roaming delays? A. Utilize a supplicant that supports Cisco Centralized Key Management.” B. Enable AES and TKIP encryption C. Disable client session timeout D. Install wireless device drivers from Cisco Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 An engineer is deploying a wireless infrastructure and must use Layer 2 discovery for access point association. Which configuration meets this requirement? A. Configure the Access Points and WLC management interface on the same VLAN. B. Configure a DNS A RECORD to point to the controller. C. Configure option 43 on The APs DHCP scope. D. Configure the AP using a serial connection to indicate its controller. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 A wireless engineer is unable to join lightweight access points to the Cisco Wireless Controller. The access points receive ip addresses from a DHCP pool configured on the core switch. Which action must be taken to resolve the issue? A. Upgrade the Wireless Controller to a newer IOS release. B. Configure option 43 on the DHCP pool. C. Configure option 82 on the Wireless controller. D. Change the management ip address on the Wireless Controller. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 A mobile station in a factory contains an AP configured as a work group bridge that authenticates to a root AP using EAP-FAST. To be able to use the mobile station in further parts of the factory, another root AP is installed and also configured for EAP-FAST When the mobile station is attempting to roam to the other AP, it loses connection yet can still authenticate to the first one. What is the cause for the failed authentication on RAP2? Refer to the exhibit.
A. RAP1 is using a different authentication protocol than RAP2. B. RAP2 has a different SSID than RAP1. C. RAP1 is using a different encryption than RAP2. D. The authentication use name and password is different. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 In a cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type n und between the access point and the mass LAW controller? A. DTLS B. TIS C. STIS D. OpenSSL Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28 A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of discovery/join and DHCP process status? A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC B. debug capwap events – from the AP C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC D. debug ip udp – from the AP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Layer 3 WLAN controller mutual authentication join process events on the left into the order in which they occur on the right Not all options are used.
QUESTION 30 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all options are used.
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Which two statements about the show command output are true? (Choose two.)
Which out-of-dialog SIP OPTIONS ping response put dial-peer tag 1111 into its current operational state?
The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
Your customer sent you this debug output, captured on a Cisco IOS router (router A), to troubleshoot a problem where all H.323 calls that originate from another Cisco IOS router (router B) are being dropped almost immediately after arriving
The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager serverat the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone could not register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. You have confirmed that the IP
The exhibit shows an outgoing SIP 401 response message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to a SIP VoIP service provider gateway. Which action can the Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems administrator use to
A. The client has a 5 GHz connection.
A. Increase the fragmentation threshold to allow larger packets over the air.
A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
