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SAS Statistical Business Analyst (A00-240) Certification Exam Sample Questions(1-13)

Vendor: Peoplecert
Exam Code: PC0-001
Exam Name: ITIL 2011 Foundation

QUESTION 1
Refer to the ROC curve:

As you move along the curve, what changes?

A.The priors in the population
B.The true negative rate in the population
C.The proportion of events in the training data
D.The probability cutoff for scoring

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for honest assessment, what is
the most appropriate method for handling the mean imputation?

A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own partition.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now interested in getting the
sensitivity and specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of cutoff values. Which statement and option combination will generate these statistics?

A. Scoredata=valid1 out=roc;
B. Scoredata=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1resp(event= ‘1’) = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1resp(event”1″) = gender region/ out=roc;

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose two.)

A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which SAS program will divide the original data set into 60% training and 40% validation data sets,
stratified by county?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer:C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the lift chart:

At a depth of 0.1, Lift = 3.14. What does this mean?

A. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 times more events
than a random draw of 10%.
B. Selecting the observations with a response probability of at least 10% should result in 3.14 times more
events than a random draw of 10%.
C. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 timesgreater
accuracy than a random draw of 10%.
D. Selecting the observations with a response probability of atleast 10% should result in 3.14times greater
accuracy than a random draw of 10%.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the lift chart:

What does the reference line at lift = 1 corresponds to?
A. The predicted lift for the best 50% of validation data cases
B. The predicted lift if the entire population is scored as event cases
C. The predicted lift if none of the population are scored as event cases
D. The predicted lift if 50% of the population are randomly scored as event cases

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Suppose training data are oversampled in the event group to make the number of events and non-events
roughly equal. A logistic regression is run and the probabilities are output to a data set NEW and given the
variable name PE. A decision rule considered is, “Classify data as an event if probability is greater than
0.5.” Also the data set NEW contains a variable TG that indicates whether there is an event (1=Event, 0=
No event).
The following SAS program was used.

What does this program calculate?

A. Depth
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Positive predictive value

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit:
The plots represent two models, A and B, being fit to the same two data sets, training and validation.
Model A is 90.5% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 75.5% accurate at
doing the same on validation data. Model B is 83% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training
data and 78.3% accurate at doing the same on the validation data.
Which of the two models should be selected and why?
A. Model A. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model B on training data.
B. Model A. It performs better on the boundary for the training data.
C. Model B. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
D. Model B. It is simpler with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Assume a $10 cost for soliciting a non-responder and a $200 profit for soliciting a responder. The logistic
regression model gives a probability score named P_R on a SAS data set called VALID. The VALID data
set contains the responder variable Pinch, a 1/0 variable coded as 1 for responder. Customers will be
solicited when their probability score is more than 0.05.
Which SAS program computes the profit for each customer in the data set VALID?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
In order to perform honest assessment on a predictive model, what is an acceptable division between
training, validation, and testing data?
A. Training: 50% Validation: 0% Testing: 50%
B. Training: 100% Validation: 0% Testing: 0%
C. Training: 0% Validation: 100% Testing: 0%
D. Training: 50% Validation: 50% Testing: 0%

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit:

Based upon the comparative ROC plot for two competing models, which is the champion model and why?
A. Candidate 1, because the area outside the curve is greater
B. Candidate 2, because the area under the curve is greater
C. Candidate 1, because it is closer to the diagonal reference curve
D. Candidate 2, because it shows less over fit than Candidate 1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A marketing campaign will send brochures describing an expensive product to a set of customers. The
cost for mailing and production per customer is $50. The company makes $500 revenue for each sale.
What is the profit matrix for a typical person in the population?

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Exam D
QUESTION 1
An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower
B. FireSIGT
C. WSA
D. ASA
300-210 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Which cloud-based malware detection engine uses machine-learning detection techniques in the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection cloud?
A. third-party detections
B. Spero
C. Ethos
D. Memcache
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 3
which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy
B. rule header
C. Rule assignment and ports
D. rule options
E. Rule footer
300-210 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true’? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats.
B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time.
C. It supports granular application policies.
D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches.
E. It supports local content caching.
F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 5
When creating an SSL policy on Cisco FirePOWER, which three options do you have
A. do not decrypt
B. trust
C. allow
D. block with reset
E. block
F. encrypt
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent
B. routed
C. passive
D. inline set
E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which two statement about Cisco Firepower file and intrusion inspection under control policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. File inspection occurs before intrusion prevention.
B. Intrusion Inspection occurs after traffic is blocked by file type.
C. File and intrusion drop the same packet.
D. Blocking by file type takes precedence over malware inspection and blocking
E. File inspection occurs after file discovery
300-210 vce Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding
B. rate-limiting
C. limiting
D. correlation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its ports and IP addresses?
A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4 Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy
300-210 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 10
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300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
What is the maximum message size that the Cisco Email Security Appliance will accept from the violet.public domain?
A. 1 KB
B. 100 KB
C. 1 MB
D. 10 MB
E. 100 MB
F. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
B. reduced space and power requirements
C. outbound message protection
D. automated administration
300-210 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition.
B. Database sync time is reduced.
C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances.
D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. WHITELIST
B. BLACKLIST
C. UNKNOWNLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to deploy a virtual cisco ESA and wants protection against email-based threats, email encryption, and clustering. Which software license bundle must the network engineer purchase to access these components?
A. cisco email security Premium
B. cisco email security Hybrid Essential
C. cisco email security advansed
D. cisco email security Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Email Security Premium Boundle: Antispam scanning, Sophos Antivirus solution, Virus Outbreack filtres,DLP Compliance, Email encryption, CLustering

QUESTION 15
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an ICAP-capable proxy server
B. a PKI certificate server
C. an HTTP server
D. an HTTPS server
300-210 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco technology is a customizable web-based alerting service designed to report threats and vulnerabilities?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service
C. Cisco Security Optimization Service
D. Cisco Software Application Support Service
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 17
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300-210 dumps
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000.
B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds.
C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled.
D. Events Summarization is globally disabled.
E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled.
300-210 exam Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 18
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
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300-210 dumps
300-210 dumps
Which signature definition is virtual sensor 0 assigned to use?
A. rules0
B. vs0
C. sig0
D. ad0
E. ad1
F. sigl
300-210 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is the default signature.
You can create multiple security policies and apply them to individual virtual sensors. A security policy is made up of a signature definition policy, an event action rules policy, and an anomaly detection policy. Cisco IPS contains a default signature definition policy called sig0, a default event action rules policy called rules0, and a default anomaly detection policy called ad0. You can assign the default policies to a virtual sensor or you can create new policies.

QUESTION 20
Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access?
A. Port 23
B. Port 25
C. Port 22
D. Port 443
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
An ASA with an IPS module must be configured to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and block all traffic if the module fails. Which describes the correct configuration?
A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic
B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic
C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic
D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which three options are valid event actions for a Cisco IPS? (Choose three.)
A. deny-packet-inline
B. deny-attack-reset
C. produce-verbose-alert
D. log-attacker-packets
E. deny-packet-internal
F. request-block-drop-connection
300-210 vce Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 24
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos- net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
300-210 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is unable to connect to a resource pool in a XenServer environment in which high availability is enabled. The administrator discovers that the host is unreachable. What does the administrator need to do to recover the host?
A. Run the pool-disable command, then the host-shutdown command and then restart the host.
B. Run the pool-disable command, then run the pool-emergency-reset-master command and restart the host.
C. Run the emergency-ha-disable command, then once the host is restarted, run the pool-ha- enable command.
D. Run the host-evacuate command, then restart the host and run the pool-emergency- transition- to-master command.
1Y0-A26 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario: In an environment with high availability enabled, an administrator discovered that a host is unreachable in a XenServer pool. The administrator disabled high availability in order to make the host reachable. Which xe CLI command can the administrator run to make the host reachable again?
A. host-disable
B. host-evacuate
C. pool-designate-new-master
D. pool-emergency-reset-master
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to run commands to specify to configure email alerts at the host level. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. alarm_priority on the host
B. alarm_priority on the virtual machine
C. the sender email address and SMTP server
D. the recipient email address and SMTP server
1Y0-A26 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An administrator needs to authenticate all users when they log into the XenServer pool using their Windows credentials. What is the first step the administrator must take to achieve this?
A. Join the XenServer pool to the domain.
B. Add each user to the Users tab in XenCenter.
C. Create a XenServer user group within Active Directory.
D. Create Active Directory accounts for the XenServer users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What must be true in order to integrate Active Directory authentication with a XenServer host?
A. LDAP port 389 is open for inbound traffic to the XenServer host.
B. The Active Directory administrator account is created locally on the XenServer host.
C. The same DNS server is used for both the Active Directory server and the XenServer host.
D. RAS authentication is used for communication between the Active Directory server and the XenServer host.
1Y0-A26 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An administrator configured XenServer Role Based Access Control (RBAC) to authenticate using Active Directory. Using RBAC, the administrator must grant Level 2 Support users with permission to start and stop virtual machines.
Which two steps must the administrator take to grant Level 2 Support users virtual machine permissions? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a role to the subject.
B. Add an Active Directory group to the pool.
C. Assign XenServer permissions to a group.
D. Add users and their roles to the authorized list of users.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An administrator was given new security rules and now needs to remove specific permissions from the users in the VM Admin Role Based Access Control group. How can the administrator remove the specific permissions from the VM Admin user group?
A. Reset the VM Admin user group back to the default permissions.
B. Delete the registry key that applies to the specific permissions that need to be removed.
C. Run the xe subject-role-remove uuid= role-name=vm.pool_migrate XenServer command.
D. Remove the specific permissions from the Active Directory user group associated with the VM Admin user group.
1Y0-A26 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator is planning to introduce 100 new virtual machines into the environment. The administrator plans to use XenServer templates and duplication mechanisms. What must the administrator consider when deciding between the full copy and fast clone duplication mechanisms?
A. A template needs to be copied before it can be fast cloned.
B. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the full copy method may impact disk performance.
C. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the fast cloned method may impact disk performance.
D. A template created on local storage can be duplicated by using the full copy method by any host in the pool.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator cloned a template into a virtual machine and then converted it back into a template. Which action must be performed on the disks to restore expected levels of disk performance?
A. Run SysPrep
B. Complete a full copy
C. Execute a fast clone
D. Suspend before cloning
1Y0-A26 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which item in the Provisioning Services Console will the administrator need to configure to delete a machine account from the Active Directory domain?
A. Farm
B. vDisk
C. Server
D. Target Device
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
An administrator notices that the target device is NOT starting from a newly created vDisk, but other target devices using different vDisks are working. Which action can the administrator take to correct this issue?
A. Restart the Stream Service.
B. Enable streaming on the vDisk.
C. Reset the Active Directory machine account password.
D. Change the vDisk access mode to Private Image mode.
1Y0-A26 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to configure a Provisioning services environment for Microsoft volume license management. Which properties could the administrator configure to accomplish this task?
A. Farm
B. vDisk
C. Server
D. Target device
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator is delivering Windows virtual machines using Provisioning services. The administrator needs to reduce the impact on Provisioning services disk consumption as well as maintain user operating system modifications. Which cache mode must be used in this scenario?
A. Cache on Server
B. Cache in Device RAM
C. Cache on Server Persisted
D. Cache on Device Hard Drive Persisted
1Y0-A26 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Scenario: An administrator is in charge of distributing streamed Windows desktops to users using Provisioning services. Users have reported that they CANNOT access any printers while using the streamed desktops. The administrator has confirmed local printers are installed in the base image. What could be causing this issue?
A. Printer drivers are NOT configured.
B. Network printers are NOT assigned to the users.
C. Active Directory printers are assigned to the users.
D. Printer Management is enabled in the vDisk properties.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
A XenServer administrator is updating a shared disk image used by multiple virtual machines. What must the administrator do before updating the shared disk image?
A. Copy CIM.EXE to the vDisk.
B. Modify the vDisk cache type.
C. Disable streaming of the vDisk.
D. Change the vDisk access mode.
1Y0-A26 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Scenario: An administrator manages an environment with 200 private virtual machine images that need to be updated. Snapshots are NOT being used and the virtual machines have been customized by the users. Which step must the administrator take to update these images?
A. Enable automatic updates.
B. Merge differencing disk files.
C. Change the vDisk access mode.
D. Update each of the vDisks individually.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator created a single vDisk in the Provisioning Services Console that will be delivered to multiple target devices. The operating system must save user changes to applications. Which two options did the administrator select while preparing the vDisk? (Choose two.)
A. Private Image mode
B. Cache in Device RAM
C. Standard Image mode
D. Cache on Hard Drive Persistent
1Y0-A26 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
An administrator needs to modify an application contained within a vDisk that is currently being used by multiple target devices. Which option must the administrator select on the vDisk in order to modify the application?
A. Cache on Server
B. Private Image mode
C. Standard Image mode
D. Cache on Device Hard Disk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
An administrator needs to add a new group of similar computers to an existing Provisioning services farm. Which type of resource could the administrator create in Provisioning services?
A. Farm
B. Store
C. Target Device
D. Device Collection
1Y0-A26 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
An administrator has two datacenters, each of which has its own storage that can only be accessed by hosts that are in the same datacenter. What could the administrator create to ensure that each host can only access its assigned storage?
A. Site
B. Store
C. Target device
D. Device collection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Scenario: An administrator CANNOT use XenCenter to manage an existing XenServer host in a resource pool. The administrator found that the XenServer host CANNOT communicate properly with XAPI. What could be causing the communication issue on the failed host?
A. Dom0 is out of space.
B. NTP is NOT configured.
C. The root password is unknown.
D. The host CANNOT connect to Active Directory.
1Y0-A26 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Scenario: An administrator manages six XenServer hosts in a resource pool in which high availability is enabled. The administrator is notified that host fencing occurred. Which two reasons could be causing the issue? (Choose two.)
A. CPU utilization reached 90%.
B. The resource pool is overcommitted.
C. The shared storage repository was disconnected.
D. There was a XenServer management network outage.
Correct Answer: CD

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Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:
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One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fails at 16:40 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restoreD. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup.
B. Perform a partial restore.
C. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
D. Perform a point-in-time restore.
E. Restore the latest full backup.
F. Perform a page restore.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
70-462 exam Answer: E
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
Restore full on reporting and run update again or use transactional full and 2 O’clock differential from Transaction db to restore the reporting dB.

Question No : 9 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You administer three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 servers named ServerA, ServerB, and ServerC. ServerA is the acting principal and ServerB is the mirror. You need to add ServerC as a witness to the existing mirroring session between ServerA
and ServerB. You need to achieve this goal without delaying synchronization. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Answer:
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Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create an availability group named haContosoDbs. Your primary replica is available at Server01\Contoso01. You need to configure the availability group to have the highest availability. You also need to ensure that no data is lost. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You administer several Microsoft SQL Server 2012 servers. Your company has a number of offices across the world connected by using a wide area network (WAN). Connections between offices vary significantly in both bandwidth and reliability. You need to identify the correct replication method for each scenario. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate replication method or methods to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each replication method may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
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Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
You administer several Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database servers. Merge replication has been configured for an application that is distributed across offices throughout a wide area network (WAN). Many of the tables involved in replication use the XML and varchar (max) data types. Occasionally, merge replication fails due to timeout errors. You need to reduce the occurrence of these timeout errors. What should you do?
A. Set the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to use the slow link agent profile.
B. Create a snapshot publication, and reconfigure the problem subscribers to use the snapshot publication.
C. Change the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to run continuously.
D. Set the Remote Connection Timeout on the Publisher to 0.
70-462 dumps Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
When replication is configured, a set of agent profiles is installed on the Distributor. An agent profile contains a set of parameters that are used each time an agent runs: each agent logs in to the Distributor during its startup process and queries for the parameters in its profile. For merge subscriptions that use Web synchronization, profiles are downloaded and stored at the Subscriber. If the profile is changed, the profile at the Subscriber is updated the next time the Merge Agent runs. For more information about Web synchronization, see Web Synchronization for Merge Replication. Replication provides a default profile for each agent and additional predefined profiles for the Log Reader Agent, Distribution Agent, and Merge Agent. In addition to the profiles provided, you can create profiles suited to your application requirements. An agent profile allows you to change key parameters easily for all agents associated with that profile. For example, if you have 20 Snapshot Agents and need to change the query timeout value (the – QueryTimeout parameter), you can update the profile used by the Snapshot Agents and all agents of that type will begin using the new value automatically the next time they run. You might also have different profiles for different instances of an agent. For example, a Merge Agent that connects to the Publisher and Distributor over a dialup connection could use a set of parameters that are better suited to the slower communications link by using the slow link profile.

Question No : 13 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You administer two Microsoft SQL Server 2012 servers named ServerA and ServerB. You use a database named AdventureWorks. You need to prepare the AdventureWorks database for database mirroring. ServerB will act as the mirror in a mirroring partnership along with ServerA. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
You create an availability group named HaContoso that has replicas named Server01/HA, Server02/HA, and Server03/HA.
Currently, Server01l/HA is the primary replicA. You need to ensure that the following requirements are met: Backup operations occur on Server02/HA. If Server02/HA is unavailable, backup operations occur on Server03/HA.
Backup operations do not occur on Server01/HA. How should you configure HaContoso?
A.
• Set the backup preference of HaContoso to Prefer Secondary.
• Set the backup priority of Server02/HA to 20.
• Set the backup priority of Server03/HA to 10.
B.
• Set the backup preference of HaContoso to Secondary only.
• Set the backup priority of Server02/HA to 20.
• Set the backup priority of Server03/HA to 10.
C.
• Set the backup preference of HaContoso to Secondary only.
• Set the backup priority of Server02/HA to 10.
• Set the backup priority of Server03/HA to 20.
D.
• Set the exclude replica of Server01/HA to true.
• Set the backup priority of Server02/HA to 10.
• Set the backup priority of Server03/HA to 20.
70-462 pdf Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that has several SQL Server Agent jobs configured. When SQL Server Agent jobs fail, the error messages returned by the job steps are truncated.
The following error message is an example of the truncated error message:
“Executed as user CONTOSO\ServiceAccount….0.4035.00 for 64-bit Copyright (C) Microsoft Corp 1984-2011. All rights reserveD. Started 63513 PM Error 2012-06-23 183536.87 Code 0XC001000E Source UserImport Description Code 0x00000000 Source Log Import Activity Descript… The package execution fA. .. The step failed. ” You need to ensure that all the details of the job step failures are retained for SQL Server Agent jobs. What should you do?
A. Expand agent logging to include information from all events.
B. Disable the Limit size of job history log feature.
C. Configure event forwarding.
D. Configure output files.
Answer: D

Question No : 16 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment that contains a production SQL Server 2005 instance named SQL2005 and a development SQL Server 2012 instance named SQL2012. The development team develops a new application that uses the SQL Server 2012 functionality. You are planning to migrate a database from SQL2005 to SQL2012 so that
the development team can test their new application. You need to migrate the database without affecting the production environment. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 17 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You administer three Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 instances. Database mirroring is configured in High-Safety mode with Automatic Failover between the following three servers:
SQL1 is the Principal server.
SQL2 is the mirror server.
SQL3 is the witness server.
You need to upgrade SQL1 and SQL2 to SQL Server 2012. You need to ensure that downtime is minimized during the upgrade. Which six actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that has SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) installed. You plan to deploy new SSIS packages to the server. The SSIS packages use the Project Deployment Model together with parameters and Integration Services environment variables. You need to configure the SQL Server environment to support these packages.
What should you do?
A. Create SSIS configuration files for the packages.
B. Create an Integration Services catalog.
C. Install Data Quality Services.
D. Install Master Data services.
70-462 vce Answer: B

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1. During a BlackBerry MVS installation, an MVS administrator is prompted to enter a MVS Data Manager Hostname or IP Address. Which IP Address value should this be? (Choose one.)
A. PBX
B. Serverwhere MVS is being installed
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Configuration Database server
210-250 exam Answer: B

2.A European company has integrated its Avaya Communication Manager to the AudioCodes Mediant Gateway with an E1 interface. Which E1 signaling protocol is required.? (Choose one.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. QSIG
D. 5ESS
Answer: C

3. If the MVS BlackBerry Enterprise Server Connector is NOT started, what effect will this have on BlackBerry MVS Services? (Choose one.)
A. Incoming MVS calls will be available
B. Outgoing MVS calls will be available
C. Message Waiting Indicator will be disabled
D. MVS work line will be unregistered
210-250 dumps Answer:D

4. A BlackBerry MVS customer needs to provision a group of BlackBerry MVS users so they will be able to use BlackBerry MVS in a Voice over Wi-Fi only mode. Which two tasks should the MVS administrator perform to provide the customer with this capability? (Choose two.)
A. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set When Wi-Fi is unavailable, use Mobile to NO
B. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set Default line for outgoing calls to Voice over Wi-Fi
C. Within the Class of Service configuration, select the VoWi-Fi check box
D. Within the Class of Service configuration, disable User may change the default network for BlackBerry MVS calls
E. Within the Class of Service configuration, enable User may change the default network for BlackBerry MVS calls
Answer: A,D

5.An IP-to-IP solution has just been configured. There are two Proxy Sets in the configuration. What two entities do the Proxy Sets represent? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerryMVS Server
B. BlackBerryDispatcher
C. Vendor Media Gateway
D. Vendor IP PBX
E. BlackBerry Router
210-250 pdf Answer: A,D

6.What is the minimum number of BlackBerry MVS Servers needed to support 14,000 users in a High Availability environment? (Choose one.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

7. A customer with an Avaya PBX infrastructure is interested in purchasing BlackBerry MVS. The customer needs to deploy BlackBerry MVS using a TDM configuration. The PBX environment includes the Avaya components listed below.
Avaya S8730 Media Server configured for High Availability
Avaya Communication Manager 5.2
Avaya G650 Media Gateways
Which component does the customer need to facilitate the BlackBerry MVS integration? (Choose one.)
A. Dialogic Media Gateway
B. AudioCodes Mediant Gateway
C. Avaya Aura Session Manager
D. Avaya SIP Enablement Server
210-250 vce Answer: B

8.When an external caller calls an MVS user, the MVS user’s BlackBerry smartphone fails to ring. The MVS user is provisioned for BlackBerry device-initiated calling. What is the likely cause of this failure? (Choose one.)
A. DTMF digits were rejected by the PBX as an invalid number
B. BlackBerry MVS Client did not create the call request
C. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the proper ANI number
D. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the call request
Answer: D

9. DTMF tones are blocked from reaching the SIP Gateway. How will this affect MVS users? (Choose one.)
A. Calls over the Wi-Fi network will fail
B. Calls over the mobile network will fail
C. BlackBerry MVS Client will show as unregistered
D. DTMF tones will not be recognized on a conference bridge
210-250 exam Answer: B

10. What is the way to test the Add Participant to a Call feature for an individual MVS user without impacting existing users if most features are disabled during installation? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new template
B. Create a new Feature Set
C. Create a new Class of Service
D. Create a new Telephony Connector
Answer: C

11. Before you can run custom Health and Service Level Reports, you need to make sure that: (Choose four)
A. Report log files have been updated.
B. Service Profiles have been configured.
C. Groups and Groups Lists arepopulated.
D. User Permissions have been configured.
E. The Database is set up and is operational.
F. Correct report definitions have been created.
210-250 dumps Answer: B,C,D,E

12. In Report Center, which users are considered super users.?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

13.Which report type can you drill down to from an At-a-Glance report?
A. TopN
B. Trend
C. Health
D. Service Level
210-250 pdf Answer: B

14.Which command do you use to open the OneClick for eHealth console only?
A. ehealth -h
B. ehealth -oce
C. ehealth -once
D. ehealth -motif
Answer: B

15.Which statement about using Oracle with CA eHealth is TRUE?
A. CA eHealth supports the use of a remote Oracle database.
B. All versions of CA eHealth now use the Oracle double-byte software.
C. A database can be on a mapped or mounted drive with high-speed connectivity.
D. You can use Oracle or other after-market tools to back up the CA eHealth database.
210-250 vce Answer: C

16. In an HTML 4.0-compliant browser, how is a radio button field displayed within a form?
A. A radio button is displayed as a small box.
B. A radio button is displayed as a small round button.
C. A radio button is displayed as a button with a text label inside it.
D. A radio button is displayed as a blinking series of numbers in a box.
Answer: B

17. At which level of the OSI reference model does a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) operate?
A. The physical layer
B. The network layer
C. The application layer
D. The transport layer
210-250 exam Answer:A

18. Which e-commerce protocol is defined as a standard protocol used on the Internet to secure online credit card payments?
A. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
B. Secure Electronic Transactions (SET)
C. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Answer: B

19. A user at her workstation cannot reach any host on the Internet using ping, yet she can ping all the file and print servers on her local LAN. You investigate the problem and discover that one of the following configuration parameters is missing. Which parameter is missing?
A. The default gateway
B. The IP address
C. The subnet mask
D. The DHCP server address
210-250 dumps Answer:A

20. Consider the following HTML code: In this code, what does the hash symbol (#) mean?
A. FaceMap is an image map defined on another page within your Web site.
B. Use the FaceMap image as an image map with default coordinates.
C. FaceMap is an image map defined within the same HTML file.
D. Apply the coordinates defined in a tag to the FaceImage.gif graphic.
Answer: C

21. What is the purpose of the session layer (Layer 5) of the OSI reference model?
A. Establish, manage and terminate connections
B. Forward and route datagrams to their destinations
C. Interface with the end user
D. Provide reliable transparent transport between source and destination hosts
210-250 pdf Answer:A

22. The Internet’s structure is characterized by:
A. a single host with multiple connections.
B. multiple hosts, each with a single conection to the Web.
C. decentralized control throughout the network.
D. a central hub that reduces the chances of total network failure.
Answer: C

23. Evan added a new image to the company Web site. The image is too large, relative to other items on the page. Which tag attributes should Evan use to reduce the image size to 300 by 300 pixels?
A. LENGTH=”300″ SIZE=”300″
B. DIMENSION=”300″ “300”
C. WIDTH=”300″ SIZE=”300″
D. WIDTH=”300″ HEIGHT=”300″
210-250 vce Answer: D

24. What is the key difference between Java and JavaScript?
A. Java is a more complicated scripting language, intended for senior developers.
B. Java is an object-oriented programming language, whereas JavaScript is an object-based scripting language.
C. JavaScript is a more complicated language, intended for senior developers.
D. JavaScript is an object-oriented programming language, whereas Java is an object-based scripting language.
Answer: B

25. According to the HTML 4.0 Recommendation, an HTML tag can consist of several items, all of which are contained within angle brackets (). The main instruction of an HTML tag is usually contained in which item?
A. Element
B. Attribute
C. Value
D. Code
210-250 exam Answer:A

26. Lucinda developed a Web site that uses Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) exclusively to define the pages?layout instructions. Which lavor?of the Lucinda developed a Web site that uses Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) exclusively to define the pages?layout instructions. Which ?lavor?of the HTML 4.0 Recommendation did Lucinda use for her site?
A. Frameset
B. Strict
C. Transitional
D. Loose
Answer: B

27. Hackers from a certain organization repeatedly attack your Web servers. Your manager wants you to implement a firewall that blocks all connections from that organization. Which type of firewall should you implement to protect your Web servers?
A. Packet-filtering firewall
B. Application gateway
C. Network Address Translation firewall
D. Proxy server firewall
210-250 dumps Answer:A

28. Which of the following is an Apple QuickTime file name extension?
A. .eps
B. .jpg
C. .mov
D. .mp3
Answer: C

29. Which of the following best describes the functionality of Extensible Markup Language (XML)?
A. Creates static Web documents and describes visual layout
B. Creates animation and interaction in Web documents
C. Creates content validation in Web documents
D. Creates a language to define context in Web documents
210-250 pdf Answer: D

30. Which protocol operates at the network layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Ethernet
C. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Answer:A

31. What is a cookie?
A. An executable file placed on a computers hard drive by a Web site to gather information about the computer user preferences .
B. A security directory on a computer hard drive that can accept or reject downloads from a Web site.
C. A text file that is initially sent from a Web site to a client computer, used to collect information from the client
D. An alert dialog box that warns you when marketing information is placed on your computer by a Web site
210-250 vce Answer: C

32. Management has complained that the employee contact lists are not synchronized and that employees are spending too much time updating their e-mail lists. You must suggest a solution to this problem. Which server would be part of the solution?
A. Web server
B. SQL server C. Directory server
D. Catalog server
Answer: C

33. Which connection medium operates at a maximum speed of 44.736 Mbps?
A. ISDN
B. DSL
C. T3 line
D. T1 line
210-250 exam Answer: C

34. A circuit-level gateway is one type of:
A. firewall.
B. e-commerce payment application.
C. intrusion-detection software.
D. port.
Answer:A

35. Which choice best describes half-duplex data transmission?
A. Data travels in only one direction.
B. Data travels in two directions, but only one direction at a time.
C. Data travels in two directions simultaneously, but only at half speed.
D. Data travels in two directions simultaneously.
210-250 dumps Answer: B

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Who can share free Cisco 400-201 dumps vce and pdf exam? The CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1 (400-201 CCIE SP) exam is a 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Service Provider certification. 100% real Cisco 400-201 dumps CCIE SP pdf Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals video series is your best choice. “CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-201 exam. Such a Pass4itsure that help you gain such a valuable certificate with less time and less money is very cost-effective for you. Pass4itsure ccie written https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451.html dumps exam sample questions are developed by a lot of experienced IT specialists using their wealth of knowledge and experience to do research for IT certification exams.

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400-201 Dumps

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Question No : 30  Which three configuration sections are required on service provider PE routers to enable IPv4 Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three.)
A. Configure route distinguishers that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes.
B. Configure at least one interface that is assigned to a customer link asa member of the VRF.
C. Configure the VPNv4 address-family under the MP-BGP configurationmode on the PE routers that participate in the customer VRF routing.
D. Configure route targets that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes
E. Advertise customer routes to all PE routers by configuring the IPv4address-family under the MP-BGP configuration mode.
F. Implement MPLS for all customer-facing links.
400-201 exam Answer: B,C,D

Question No : 31  When IPv6 is enabled on an interface, which three multicast addresses does the configured interface automatically join? (Choose three.)
A. FF01::2
B. FEC0::1
C. FF02:0:0:0:0:1:FF00::/104
D. FF02::1
E. FF01::1
F. FF02::2
G. FF02::D
H. FF02::5
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 32  An engineer is deploying SSHv2 only in band access. Which three options reflect the minimum configuration to enable the SSHv2 services on Cisco routers? (Choose three)
A. Add router hostname on DNS services.
B. Define a hostname for the device.
C. Define a domain name for the device.
D. Create an access list that defines authorized hosts for SSH.
E. Create crypto keys by using the crypto key generate dsa command.
F. Configure a key modulus in the global configuration.
400-201 dumps Answer: B,C,E

Question No : 33  A service provider is running a single area OSPFv2 instance in the MPLS network. The OSPF re-convergence time is becoming excessively slow as the service provider MPLS network grows. Which two action can improve network performance without implementing a multi area design? (Choose two).
A. Configure incremental SFP
B. Reduce type 5 LSAs
C. Implement Partial Route Computation
D. Limit number of TVLs
E. Enable LSA group pacing
Answer: A,E

Question No : 34
For MPLS inter-AS Option B, how many labels are associated with packet forwarding between the VPNv4 ASBR neighbors?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
400-201 pdf Answer: D
LSAs and network LSAs.

Question No : 35  Which information is carried in the OSPFv3 intra-area Prefix LSA?
A. All link-local addresses
B. All IPv6 prefix and topology information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
C. List of options associated with the link to all other routers attached to the link
D. All prefix-specific information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
Answer: D
Explanation:
OSPFv3’s new LSA, the Intra-area Prefix LSA (type 9), handles intra-area network information that was previously included in OSPFv2 type 2 LSAs. It is used in order to advertise one or more IPv6 prefixes. The prefixes are associated with router segment, stub network segment or transit network segment. Intra-area prefix LSAs (type 9) & Inter-Area Prefix-LSA (type 3) carry all IPv6 prefix information, which, in IPv4, is included in router

Question No : 36
A SP engineering team must design a solution that support end-to-end LSP according to RFC 3107, which solution achieve this
A. LDPandBGP
B. BGP and send Label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
400-201 vce Answer: B

Question No : 37 An engineer is implementing an MPLS within the core of the Service Provider network.What two components are required to build the control and data plane for MPLS Label  Switched Paths? (Choose two.)
A. FIB
B. CEF
C. LDP
D. LFIB
E. OSPF
Answer: B,C

Question No : 38  Which two statements about the bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are true? (Choose two)
A. The bgp deterministic-med command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path length
B. The bgp always-compare command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path system.
C. Enabling the bgp deterministic-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable when choosing routes advertised by different peers in the same autonomous system.
D. Enabling the bgp always-compare-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable for paths from neighbors in different autonomous systems.
E. The bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are enabled by defult.
400-201 exam Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 39
Given the following data at WORK DEMO:
 Which SAS program prints only the first 5 males in this order from the data set?
A.
proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
B.
proc print data=WORK.DEMO(obs=5);
where Sex=’M’;
run;
C.
proc print data=WORK.DEMO(where=(sex=’M’));
where obs<=5;
run;
D.
proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex descending;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 40
Which SAS program will apply the data set label ‘Demographics’ to the data set named DEMO?
A.
data demo (label=’Demographics’);
set demo;
run;
B.
data demo;
set demo
(label=’Demographics’); run;
C.
data demo (label ‘Demographics’);
set demo;
run;
D.
data demo;
set demo;
label demo= ‘Demographics’;
run;
400-201 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 41
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sort data=SASUSER.VISIT out=PSORT; by code descending date cost;
run; Which statement is true regarding the submitted program?
A. The descending option applies to the variable CODE.
B. The variable CODE is sorted by ascending order.
C. The PSORT data set is stored in the SASUSER library.
D. The descending option applies to the DATE and COST variables.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 42
What information can be found in the SAS Dictionary tables? (Choose two.)
A. datasets contained within a specified library
B. values contained within a specified format
C. variables contained within a specified dataset
D. values contained within a specified variable
400-201 pdf Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 43
This question will ask you to provide a line of missing code.
The following SAS program is submitted:
Which statement is required to produce this output?
A. TABLES site*group /nocol;
B. TABLES site*group /norow;
C. TABLES site*group;
D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 44
Which statement correctly adds a label to the data set?
A.
DATA two Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; set one;
run;
B.
DATA two;
Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; set one;
run;
C.
DATA two;
set one;
Label dataset=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; run;
D.
DATA two(Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”); set one;
run;
400-201 vce Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 45
Which program will report all created output objects in the log?
A.
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1 ods=trace;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
B.
ods trace on;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
C.
ods trace=log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
D.
ods trace log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 46
You want to calculate the p-value of Fisher’s exact test for a 3×3 table. Which option must you add to the TABLES statement of PROC FREQ?
A. CHISQ
B. CMH
C. EXACT
D. EXPECTED
400-201 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 48
Which option for PROC COMPARE will list all observations and variables found in only one of the two data sets being compared?
A. LISTALL
B. OUTALL
C. ALLOBS
D. OUTDIFF
400-201 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 49
Which validation technique involves two programmers writing separate programs to produce the same output, then comparing the result?
A. Independent Programming
B. Peer Matching
C. Identical Programming
D. Peer Review
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 50
A SAS program is submitted and the following log is written. What is the cause of this error message?
A. The ARRAY declaration is syntactically incorrect.
B. The IF statement is syntactically incorrect.
C. The DO loop tries to get a value from a variable which does not exist.
D. The IF statement tries to get ARRAY elements which are not declared.
400-201 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 51
The following SAS program is submitted: If the value for the variable Subjcode is “WGT2”, what is the value of the variable Description?
A. missing character value
B. Unknown
C. Over
D. Wgt2
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52
Given two data sets with the following variables: Why is the blue note showing in the log?
A. The variable VISIT occurs in both data sets but is not included in the BY statement.
B. There are no observations with matching values for SUBJID in either data set.
C. There are multiple observations with the same value for SUBJID in both data sets.
D. One of the two data sets has multiple observations with the same value for SUBJID.
400-201 vce Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 53
The following SAS program is submitted, but fails due to syntax errors. What is the cause of the syntax errors?
A. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthExp*).
B. An array can only be referenced in a KEEP statement and not within a keep= data set option.
C. An array cannot be referenced on a keep= data set option.
D. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthExp).
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 54
Given the following data set DEMOG:
Which selection below would be considered hard-coding?
A.
if sexcd eq 1 then sex = “Male” ;
else if sexcd eq 2 then sex = “Female” ;
B.
if site eq 1 then sexcd = 2 ; else
if site eq 2 then sexcd = 1 ;
C.
if site eq 1 and sexcd ne 2 then check = 1 ; else
if site eq 2 and sexcd ne 1 then check = 2 ;
D.
birthdt = input(dob, mmddyy10.) ;
400-201 exam Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 55
Given the file sites.csv: Which option would you need to add to the INFILE statement to clear the notes from this log?
A. firstobs=2
B. missover
C. lrecl=2
D. start=2
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 56
Given the following entry in the SAS log: Which alternate method could you use to?
• Transpose all data
• Not produce a warning message in the log
A. Use PROC TRANSPOSE with a WHERE clause to omit records with missing VISIT values
B. Use PROC COPY with SELECT statements
C. Use PROC DATASETS with SELECT and MODIFY statements
D. Use a DATA step with conditional OUTPUT statements
400-201 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 57
Given the following partial output data set: Which code was used to create AGECAT?
A.
if age <18 then AGECAT=1;
if 18<=AGE<=40 then
AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;
B.
if age <=18 then do AGECAT=1;
else if 18<AGE<=40 then do
AGECAT=2; else do AGECAT=3;
C.
if age <18 then AGECAT=1;
else if 18<=AGE<=40 then
AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;
D.
if age <=18 then AGECAT=1;
else if 18<AGE<=40 then AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 58 Given the following data set (AE): Data will be reported by onset week. Day 1 ?7 is Week 1, Day 8 ?14 is Week 2. Events beyond Day 14 are assigned Week 3 and will be reported as Follow-up events. Which statements properly assign WEEK to each event?
A. if day > 14 then week = 3 ;
else if day > 7 then week = 2
; else if day > 0 then week =
1 ;
B.
if day > 0 then week = 1 ;
else if day > 7 then week = 2 ;
else if day > 14 then week = 3 ;
C.
select ;
when (day > 0) week = 1 ;
when (day > 7) week = 2 ;
otherwise week = 3 ;
end ; D.
select ;
when (day > 14) week = 3 ;
when (day > 7) week = 2 ;
otherwise week = 1 ;
end ;
400-201 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 59
Study day is defined as DCMDATE minus RFSTDTC +1 Which statement will compute the study day correctly without producing notes for missing values in the log?
A. STUDYDAY=DCMDATE-RFSTDTC+1;
B. STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,yymmdd8.)-input(RFSTDTC,date9.)+1;
C. If RFSTDTC^=” and length(DCMDATE)=8 then STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,yymmdd8.)- input(RFSTDTC,date9.)+1;
D. If RFSTDTC^=” and length(DCMDATE)=8 then STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,date9.)- input(RFSTDTC,yymmdd8.)+1;
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 60
A Treatment-Emergent Adverse Event (TEAE) is commonly defined as any event that occurs on or after the date and time of:
A. informed consent
B. baseline assessment
C. study enrollment
D. first dose of study drug
400-201 vce Answer: D
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400-351 dumps

Question No : 22 What are the three possible BGP failure states? Choose all that apply.
A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle
E. Established
F. Open Sent
G. Open Confirm
400-351 exam Answer: BCD
Question No : 23 What port does BGP communicates on?
A. 161
B. 110
C. 80
D. 179
Answer: D
Question No : 24 What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface? What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 15
D. 0
400-351 dumps Answer: D
 Question No : 25 It can be necessary to distribute client certificates to tablets and handhelds in order to connect to:
A. the Internet.
B. cellular networks.
C. encrypted hard drives.
D. Enterprise Wi-Fi or VPN Networks.
Answer: D
Question No : 26 When using the accessibility feature “Magnify Mode “, what action can be taken to quickly remove the magnification?
A. Go to Option -> Accessibility and disable Magnify Mode
B. Pinch with two fingers on the screen to zoom out.
C. Swipe down from the top of the screen with two fingers.
D. Click the center button between the volume keys.
400-351 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 27 What are the categories of files that are available to be synchronized automatically between a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) smartphone and the user’s computer using BlackBerry Link?
A. Music, pictures, Videos
B. Work. Personal
C. Work. Personal, Encrypted
D. Music, pictures, Videos, Documents
Answer: D
Question No : 28 What are the encryption options available when adding an IMAP email account?
A. S/MIME, PGP,TrueCrypt
B. AES,3DES
C. SSL,StartTLS.Off
D. 128-Bit TKIP
400-351 vce Answer: C
Question No : 29  Which of the following BlackBerry Applications enables users to easily migrate to a new BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. BlackBerry Link
B. BlackBerry Desktop software
C. BlackBerry Protect
D. BlackBerry Balance
Answer: A
 Question No : 30 What is the share address of the BlackBerry Smartphone internal device storage?
 A. //IP Address OfDevice\media
B. //Device Name\storage
C. http://IP Address Of Device:3101
D. smb://lP Address Of Device/shared
400-351 exam Answer: A
Question No : 31 Which of the following is needed to be able to add any new accounts from settings options on a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. NFC radio should be on
B. Battery should be more than 20%
C. Server needs to only have Activesync enabled
D. Wi-Fi should be turned on with access to the host server for which the account is to be added
Answer: D
Question No : 32 All users are no longer able to activate using their Username. Activation Password and SRP. However they are able to use a Fully Qualified Domain Name of the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS). What setting in BlackBerry Administration Service (BAS) would be the most likely cause of this issue?
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher is configured with an Enterprise Proxy
B. Allow activation over BlackBerry infrastructure set to yes
C. Allow activation information to be emailed is set to no
D. Proxy profile is configured to use VPN incorrectly
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Question No : 33 Which password will be required when logging into BlackBerry World for the first time?
 A. Perimeter Password
B. BlackBerry ID Password
C. Corporate Password
D. Device Password
Answer: B
Question No : 34 Which of the following is required in order to process an NFC transaction?
A. Both devices should be at least 20cm apart.
B. A valid Wi-Fi connection is necessary.
C. The battery of the BlackBerry 10 device should be 5% or more.
D. Very close proximity or tap of the communicating devices is necessary.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 35 Where on the BlackBerry should an end user be directed to learn the different swipe gestures?
A. About Menu in Device Settings
B. Learn How Menu items in Setup
C. Language and Input in Device Settings
D. The Hub
Answer: B
Question No : 36  What server setting can prevent a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) user from using data services when the smartphone/tablet is using network roaming?
A. Multiple Smartphones/Tablets enabled
B. The Roaming IT policy rule
 C. No payment information listed on the server
D. Going over the data usage quota
400-351 vce Answer: B
Question No : 37  Which of the following will allow a BlackBerry end user to set an Activation password or reactivate a BlackBerry device?
A. BlackBerry® Web Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Administration
C. BlackBerry Resource Kit
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A
Question No : 38 Which of the following is NOT a capability of BlackBerry Link?
A. Backup device data
B. Bluetooth Media Sync
C. Software updates
D. NFC Media Sync
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
A customer implements SAP Financials with multiple company codes. They want to manage credit limits for each customer across all company codes collectively. Which master data setup allows this?
A. Create a single credit control area and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
B. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
C. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign a total limit for customers across all company codes.
D. Create a single credit control area and assign a total limit for all customers across all company codes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
In the evaluation phase, you assess the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution. The leading role here belongs to the virtual account team. This team usually consists of a sales executive, the consulting engagement manager, and the project manager. As well as assessing the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution, what else is the responsibility of the virtual account team in the evaluation phase?
A. To start data migration
B. To check if the customer project resources are trained
C. To submit the preliminary proposal
D. To check if the system is ready to start development
400-351 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
When you activate an SAP Best Practices package in the Solution Builder, BC Sets and eCATTs are run. What is the purpose of using BC Sets and eCATTs in the SAP Best Practices packages?
A. BC Sets and eCATTs are used to import data into each client in the system with a single execution.
B. BC Sets are activated directly to import Customizing contained in the txt files and eCATTs are run to import sample master data.
C. BC Sets and eCATTs are used in the SAP Solution Builder to import transactional data.
D. BC Sets are used to change productive systems and eCATTs are used to change test systems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
What are the SAP-relevant phases for an asset under construction (AuC)? (Choose two)
A. The useful life phase
B. The setup phase
C. The under construction phase
D. The budget phase
E. The planning phase
400-351 pdf Answer: A,C
Explanation:
 QUESTION NO:43 A company has been using a Cascade Express-300 Profiler for some time, but has recently started dropping flows as they are overrunning their licensed limit. What is the best course of action if they are considering an upgrade to the next tier of Cascade Profiler? (Select 2)
A. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and stop using their Express.
B. The company can continue to use their Express but must buy a new Cascade Profiler.
C. The Express can be further licensed to capture the currently dropped flows.
D. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler but can use the Express functioning as a remote Cascade Sensor.
E. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and can continue to use their Express but the two Cascade Profilers must be used independent of one another.
F. The company can try to reduce the number of flows being seen by the Express.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
In the traffic reporting tabs on Cascade Profiler, each report-by option has a default template that controls content and formatting of the resulting report. Which of the following is controlled by the default template?
A. Inclusion of a pie chart
B. Inclusion of a flow list
C. Data resolution (1 min, 15 min, 1 hr, etc.)
D. Columns that are included in the summary table
E. Sort order of the summary table
F. All of the above
400-351 vce Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What is one key benefit Cascade provides for Data Center Consolidation Projects?
A. Ability to understand the response time of the Data Center as a whole.
B. Ability to map out the inter-server dependencies between applications in the data center.
C. Ability to map out the intra-server application/process dependencies on a server.
D. Ability to compare WAN Optimization benefits for different versions of Windows Server software
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Under Layer 4 Mappings, the available Application List settings arE. (Select 3)
A. Application Name
B. IP Address
C. Host or Groups
D. Ports
400-351 exam Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
For sampled data in a chart in Cascade Pilot, you can: (Select 2)
A. Change the sampling time to process data after applying a View.
B. See the granularity of a chart after applying a View.
C. Define the sampling time before applying a View, and it will be the only one used to represent data.
D. Increase the data granularity by reducing the size of the selected time window.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what best describes a Dashboard?
A. A set of graphs showing top interfaces, top hosts, top users, and top protocols from which you can run reports.
B. A configurable set of content blocks for watched and top items (items including hosts, network  interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
C. A configurable set of connection graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports
D. A configurable set of fixed logarithmic graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the maximum number of 10G ports that a Cascade Sensor can support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. Unlimited
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
If there are multiple network devices reporting flow data to Cascade and two devices report flow records for the same TCP connection, what will Cascade report?
A. The traffic will be double counted.
B. Cascade will discard one of the flow records.
C. If both flows types are the same (e.g. NetFlow) Cascade will de-duplicate the records but if they are of different flow types, one record will be discarded.
D. Cascade will de-duplicate and consolidate the flow records regardless of source and flow type.
E. This is not possible.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which component of Cascade can be used with a Cascade Express Profiler?
A. Standard or Enterprise Profiler
B. Gateways
C. Sensor
D. Shark
E. Sensor-VE
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
How do you set the time zone of a Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the Basic Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
B. From the Advanced Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
C. With the CLI command “set timezone”.
D. From the Settings menu of Cascade Pilot.
400-351 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION 100
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200-355 exam Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

QUESTION 101
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

QUESTION NO: 102
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET] Framework 3.5. You need to represent a strongly typed lambda expression as a data structure in the form of an expression tree. Which of the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MethodCallExpression
B. Expression(TDelegate)
C. Expression
D. LambdaExpression
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 103
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You create an assembly. You place the assembly in a specific folder. Which of the following classes can you use to determine whether the assembly was located in a specific folder? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. UrlMembershipCondition
B. ApplicationDirectoryMembershipCondition
C. GacMembershipCondition
D. SiteMembershipCondition
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 104
John works as a Software Developer for CyberTech Inc. He creates an ASP .NET page named BookItemList.aspx, which displays a price list of computer books. Registered users have to first log on to the company’s Web site in order to view the current price list of different computer books available on the Web site. Users want to maintain the page requests as long as they are accessing the Web page. John wants to ensure that whenever the Web page BookItemList.aspx is posted back to the server, the price list should not be changed on the registered user’s computer. He also wants to validate the page sent back to the server. Which of the following actions will John take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to false.
B. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to true.
C. Set the EnableViewState attribute to true.
D. Set the EnableViewState attribute to false.
200-355 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 105
Patrick works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. He implements security using the security classes of the .NET Framework. He defines the following statements in the application: PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm1 = new PrincipalPermission(“Nick”, “General Manager”);
PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm2 = new PrincipalPermission(“Jack”, “Accountant”);
Patrick wants to check whether all demands that succeed for Principal_Perm1 also succeed for Principal_Perm2. Which of the following methods of the PrincipalPermission class will he use to accomplish this?
A. Intersect
B. IsSubSetOf
C. IsUnrestricted
D. Union
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application named App1 using Visual Basic .NET. App1 uses a non-COM DLL named Value1.dll, which contains unmanaged code. Sam writes a method named Method1 in Value1.dll as follows: Method1 Lib “Value1.dll”(ByVal InputVar As String, ByRef WordsVar As String, ByRef NumbersVar As Integer) As Integer Sam wants to use Method1 for parsing a string into an array of string values and an array of integers. Sam wants to enable App1 to call this function. Which of the following statements about the method are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The value of the first parameter cannot be changed by a procedure or a function.
B. The second parameter will contain all string values found in the first parameter.
C. The third parameter will contain all integer values found in the second parameter.
D. The third parameter will contain all string values found in the second parameter.
200-355 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 107
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You need to write a code segment that transfers the contents of a byte array named ToSend by using a NetworkStream object named NetStr. You want to use a cache of size only 8,192 bytes. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); NetStr.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) MStream.Length);
B. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, 8192);
C. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr, 8192); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, ToSend.Length);
D. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); MStream.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) NetStr.Length);
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 108
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95’. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
200-355 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 110
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 111
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert(); A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
 QUESTION NO: 112
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
200-355 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 113
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application uses serialization to allow users to take an instance of an object and convert it into a format that can be easily transmittable over the network or even stored in a database. You want to provide the base functionality for the common language runtime serialization formatters. Which of
the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. SoapFormatter
B. FormatterConverter
C. Formatter
D. BinaryFormatter
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 114
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates an ASP.NET page, named Page1, for a college Web site. Page1 is used to enroll new applicants to a certification course offered by the college. In order to get admission to the course, an applicant’s age must between eighteen and twenty-five. The page contains several TextBox controls that are used by
applicants to feed their personal details. The data entered by each applicant is then used to check the eligibility of the applicant. One of the TextBox controls on the page is named txtDateofBirth. Sam wants to verify that the applicants meet the age requirement. He wants to perform validation both on the server-side and on the client-side. In order to validate the age, he adds a CustomValidator control, named CValidator, to the page and sets its ControlToValidate property to txtDateofBirth. Which of the following will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ClientValidationFunction event
B. ServerValidate property
C. ServerValidate event
D. ClientValidationFunction property
200-355 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 115
You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework. The application is installed in a Network Load Balancing cluster. You are evaluating a bug statement. When a failure takes place in the Web application, the client occasionally gets an error page as anticipated. At other times, the client gets an exception stack with the error message, which is not anticipated. You are required to find out the configuration setting that causes the unanticipated error. Which of the following configuration settings causes the unanticipated error?
A. <customErrors mode=”Off” />
B. <compilation debug=”false” />
C. <compilation debug=”true” />
D. <customErrors mode=”On” />
Answer: A
 

 

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Question No : 1 Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
648-244 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Question No : 2 Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Question No : 3 What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
 E. 16 TB
648-244 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 4  Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 5 What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
648-244 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 6  How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
 A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 7 Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
648-244 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 8 Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 9 Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server?(Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
648-244 exam Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 10 Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Question No : 11 How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
 A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
648-244 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 12 When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 13 Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
648-244 pdf Answer: C,E
 Question No : 14 What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 15 What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based
servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
648-244 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 16 Which two statements would lead you to use a mixed Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with physical and virtual machines instead of a fully virtualized deployment? (Choose two.)
A. when migrating from a physical to a virtual deployment
B. when inter virtual machine traffic should be switched with Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. when using MOH audio live-stream devices
D. when you want to use direct-attached Fibre Channel SAN devices
E. when you need remote access to the BIOS setup
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Question No : 17 Why should you use the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in addition to your design solution that you did manually?
A. this is not necessary if the DocWiki guidelines for virtualized Cisco Unified Communications are followed
B. to distribute and place the virtual machines automatically in the optimized way
C. to calculate CPU and memory utilization
D. to select the optimized OVA template for the deployment
648-244 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 18  When designing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how many MOH Unicast streams are supported per server when streaming is colocated?
A. 48
B. 128
C. 250
D. 256
E. 500
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 19 When designing a virtualized Cisco Unity Connection deployment, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. configure CPU affinity for Cisco Unity Connection
B. reserve an unused core per Cisco Unity Connection virtual machine
C. reserve an unused core per host server
D. iLBC codec selection reduces the number of ports by 75 percent
E. a Cisco Unity Connection cluster supports up to 40,000 users
648-244 dumps Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Question No : 20 How many coresident applications can be hosted on a Cisco UCS C200 M2 server when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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070-489 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phone. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.
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QUESTION 12
You need to implement the social features.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
dropdown list in the answer area.)
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Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Contoso Ltd
Background
Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production.
Search
The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results.
Search Engine Optimization
The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following 070-489 dumps requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true
Managed Metadata Service (MMS)
The MMS must include three term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features.
Offices Term Set
The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane.
Cities Term Set
The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical. If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices term set before it can be added to the Cities term set. If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change in the Cities term set.
Features Term Set
You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The 070-489 pdf features term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about each property, such as whether the building is a single family house or a condominium. The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the Excel file into the term store in each server environment.
Web Application
The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles folder.
Site Collections and Content
The web application includes the following three site collections.
Board Member Site Collection
The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view  private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the 070-489 vce site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board members.
Internet Site Collection
Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. The Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices. Each office must have its own page on the site. The pages for each office must have the same style and structure. Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office. The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a property. The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company. Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member. The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents, including their contact information, certifications, and picture. When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling. The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their 070-489 vce features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web form that is used specifically for data collection.
The web form must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property.
Agent Site Collection
The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The Agent site collection has the following requirements: The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the website. A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set. Page Layouts and Web Parts
Page Layouts
You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements: The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts. The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must display biographical information about the board of directors. You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file. Web Parts
The Agent Web Part has the following requirements: The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be used by the Web Part.

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