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QUESTION 1
While performing surveillance activities, an attacker determines that an organization is using 802.1X to secure LAN
access. Which of the following attack mechanisms can the attacker utilize to bypass the identified network security?
A. MAC spoofing
B. Pharming
C. Xmas attack
D. ARP poisoning
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which of the following threats has sufficient knowledge to cause the MOST danger to an organization?
A. Competitors
B. Insiders
C. Hacktivists
D. Script kiddies
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
When systems, hardware, or software are not supported by the original vendor, it is a vulnerability known as:
A. system sprawl
B. end-of-life systems
C. resource exhaustion
D. a default configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
While performing a penetration test, the technicians want their efforts to go unnoticed for as long as possible while they
gather useful data about the network they are assessing. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for the
technicians?
A. Vulnerability scanner
B. Offline password cracker
C. Packet sniffer
D. Banner grabbing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An organization plans to transition the intrusion detection and prevention techniques on a critical subnet to an anomalybased system. Which of the following does the organization need to determine for this to be successful?
A. The baseline
B. The endpoint configurations
C. The adversary behavior profiles
D. The IPS signatures
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST explains how the use of configuration templates reduces organization risk?
A. It ensures consistency of configuration for initial system implementation.
B. It enables system rollback to a last known-good state if patches break functionality.
C. It facilitates fault tolerance since applications can be migrated across templates.
D. It improves vulnerability scanning efficiency across multiple systems.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the appropriate network structure used to protect servers and services that must be provided to
external clients without completely eliminating access for internal users?
A. NAC
B. VLAN
C. DMZ
D. Subnet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A department head at a university resigned on the first day of the spring semester. It was subsequently determined that
the department head deleted numerous files and directories from the server-based home directory while the campus
was closed. Which of the following policies or procedures could have prevented this from occurring?
A. Time-of-day restrictions
B. Permission auditing and review
C. Offboarding
D. Account expiration
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
A security analyst is assessing a small company\\’s internal servers against recommended security practices. Which of
the following should the analyst do to conduct the assessment? (Select TWO).
A. Compare configurations against platform benchmarks,
B. Confirm adherence to the company\\’s industry-specific regulations.
C. Review the company\\’s current security baseline,
D. Verify alignment with policy related to regulatory compliance
E. Run an exploitation framework to confirm vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 12
Which of the following network vulnerability scan indicators BEST validates a successful, active scan?
A. The scan job is scheduled to run during off-peak hours.
B. The scan output lists SQL injection attack vectors.
C. The scan data identifies the use of privileged-user credentials.
D. The scan results identify the hostname and IP address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A systems developer needs to provide machine-to-machine interface between an application and a database server in
the production environment. This interface will exchange data once per day. Which of the following access control
account practices would BEST be used in this situation?
A. Establish a privileged interface group and apply read-write permission to the members of that group.
B. Submit a request for account privilege escalation when the data needs to be transferred.
C. Install the application and database on the same server and add the interface to the local administrator group.
D. Use a service account and prohibit users from accessing this account for development work.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A user reports network resources can no longer be accessed. The PC reports a link but will only accept static IP
addresses. The technician pings other devices on the subnet, but the PC displays the message Destination
unreachable. Which of the following are MOST likley the causes of this issue? (Select TWO).
A. Damaged cables
B. Crosstalk
C. Bent pins
D. TX/RX reverse
E. VLAN mismatch
F. Duplex mismatch
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 2
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP
offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following
utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a secure way to connect to a device?
A. RSH
B. TFTP
C. SNMPv2
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The network optimization process used to allow reasonable use of data, voice, and video on the same network
infrastructure is called:
A. CARP
B. QoS
C. Traffic shaping.
D. Fault tolerance.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A network technician is installing a new network switch is looking for an appropriate fiber optic patch cable. The fiber
optic patch panel uses a twist-style connector. The switch uses a SFP module. Which of the following connector types
should the fiber patch cable have?
A. LC
B. ST
C. SC
D. MTRJ
E. MTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A network technician needs to set up an access method for Ann, a manager, to work from home. Ann needs to locally
mapped corporate resources to perform her job. Which of the following would provide secure access to the corporate
resources?
A. Utilize an SSH connection to the corporate server.
B. Use TFTP to transfer files to corporate resources.
C. Allow RDP through an external firewall.
D. Connect utilizing client-to-site VPN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes how a layer 2 switch functions?
A. Switches packets within the same subnet based on MAC addresses
B. Switches packets between different subnets based on IP addresses
C. Switches packets between different subnets based on MAC addresses
D. Switches packets between different subnets based on MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which of the following devices, if implemented, would result in decreased administration time of an 802.11 network
running centralized authentication services? (Choose two.)
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Wireless controller
D. RADIUS server
E. Multilayer switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
A technician is setting up a firewall on the network that would show a public IP address out to the Internet and assign
private IP addresses to users inside the network. Which of the following processes should be set up?
A. Port security
B. MAC filtering
C. ACL
D. NAT
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A network technician notices that most of the nodes in the 10.10.74.0/23 address space return either 1 or 2 node hop
after running a tracert, however, some of the new servers are showing a hop count larger than
A. New servers are being provisioned in the cloud.
B. Those servers have host-based firewalls.
C. Some of the servers are configured to use different gateways.
D. Part of the subnet is configured to use different VLANs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
In the past, users brought personal laptops to the office to bypass some of the security protocols on their desktops. Due
to new security initiatives, management has asked that users not be allowed to attach personal devices to the network.
Which of the following should a technician use to BEST meet this goal?
A. Shut down unused ports on switches
B. Upgrade firmware on network devices
C. Allow only secure protocols on the network
D. Disable unnecessary services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A consulting company was hired to project and deploy a new datacenter in a different city. This new facility must have
the same components installed as the current datacenter to be ready to take over all the network services as soon as
the primary site becomes unavailable. Which of the following describes what will be deployed in the new location?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Off-site backup
E. Infrastructure as a service
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1 

200-201 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
A. SSH
B. TCP
C. TLS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

200-201 exam questions-q2

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on
the Internet. After collecting this packet capture the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the
communication.
Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?
A. Base64 encoding
B. transport layer security encryption
C. SHA-256 hashing
D. ROT13 encryption
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data availability
B. data normalization
C. data signature
D. data protection
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?
A. internet
B. transport
C. application
D. data link
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which event artifact is used to identity HTTP GET requests for a specific file?
A. destination IP address
B. TCP ACK
C. HTTP status code
D. URI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?
A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator
B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access
C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator
D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?
A. identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities
B. detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code
C. conducts vulnerability scans on the network
D. manages a list of reported vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?
A. any potential danger to an asset
B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the application
C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design
D. the individuals who perform an attack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system?
A. application-level blacklisting
B. host-based IPS
C. application-level whitelisting
D. antivirus
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including
email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected
machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.
Which testing method did the intruder use?
A. social engineering
B. eavesdropping
C. piggybacking
D. tailgating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. colo?ur
B. col[0-8]+our
C. colou?r
D. col[0-9]+our
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its
integrity?
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)
Updated: Nov 12, 2020
Q&As: 80

QUESTION 1
Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic URL filtering
B. advanced analytics
C. dynamic data analysis
D. intrusion analysis
E. reputation analytics
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
What does remote access use to verify identity?
A. MFA
B. Agents
C. Remote Access VPN
D. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which two attack vectors are protected by Visibility and Enforcement? (Choose two.)
A. Cloud
B. Mobile
C. Endpoints
D. Email
E. Web
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
What do customers receive when implementing TrustSec?
A. SL decryption enabling secure communications on and off company networks
B. Context-aware access enhancing the forensic capabilities available to their IT team
C. Device profiling and onboarding, enabling businesses to control company role policies across all network services 1
D. Dynamic role-based access control that enables them to enforce business role policies across all network services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
How does AMP\\’s file reputation feature help customers?
A. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
B. It increases the accuracy of threat detection with Big Data analytics
C. It enables point in time detection through a one-to-one engine
D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)
A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)
A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. pxGrid
B. Cisco Security Connector
C. Duo
D. Stealthwatch
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which feature of Cognitive Intelligence can separate statistically normal traffic from anomalous traffic?
A. Event classification
B. Anomaly detection
C. Anomaly modeling
D. Trust modeling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What are two capabilities of Cisco\\’s NGFW Identity Based Policy Control feature? (Choose two.)
A. security enforced at the DNS layer
B. access to multiple data layers
C. access to Trojan downloader
D. see and share malware details
E. threats stopped from getting in and spreading
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
What are two solutions for Cisco Cloud Security? (Choose two.)
A. cloud data security
B. cloud-delivered security
C. advanced network security
D. intrusion prevention
E. cloud security
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
What are three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose three )
A. Roaming Security
B. Advanced Threat
C. Cloud Security
D. D loT Security .
E. Voice and Collaboration
F. Firewalls
Correct Answer: BCD

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Exam Code: 300-410 (Updated 118 Q&As)
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

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Cisco CCNP 300-410 Practice Test Questions Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from the
192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address:
10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 ospf database command and is presented with the
output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q3

A. link-local
B. area
C. As (OSPF domain)
D. reserved
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the output of the following command: show ip vrf
A. Show\\’s default RD values
B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF
C. Show\\’s routing protocol information associated with a VRF.
D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not
correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?
A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q6

Refer to the exhibit. An IP SLA was configured on router R1 that allows the default route to be modified in the event that
Fa0/0 loses reachability with the router R3 Fa0/0 interface. The route has changed to flow through router R2. Which
debug command is used to troubleshoot this issue?
A. debug ip flow
B. debug ip sla error
C. debug ip routing
D. debug ip packet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q7

A. The flow exporter is configured but is not used.
B. The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.
C. The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.
D. The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both spoke-tospoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q8

A. Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3.
B. Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
C. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
D. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3.
E. Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for
several service provides. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local
networks to all SP neighbors?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q10

An engineer is monitoring reachability of the configured default routes to ISP1 and ISP2. The default route from ISP1 is
preferred if available. How is this issue resolved?
A. Use the icmp-echo command to track both default routes
B. Use the same AD for both default routes
C. Start IP SLA by matching numbers for track and ip sla commands
D. Start IP SLA by defining frequency and scheduling it
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/200785-ISP-Failover-with-default-routes-using-I.html

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q11

An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired.
Which command fixes the issue?
A. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1
B. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2
C. R1(config)#ip sla track 1
D. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1
Correct Answer: D
Note: By default Static Router AD value-1 hence ip route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0. 1.1.1.1 track 1 means AD-1 which must be
less than of back up route AD.
Define the backup route to use when the tracked object is unavailable.
!— The administrative distance of the backup route must be greater than
!— the administrative distance of the tracked route.
!— If the primary gateway is unreachable, that route is removed
!— and the backup route is installed in the routing table
!— instead of the tracked route.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/200785-ISP-Failover-with-default-routes-using-I.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-generation-firewalls/118962-configureasa-00.html

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration must be configured on the spoke A router to enable a dynamic
DMVPN tunnel with the spoke B router?

Maeeonline 300-410 exam questions-q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?
A. It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
C. It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables
D. It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When provisioning an Azure Cosmos DB account, which feature provides redundancy within an Azure region?
A. multi-master replication
B. Availability Zones
C. automatic failover
D. the strong consistency level
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics of real-time data processing? Each correct answer present a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Data is processed as it is created.
B. Low latency is expected
C. High latency acceptable
D. Data is processed periodically
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Your company has a reporting solution that has paginated reports. The reports query a dimensional model in a data
warehouse. Which type of processing does the reporting solution use?
A. stream processing
B. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
C. batch processing
D. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Match the tools to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate tool from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each tool may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
Your company is designing a data store tor internet-connected temperature sensors. The collected data will be used to
analyze temperature trends. Which type of data store should you use?
A. relational
B. columnar
C. graph
D. time series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q6.QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of the Azure Cosmos DB Table API as compared to Azure Table storage?
A. supports partitioning
B. provides resiliency if art Azure region fads
C. provides a higher storage capacity
D. supports a multi-master model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Match the Azure data factory components to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each component
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q8

QUESTION 9
You have the following SQL query.

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q9

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

Maeeonline dp-900 exam questions-q9-3

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet.
You recently changed your external IP address.
After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure.
What is a possible cause of the issue?
A. a database-level firewall
B. role-based access control (RSAC)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Domain Name Service (DNS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have an e-commerce application that reads and writes data to an Azure SQL database. Which type of processing
does the application use?
A. stream processing
B. batch processing
C. Online Analytical Processing (OLTP)
D. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Match the types of workloads to the appropriate scenarios.
To answer, drag the appropriate workload type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each workload
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 10 You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet. You recently changed your external IP address. After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure. What is a possible cause of the issue? A. a database-level firewall B. role-based access control (RSAC) C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) D. Domain Name Service (DNS) Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 You have an e-commerce application that reads and writes data to an Azure SQL database. Which type of processing does the application use? A. stream processing B. batch processing C. Online Analytical Processing (OLTP) D. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Match the types of workloads to the appropriate scenarios. To answer, drag the appropriate workload type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each workload type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:

QUESTION 13
You need to develop a solution to provide data to executives. the solution must provide an interactive graphic interface,
depict various key performance indications, and support data exploration by using drill down. What should you use in
Microsoft Power BI?
A. a dashboard
B. Microsoft Power Apps
C. a dataflow
D. a report
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