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The IT Fundamentals Certification Study Guide was designed to help you acquire the knowledge and skills to set up and use a computer at home securely and keep it in good working order, as well as provide informal support for PCs and simple computer networks to your colleagues in a small business. It will also assist you in preparation for the CompTIA A+ certification exam.
Set up a computer workstation running Windows and use basic software applications.
Understand the functions and types of devices used within a computer system.
Apply basic computer maintenance and support principles.
Understand some principles of software and database development.
Configure computers and mobile devices to connect to home networks and to the internet.
Identify security issues affecting the use of computers and networks.
Latest effective CompTIA FC0-U61 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication? A. Password and passphrase B. Fingerprint and retina scan C. Hardware token and smartphone D. Smart card and PIN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which of the following would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol? A. Document sharing software B. Instant messaging software C. Conferencing software D. Email software Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally protected slogan of a business? A. Contract B. Patent C. Copyright D. Trademark Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was performed? A. Data correlation B. Data manipulation C. Data gathering D. Data definition Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen. Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this? A. Encryption B. Compression C. Permissions D. Auditing Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue? A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN. B. Enable task scheduling. C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values. D. Review the fault tolerance configurations. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands should the administrator use? A. SELECT B. INSERT C. DELETE D. UPDATE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following data types should a developer use when creating a variable to hold a postal code? A. Integer B. String C. Float D. Boolean Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern? A. Eavesdropping B. Impersonating C. Destructing D. Altering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing? A. Turn on private browsing B. Delete browsing history on program close. C. Notify when downloads are complete. D. Configure prompting before downloading content. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems. Which of the following is being developed? A. Algorithm B. Software C. Pseudocode D. Flowchart Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible. The data does not need to remain persistent. Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data? A. Flat file B. Memory C. Relational database D. Solid state drive Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A desktop administrator just connected a printer to a workstation, but the workstation does not recognize the printer. Which of the following does the workstation MOST likely need for the printer to function? A. Permission B. Ink cartridge C. USB cable D. Driver Correct Answer: D
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:
Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
Identifying common software applications and their purpose
Using security and web browsing best practices
This exam is intended for candidates who are advanced end users and/or are considering a career in IT. The exam is also a good fit for individuals interested in pursuing professional-level certifications, such as A+.
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Free 56 Cisco CCIE 400-051 Practice test questions and answers
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes how this Cisco IOS SIP gateway, with an analog phone attached to its FXS port, handles an incoming informational SIP 180 response message without SDP? A. It will enable early media cut-through. B. It will generate local ring back. C. It will do nothing because the message is informational. D. It will terminate the call because this is an unsupported message format. E. It will take the FXS port offhook. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) feature allows you to specify whether 180 messages with Session Description Protocol (SDP) are handled in the same way as 183 responses with SDP. The 180 Ringing message is a provisional or informational response used to indicate that the INVITE message has been received by the user agent and that alerting is taking place. The 183 Session Progress response indicates that information about the call state is present in the message body media information. Both 180 and 183 messages may contain SDP, which allows an early media session to be established prior to the call being answered. Prior to this feature, Cisco gateways handled a 180 Ringing response with SDP in the same manner as a 183 Session Progress response; that is, the SDP was assumed to be an indication that the far end would send early media. Cisco gateways handled a 180 response without SDP by providing local ringback, rather than early media cut-through. This feature provides the capability to ignore the presence or absence of SDP in 180 messages, and as a result, treat all 180 messages in a uniform manner. The SIP–Enhanced 180 Provisional Response Handling feature allows you to specify which call treatment, early media or local ringback, is provided for 180 responses with SDP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/cube/configuration/guide/vb_book/vb_book/ vb_1506.html
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which number is sent as the caller ID when a user at extension 5001 places a call that matches this translation profile? A. 14087775001 B. +4087775001 C. 4087750001 D. +14087775001 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: When someone dials 5001, it will match rule 2 because it exactly starts with 5(five) using the ^ sign and ends with [0-9] followed by $. In replace pattern you can see +1408777 & \0 means all set of match pattern. Thus, +14087775001.
QUESTION 3 Which Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profile is also known as best-effort video on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? A. homogeneous B. guaranteed-audio C. rendezvous D. heterogeneous E. flex mode video Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video). As the name suggests, when Guaranteed Audio Conferences is configured, the system attempts to display video for all participants; however, it does not guarantee that the video of all participants is displayed. For those participants whose video is not displayed, participants are downgraded to audio-only and the profile guarantees preservation of the audio portion of the call. This option gives you added flexibility because the DSPs are not all reserved when the profile is created; the system attempts to reserve them when this profile is activated with an actual conference. For example: dspfarm profile 1 conference video guaranteed-audio codec h264 vga codec h264 4cif Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video- conferencing-isr-routers/qa_c67-649850.html
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls rang both phones and were answered by IP phone 2. Which option describes what will happen to the third incoming call? A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call. B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call. C. Only IP phone 1 rings and can answer the call. D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100. E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: As we can see busy-trigger-per-button set to 2 in voice register pool 1(IP Phone 1). So, IP Phone 1’s channel is free for receiving incoming calls and right now IP Phone 2 is busy answering call.
QUESTION 5 Which SIP message element is mapped to QSIG FACILITY messages being tunneled across a SIP trunk between two Cisco IOS gateways? A. SIP UPDATE B. SIP OPTIONS C. SIP SUBSCRIBE D. SIP INFO E. SIP NOTIFY Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Mapping of QSIG Message Elements to SIP Message Elements This section lists QSIG message elements and their associated SIP message elements when QSIG messages are tunneled over a SIP trunk. • QSIG FACILITY/NOTIFY/INFO <—> SIP INFO • QSIG SETUP <—> SIP INVITE • QSIG ALERTING <—> SIP 180 RINGING • QSIG PROGRESS <—> SIP 183 PROGRESS • QSIG CONNECT <—> SIP 200 OK • <—> SIP BYE/CANCEL/4xx—6xx Response Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/sip/configuration/guide/15_0/sip_15_0_book/tunneling_qsig.html
QUESTION 6 Which two types of line codes are configurable for an E1 PRI controller on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.) A. CRC4 B. AMI C. B8ZS D. HDB3 E. ESF F. SF Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configuring an NM-xCE1T1-PRI Card for an E1 Interface Perform this task to select and configure an NM-xCE1T1-PRI network module card as E1. SUMMARY STEPS 1. enable 2. configure terminal 3. card type e1 slot 4. controller e1 slot / port 5. linecode {ami | hdb3} 6. framing {crc4 | no-crc4} Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/interface/configuration/12-4/ir-12-4- book/ir-12-port-chann-nm.html
QUESTION 7 Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.) A. It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers. B. Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair. C. It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs. D. Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs. E. It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy. F. The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface. Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configure box-to-box redundancy when you: • Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active/standby (only the master CSS processes flows) • Can configure a dedicated Fast Ethernet (FE) link between the CSSs for the VRRP heartbeat Do not configure box-to-box redundancy when you: • Expect the behavior of the CSSs to be active-active (both CSSs processing flows). Use VIP redundancy instead. • Cannot configure a dedicated FE link between the CSSs. • Require the connection of a Layer 2 device between the redundant CSS peers
QUESTION 8
IP phone 1 has MAC address of 1111.1111.1111, and IP phone 2 has MAC address of 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, and the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2. Which option describes what will happen to the fourth incoming call? A. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call. B. Both phones ring and either phone can answer the call. C. Both phones ring, but only IP phone 1 can answer the call. D. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2100. E. Neither phone rings and the call is forwarded to 2200. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: IP Phone 1 & 2 both have busy-trigger-per-button configured to 3 & 2 respectively. So, the 4th incoming call will get forwarded to 2100 as busy-triggers are exceeding in IP Phones. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_cr/c me_c1ht.html#wp1570384096
QUESTION 9 Which statement describes the question mark wildcard character in a SIP trigger that is configured on Cisco Unity Express? A. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9. B. It matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. C. It matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. D. It matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. E. It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9, when used within square brackets. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Table 5-2 Trigger Pattern Wildcards and Special Characters Character Description Examples X The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9. The trigger pattern 9XXX matches all numbers in the range 9000 through 9999. ! The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. The trigger pattern 91! matches all numbers in the range 910 through 91999999999999999999999999999999. ? The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The trigger pattern 91X? matches all numbers in the range 91 through 91999999999999999999999999999999. + The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The trigger pattern 91X+ matches all numbers in the range 910 through 91999999999999999999999999999999. [ ] The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values. The trigger pattern 813510[012345] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105. – The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values. The trigger pattern 813510[0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135100 through 8135105. ^ The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values. Ensure that it is the first character following the opening bracket ([). Each trigger pattern can have only one ^ character. The trigger pattern 813510[^0-5] matches all numbers in the range 8135106
QUESTION 10 Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true? A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs. B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones. C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN. D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone. E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone. Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs. Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support. Mid-calls are either of the following: – Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with the phone. – Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered. Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN. State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it? A. FXS B. E&M C. BRI D. FXOE. DID Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configuring FXS and FXO Voice Ports to Support Caller ID To configure caller-ID on FXS and FXO voice ports, use the following commands beginning in global configuration mode: Command Purpose Step 1 Router(config)# caller-id enable Enables caller ID. This command applies to FXS voice ports that send caller-ID information and to FXO ports that receive it. By default caller ID is disabled. Note If the station-id or a caller-id alerting command is configured on the voice port, these automatically enable caller ID, and the caller-id enable command is not necessary. Step 2 Router(config-voiceport)# station-id name name Configures the station name on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station name on an FXO port of a router for which incoming Caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. The name argument is a character string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station. Note This command applies only to caller-ID calls, not Automatic Number Identification (ANI) calls. ANI supplies calling number identification only. Step 3 Router(config-voiceport)# station-id number number Configure the station number on FXS voice ports connected to user telephone sets. This sets the caller-ID information for on-net calls originated by the FXS port. You can also configure the station number on an FXO port of a router for which incoming caller ID from the PSTN subscriber line is expected. In this case, if no caller-ID information is included on the incoming PSTN call, the call recipient receives the information configured on the FXO port instead. If the PSTN subscriber line does provide caller-ID information, this information is used and the configured station name is ignored. If the caller-ID station number is not provided by either the incoming PSTN caller ID or by the station number configuration, the calling number included with the on-net routed call is determined by Cisco IOS software by using a reverse dial-peer search. In this case, the number is obtained by searching for a POTS dial-peer that refers to the voice-port and the destination- pattern number from that dial-peer is used. Number is a string of 1 to 15 characters identifying the station telephone or extension number. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/voice/configuration/guide/fvvfax_c/vvfclid.ht ml
QUESTION 12 Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router? A. sequential B. peer C. longest idle D. parallel E. overlay Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox. The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group: Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32
QUESTION 13 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call? A. o B. c C. w D. x E. : Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.
QUESTION 14 Which codec is supported on the Cisco PVDM2 DSP modules but not on the PVDM3 DSP modules? A. G.728 B. G.729B C. G.729AB D. G.723 E. G.726 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: All codecs that are supported on the PVDM2 are supported on the PVDM3, except that the PVDM3 does not support the G.723 (G.723.1 and G.723.1A) codecs. The PVDM2 can be used to provide G.723 codec support or the G.729 codec can be as an alternative on the PVDM3 Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/1900/software/configuration/guide/Sof tware_Configuration/pvdm3_config.html
QUESTION 15 Which message is used by a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway to send periodic keepalives to its call agent? A. CRCX B. AUCX C. NTFY D. RQNT E. 200 OK Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: The gateway maintains this connection by sending empty MGCP Notify (NTFY) keepalive messages to Cisco CallManager at 15-second intervals. If the active Cisco CallManager fails to acknowledge receipt of the keepalive message within 30 seconds, the gateway attempts to switch over to the next highest order Cisco CallManager server that is available. If none of the Cisco CallManager servers respond, the gateway switches into fallback mode and reverts to its default H.323 session application for basic call control support of IP telephony activity in the network.
QUESTION 16 Refer to the exhibit
Which two statements about calls that match dial-peer voice 7 voip are true? (Choose two.) A. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 use G.711. B. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 have the Diversion header removed from SIP Invites. C. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 use NOTIFY-based, out-of-band DTMF relay. D. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 are marked with DSCP 32. E. All calls that match dial-peer voice 7 are marked with DSCP 34. Correct Answer: BE Explanation Explanation/Reference: Dial peer 7 refers to SIP profile 102, which we can see is configured to have the Diversion header removed from SIP Invites. Dial peer 7 marks traffic with AF41, which is equivalent to DSCP 34.
QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements about the show command output are true? (Choose two.) A. T1 0/2/1 terminates Q.921 signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. B. T1 0/0/0 terminates Q.921 signaling on the gateway. C. T1 0/0/0 terminates SIP Signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. D. T1 0/0/0 terminates Q.931 signaling to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. E. T1 0/2/1 terminates Q.931 signaling on the gateway. Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference: As you can see the T1 0/0/0:23 interface is active in layer 1,2(multi frame established) & 3,it means Q.931 signaling terminates at gateway and using backhauled technique q931 messages are going to CUCM server. But in case of T1 0/2/1 port multi frames are not established in layer 2.So, it’s not configured properly & doesn’t backhauling q931 messages to CUCM
QUESTION 18 When multiple greetings are enabled on Cisco Unity Express, which greeting will take the highest precedence? A. standard B. meeting C. busy D. closed E. internal Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Meeting greeting has the highest priority because it is set by the user when he doesn’t want to take the call and notices the caller he is online.
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. Which option describes what will happen to an incoming call that entered the call queue but all members of the hunt group are in Do Not Disturb status? A. The call is forwarded to extension 2120. B. The call is forwarded to extension 2220. C. The call is forwarded to extension 2003. D. The call is disconnected with user busy. E. The call is forwarded to extension 2100. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because all members of hunt group are unavailable or activate DnD and incoming queued call will forward to voicemail using the param voice-mail 2220 command. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/bacd/configuration/guide/cme 40tcl/40bacd.html#wpmkr1105714
QUESTION 20 Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.) A. homogeneous B. rendezvous C. guaranteed-audio D. scheduled E. guaranteed-video F. ad-hoc Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: Q. What video conferences are supported? A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video). Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice- video-conferencing-isr-routers/qa_c67-649850.html
QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit.Which out-of-dialog SIP OPTIONS ping response put dial-peer tag 1111 into its current operational state? A. 501 Not Implemented B. 504 Server Time-out C. 408 Request Timeout D. 486 Busy Here E. 503 Service Unavailable Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: SIP 503 Service Unavailable is commonly seen in a VoIP network when a SIP device (such as a SIP server) is knowingly unable to process a call. Typically when this happens the endpoint that originated the Invite will try the next available host it receives in the SIP Contact header.
QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit.The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager server at the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone received an IP address in the correct subnet and with a correct subnet mask from the DHCP server, but never completed registration with Cisco Unified CM. Assuming the IP phone is correctly defined on Unified CM, which two statements the network components are true? (Choose two.) A. The MAC address of the IP phone is 01ec44761e3e7d. B. The IP address of the DHCP server is 10.101.15.1. C. The MAC address of the VLAN 101 interface is 01ec44761e3e7d. D. The MAC address of the IP phone is ec44761e3e7d. E. There is no IP connectivity between the VLAN 101 interface of the branch router and the ip-helper address that is configured on this interface. F. Based on the information provided, we cannot conclude if there is IP connectivity between the IP phone and Cisco Unified CM.Correct Answer: DF Explanation Explanation/Reference: In the logs the only information that we get is about the mac address of the IP phone because the IP phone is raising the boot request.
QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit.
How many simultaneous outbound calls are possible with this Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration on these two phones? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 E. 11 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ephone is configured as octo line so maximum call number is 8 and it will be divided between lines.
QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibitYour customer sent you this debug output, captured on a Cisco IOS router (router A), to troubleshoot a problem where all H.323 calls that originate from another Cisco IOS router (router B) are being dropped almost immediately after arriving at router A. What is the reason for these disconnected calls? A. Calls were unsuccessful because of internal, memory-related problems on router A. B. Calls were rejected because the called number was denied on a configured class of restriction list on router A. C. Calls were rejected because the VoIP dial peer 1002 was not operational. D. Calls were unsuccessful because the router B IP address was not found in the trusted source IP address list on router A. E. Calls were rejected by router A because it received an admission reject from its gatekeeper because of toll fraud suspicion. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Trusted source IP address list on router is a list which secures the connectivity of router if it is enabled then we need to give the trusted entry for any route to reach.
QUESTION 25 Refer to the exhibit.
How many simultaneous inbound calls can be handled by these two IP phones? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 9 E. 10 Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: The line is configured as shared line so it will support maximum two calls at a time.
QUESTION 26 How many signaling bits are there in each T1 time slot using channel associated signaling with Super Frame? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 E. 12 Correct Answer: B ExplanationExplanation/Reference: Each T1 CAS has 24 channels that can transmit 8 bits per channel each. This gives us a total of 192 bits. The T1 has one additional bit for framing, bringing the total to 193 bits. Two types of line coding can be used on a T1 CAS. The first type of line coding is called Super Frame (SF). This is an older and less – efficient type of framing. Super Frame bundles 12 of these 193 – bit frames together for transport. It then uses the even ?numbered frames as signaling bits. The T1 CAS signaling then looks at every sixth frame for signaling information. This comes out to be 2 bits that are referred to as the A and B bits, which reside in frames 6 and 12.
QUESTION 27 Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express hunt group mechanisms keep track of the number of hops in call delivery decisions? (Choose two.) A. sequential B. peer C. longest idle D. parallel E. overlay F. linear Correct Answer: BC Explanation Explanation/Reference: Peer configures hunting in a circular manner among the hunt group member DNs and starts with the DN to the right of the last DN to ring. Longest-idle specify hunting on the DN which is idle for a longest period of time and the call will go to that DN of the hunt Group. Reference: http://ccievoice.ksiazek.be/?p=690
QUESTION 28 In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones? A. idle B. seized C. alerting D. ringing E. connected Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a second time disables SNR. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html
QUESTION 29 Which statement about what happens to a Cisco IOS SIP VoIP dial-peer that never received any responses to its out-of-dialog OPTIONS ping is true? A. Its admin state will be up but operational state will be down. B. Its admin and operational state will be down. C. Its admin and operational state will remain up. D. Its admin state will be up but operational state will be “busy-out”. E. Its admin and operational state will be “busy-out”. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: You can check the validity of your dial peer configuration by performing the following tasks: If you have relatively few dial peers configured, you can use the show dial-peer voice command to verify that the configuration is correct. To display a specific dial peer or to display all configured dial peers, use this command. The following is sample output from the show dial-peer voice command for a specific VoIP dial peer: router# show dial-peer voice 10 VoiceOverIpPeer10 tag = 10, dest-pat = \Q’, incall-number = \Q+14087′, group = 0, Admin state is up, Operation state is down Permission is Answer, type = voip, session-target = \Q’, sess-proto = cisco, req-qos = bestEffort, acc-qos = bestEffort, fax-rate = voice, codec = g729r8, Expect factor = 10,Icpif = 30, VAD = disabled, Poor QOV Trap = disabled, Connect Time = 0, Charged Units = 0 Successful Calls = 0, Failed Calls = 0 Accepted Calls = 0, Refused Calls = 0 Last Disconnect Cause is “” Last Disconnect Text is “” Last Setup Time = 0 To show the dial peer that matches a particular number (destination pattern), use the show dialplan number command. The following example displays the VoIP dial peer associated with the destination pattern 51234: router# show dialplan number 51234 Macro Exp.: 14085551234 VoiceOverIpPeer1004 tag = 1004, destination-pattern = \Q+1408555….’, answer-address = \Q’, group = 1004, Admin state is up, Operation state is up type = voip, session-target = \Qipv4:1.13.24.0′, ip precedence: 0 UDP checksum = disabled session-protocol = cisco, req-qos = best-effort, acc-qos = best-effort, fax-rate = voice, codec = g729r8, Expect factor = 10, Icpif = 30, VAD = enabled, Poor QOV Trap = disabled Connect Time = 0, Charged Units = 0 Successful Calls = 0, Failed Calls = 0 Accepted Calls = 0, Refused Calls = 0 Last Disconnect Cause is “” Last Disconnect Text is “” Last Setup Time = 0 Matched: +14085551234 Digits: 7 Target: ipv4:172.13.24.0
QUESTION 30 Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.) A. The ephone hunt group is mandatory. B. Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable. C. Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones. D. Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones. E. Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones. F. The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential. Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.ht ml
QUESTION 31 Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes how this Cisco IOS SIP gateway, with an analog phone attached to its FXS port, handles an incoming informational SIP 180 response message with SDP? A. It will enable early media cut-through. B. It will generate local ring back. C. It will do nothing because the message is informational. D. It will terminate the call because this is an unsupported message format. E. It will take the FXS port offhook. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 32 Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command? A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED B. TEI_ASSIGNED C. AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT D. STANDBY E. INITIALIZED Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.
QUESTION 33 Refer to the exhibit.
IP phone 1 has the MAC address 11111.1111.1111, while IP phone 2 has the MAC address 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, while the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2. What will happen to the fourth incoming call? A. Both phones will ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call. B. Both phones will ring and either phone can answer the call. C. Only IP phone 2 will ring and can answer the call. D. Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2100. E. Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2200. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: In shared line configuration phone share the same line so it is possible for any phone to answer the call.
QUESTION 34 Refer to the exhibit.
How many calls, inbound and outbound combined, are supported on the IP phone? A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 12 E. 50 Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Output incomplete to figure out the answer
QUESTION 35 In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM-12 DSP hardware based on? A. C542 B. C549 C. C5510 D. C5421 E. C5409 Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: NM-HDV has five SIMM sockets (called Banks) that hold the PVDM-12 cards. Each PVDM- 12 card contains three TI 549 DSPs. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/7x/uc7_0/media.html
QUESTION 36 Which enrollment method does a Cisco IOS VPN router trustpoint use to install a Certificate Authority Proxy Function certificate for LSC validation of a Cisco IP phone client? A. HTTP proxy server B. certificate authority server URL C. terminal D. self-signed E. registration authority Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Router(config)#crypto pki trustpoint CAPF enrollment terminal authorization username subjectname commonname revocation-check none Router(config)#crypto pki authenticate CAPF Router(config)# Things to Note: The enrollment method is terminal because the certificate has to be manually installed on the Router. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/authentication- authorization-accounting-aaa/116313-configure-anyconnect-00.html
QUESTION 37 Which three options are valid per-session video conference participants supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose three.) A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 9 F. 12 G. 16 Correct Answer: BDG Explanation Explanation/Reference: The integrated video conferencing services use the same DSP resources on PVDM3s that are used for widely deployed ISR G2 voice capabilities. These modules, in conjunction with Cisco IOS Software, perform audio and video mixing, video transcoding for certain resolutions, and other functions for video endpoints. PVDM3 modules support flexible media resources and conference profile management to maximize capacity with predictable end-user experiences. Both homogenous and heterogonous video conferences are supported. A homogenous conference refers to one in which participants connect to the ISR G2 with devices that support the same video format attributes (for example, the same codec, resolution, frame rate, and bit rate). A heterogeneous conference refers to one in which participants can connect to a conference bridge with devices that support different video format attributes. Each conference allows 4-, 8-, or 16-party participants. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice- video-conferencing-isr-routers/data_sheet_c78-649427.html
QUESTION 38 Which two are characteristics of jitter buffers? (Choose two.) A. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by turning variable network delays into constant delays at the destination end systems. B. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by turning variable network delays into constant delays at the sending systems. C. The role of the jitter buffer is to balance the delay and the probability of interrupted playout due to late packets. D. The role of the jitter buffer is to queue late packets and reorder out-of-order packets. E. Jitter buffers are used to change asynchronous packet arrivals into a synchronous stream by queuing packets into constant delays at the sending systems. Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: Jitter buffers are used to remove the effects of jitter so that asynchronous packet arrivals are changed to a synchronous stream. The jitter buffer trades off between delay and the probability of interrupted playout because of late packets (discard). Reference: http://www.appneta.com/blog/jitter-voip/
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit.The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager serverat the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone could not register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. You have confirmed that the IP phone received an IP address in the correct subnet and with a correct subnet mask from the DHCP server. Assuming the IP phone is correctly defined on Unified CM, which two statements about the network components are true? (Choose two.) A. The MAC address of the IP phone is 01ec44761e3e. B. The IP address of the DHCP server is 10.101.15.1. C. The MAC address of the VLAN 101 interface is ec44761e3e7d. D. The IP address of the VLAN 101 interface is 10.101.15.1. E. There is IP connectivity between the VLAN 101 interface of the branch router and the ip- helper address that is configured on this interface. F. There is IP connectivity between the IP phone and the ip-helper address on the VLAN 101 interface. Correct Answer: DE Explanation Explanation/Reference: As we can see from the logs given first line relate that dhcp request is being relayed. So it clarifies there must be ip helper address commend given by the admin on interface vlan 101. Now we can see from the second line that giaddress is set as source address of vlan 101 by the dhcp as 10.101.15.1 to unicast the dhcp request
QUESTION 40 Assume the IP address of Cisco Unity Express is 10.1.1.1. Which URL provides Cisco Unity Express end users with a GUI interface to access and manage their messages and mailbox settings? A. http://10.1.1.1/Web/Common/Login.do B. http://10.1.1.1/ciscopca C. http://10.1.1.1/user D. http://10.1.1.1/inbox E. http://10.1.1.1/ Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: For user access cisco unity has predefined url and it is http://10.1.1.1/user
QUESTION 41 Refer to the exhibit.
Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit? A. e&m-wink-start B. e&m-delay-dial C. e&m-delay-dial D. e&m-lmr E. e&m-fgd Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can’t send ANI. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html
QUESTION 42 Which two analog telephony signaling methods are most vulnerable to glare conditions? (Choose two.) A. FXS Loop-start B. FXO Ground-start C. E&M Wink-start D. E&M Delay-dial E. E&M Immediate-start F. E&M Feature Group D Correct Answer: AE Explanation Explanation/Reference: The loop start signaling method is more common and is typically used by residential phone lines. When a voice port is configured with loop start signaling, the device (telephone) closes the circuit loop that signals the CO voice port to provide dial tone; an incoming call is signaled on the CO by supplying a predefined voltage on the line. The loop start signaling method has one main disadvantage in that it has no method of preventing both sides of the connection from attempting to seize the line at the same time; this condition is referred to as glare. Because of this, loop start signaling is typically not used on high demand circuits. With immediate-start, the calling side of the connection seizes the line by going off hook on the E-lead and address information is sent using dual-tone multifrequency (DTMF) digits. Immediate start signaling is vulnerable to glare just like loop- start signaling.
QUESTION 43 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a call in queue that was not answered by any member of the hunt group after the maximum amount of time allowed in the call queue expires? A. The call will be forwarded to extension 2120. B. The call will be forwarded to extension 2220. C. The call will be forwarded to extension 2003. D. The call will be disconnected with user busy. E. The call will be forwarded to 2100. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: As we can see in the configuration 2220 is configured as voice mail forwarding extension so the call will forward to voice mail.
QUESTION 44 Which two statements about the restrictions for support of H.239 are true? (Choose two.) A. SIP to H323 video calls using H.239 are not supported. B. Redundancy for H.323 calls is not supported. C. H.239 calls are not supported over intercluster trunks with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. H.239 is not supported with third-party endpoints. E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports a maximum of three video channels when using H.239. Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: Restriction for Support for H.239 The Support for H.239 feature has the following restrictions: Interworking SIP-H.323 Video calls using H.239 is not supported. Redundancy for H.323 calls is not supported. A fast-start request cannot include a request to open an H.239 additional video channel as it is not supported. H.239 systems based on H.235 is not supported. The SBC does not support call transfer for H.323 calls. When an H.323 endpoint is placed on hold, it closes its media as well as video channels. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/sbcu/2_xe/sbcu_ 2_xe_book/sbc_h239.html
QUESTION 45 Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router without having to shut and no shut the ports? A. THL tone sweep B. original tone sweep C. ECAN test D. inject-tone local sweep E. remote loop Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test requires minimal supervision. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance-choice.html
QUESTION 46 Which digital modulation method is used to transmit caller ID information on analog FXS ports on Cisco IOS routers? A. DTMF B. PSK C. FSK D. MF E. pulse dialing Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Link:-http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/vcr1/vcr1-cr-book/vcr-c4.html
QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit.
Which ds0-group option should you select to send automated number identification information on outbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit? A. e&m-fgd B. e&m-fgd C. fgd-eana D. e&m-delay-dial E. fgd-os Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: E&M signaling is often the preferred option for CAS because it avoids glare, it provides answer/disconnect supervision and it can receive Automatic Number Identification (ANI) with FGD and send ANI with FGD-EANA. In other words, you can have 1 channel-group for incoming calls and 1 channel-group for outgoing calls.
QUESTION 48 In Channel Associated Signaling on a T1 circuit using Extended Super Frame, how many signaling bits does each T1 timeslot have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 12 E. 24 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Each T1 channel carries a sequence of frames. These frames consist of 192 bits and an additional bit designated as the framing bit, for a total of 193 bits per frame. Super Frame (SF) groups twelve of these 193 bit frames together and designates the framing bits of the even numbered frames as signaling bits. CAS looks specifically at every sixth frame for the timeslot’s or channel’s associated signaling information. These bits are commonly referred to as A- and B-bits. Extended super frame (ESF), due to grouping the frames in sets of twenty-four, has four signaling bits per channel or timeslot. These occur in frames 6, 12, 18, and 24 and are called the A-, B-, C-, and D-bits respectively. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/digital-cas/22444-t1-cas- ios.html
QUESTION 49 Refer to the exhibit.
How many inbound calls can be handled simultaneously between ephone 1 and ephone 2 before a user busy tone is returned? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 E. 11 Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because hunt stop channel is set to 6 as it enables call hunting to up to six channels of this ephone-dn and remaining 2 channels are available for outgoing call features. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_cr/c me_e1ht.html
QUESTION 50 Refer to the exhibit.The exhibit shows an outgoing SIP 401 response message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to a SIP VoIP service provider gateway. Which action can the Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems administrator use to change the response to “200 OK”? A. Make sure the gateway IP address of the SIP VoIP service provider is defined correctly in Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. B. Enable OPTIONS ping on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. C. Disable OPTIONS ping on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. D. Create an SIP response alias to force outgoing 401 messages to “200 OK”. E. Disable digest authentication on Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk. Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Because Right now CUCM challenges the identity of a SIP user agent and must configure digest credentials for the application user in CUCM or you have to disable it for stop challenging by CUCM. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/security/9_0_1/secugd/CUCM_ BK_CCB00C40_00_cucm-security-guide-90/CUCM_BK_CCB00C40_00_cucm-security- guide_chapter_011010.html
QUESTION 51 In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM2-32 DSP hardware based on? A. C5441 B. C549 C. C5510 D. C5421 E. Broadcom 1500 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Table 6-2 DSP Resources on Cisco IOS Hardware Platforms with C5510 Chipset Hardware Module or Chassis DSP Configuration Maximum Number of Voice Terminations (Calls) per DSP and per Module Medium Complexity (8 calls per DSP) High Complexity (6 calls per DSP) Flex Mode1 (240 MIPS per DSP) VG-224 Fixed at 4 DSPs N/A 24 calls per platform Supported codecs: • G.711 (a-law, mu-law) • G.729a N/A NM-HD-1V2 Fixed at 1 DSP 4 calls per NM 4 calls per NM 240 MIPS per NM NM-HD-2V Fixed at 1 DSP 8 calls per NM 6 calls per NM 240 MIPS per NM NM-HD-2VE Fixed at 3 DSPs 24 calls per NM 18 calls per NM 720 MIPS per NM NM-HDV2 NM-HDV2-2T1/E1 NM-HDV2-1T1/E1 1 to 4 of: PVDM2-83 (½ DSP)PVDM2-16 (1 DSP)PVDM2-32 (2 DSPs)PVDM2-48 (3 DSPs)PVDM2-64 (4 DSPs) Calls per PVDM: 48162432 Calls per PVDM: 36121824 MIPS per PVDM: 120240480720960 Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42media.html
QUESTION 52 Which Cisco packet voice and video digital signal processor 3 can be used for video mixing on a Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2? A. PVDM3-16 B. PVDM3-32 C. PVDM3-64 D. PVDM3-128 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: All the PVDM3 types (that is, PVDM3-16, PVDM3-32, PVDM3-64, PVDM3-128, PVDM3- 192, and PVDM3-256) support switched-only video conferences. Only PVDM3-128 and higher modules support video conferencing with video mixing, transcoding and transrating. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video- conferencing-isr-routers/data_sheet_c78-649427.pdf
QUESTION 53 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. How much time does a member of the hunt group have to answer a queue call that is ringing on their extension? A. 5 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 30 seconds E. 40 seconds Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: As you can see the timeout 10 sec in ephone-hunt 1 means hunt group membes have to answer the queued call within 10 sec.
QUESTION 54 Refer to the exhibit.
This output was captured on a Cisco IOS gateway shortly after it became the active Cisco Unified Border Element in a box-to-box redundancy failover.How many calls are native to this Cisco Unified Border Element? A. 9 B. 12 C. 19 D. 31 E. 40 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Total no of calls =28+12=40. So, native calls are =40-9=31. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified- communications/unified-border-element/112095-cube-hsrp-config-00.html.
QUESTION 55 Which two responses from a SIP device, which is the only remote destination on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with OPTIONS ping enabled, cause the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”? (Choose two.) A. 503 Service Unavailable B. 408 Request Timeout C. 505 Version Not Supported D. 504 Server Timeout E. 484 Address Incomplete F. 404 Not Found Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: The remote peer may be marked as Out of Service if it fails to respond to OPTIONS, if it sends 503 or 408 responses, or if the Transport Control Protocol (TCP) connection cannot be established. If at least one IP address is available, the trunk is In Service; if all IP addresses are unavailable, the trunk is Out of Service. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_5_1/ccmcfg/bccm- 851-cm/b06siprf.html
QUESTION 56 Refer to the exhibit.
Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a new call that enters the call queue when there are already two calls in queue? A. The call will be forwarded to extension 2120. B. The call will be forwarded to extension 2220. C. The call will be forwarded to extension 2003. D. The call will be disconnected with user busy. E. The call will be forwarded to 2100. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: That is because queue over flow is forwarded to 2003 and maximum number of calls in queue is configured as two.
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Free 30 Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-370 Practice test questions and answers
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should be verified? A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server C. that the user has an account on the authentication server D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a controller?(Choose two) A. show sysinfo B. show udi C. show inventory D. show boot E. show tech-support Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 While reviewing Clean Air data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default seventy level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the seventy level to its factory setting? A. informational B. major C. minor D. warning E. critical Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the engineer consider legal ramifications? A. rogue AP containment B. RF detection C. switch port tracing D. wire detection E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the CAPWAP messages? A. debug pm pki enable B. debug cert events enable C. debug capwap events enable D. debug capwap packet enable E. debug capwap errors enable Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Scenario The Big Engineering IT team has been working in the lab to do some testing of some new features the existing network won’t support. They are AP Croups, AP Failover, and Local Web Auth. They have been having problems with all three features. In this test environment the controllers only support the Composite and Structural Engineering and Aerodynamic Engineering groups. All SSIDs should omit the department name. Refer to the exhibit. This is a diagram of the floor plan for the Big Engineering office and the distribution of the departments. The tables below show how the controllers have been configured. Note, not all menu items, text boxes, or radio buttons are active.
When you review the configuration of the test network controller what needs to be changed to resolve the problems? (Choose four.) A. Change the High Availability Primary Controller Management Interface IP address. B. Remove the current WLANs and replace them with WLANs that have the same SSID names as on the AE-2504A controller. C. Add the Local Net User names and passwords D. Change the Layer 2 security to none and Layer 3 Security to Web Policy for the CSE-Contractors WLAN E. Remove me current WLAN from the CSE-WLAN AP Group and add all three of the WLANs configured in the CSE- 2504A F. Add the CSE APs to the CSE-WLANs AP-Group. Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 7 Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)A. The client has a 5 GHz connection. B. The client has authenticated. C. The client is 802.11n capable. D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP. E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8 The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit. A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join. B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware. C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version. D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue? Refer to the exhibit.
A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile. B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server. C. Reset the network settings on the devices. D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually. E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 An engineer is troubleshooting non-802 11 interference and observes this output. Which type of interference signaturescanbeidentified? Refer to the exhibit.
A. one frequency hopping Bluetooth B. two healthy CCK and one malformed OFDM C. three broadband jammers D. two strong microwave ovens and one moderate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A new wireless deployment with high AP density is experiencing high latency and connectivity issues on the 24 GHz band, despite an initial site survey done by a certified partner. Which option is the most impactful change a wireless consultant recommends? Refer to the exhibit.A. Increase the fragmentation threshold to allow larger packets over the air. B. Reduce the beacon period because it reduces the RF interference. C. Disable lower data rate, such as 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps. D. Disable the short preamble. E. Disable 80211g support to reduce interference. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A wireless user is experiencing connectivity issues with their Mac OS laptop. If the Mac is exhibiting the behavior of a “sticky client” how can the tech verity which AP the user is currently connected to? A. Hold shift while clicking the wireless icon. B. Hold option while clicking the wireless icon. C. Hold control while clicking the wireless icon. D. Hold command while clicking the wireless icon. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication. Which configurationiscausing the failure? A. The AP has override global credentials checked. B. The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE. C. The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISED. EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command causes this to occur? A. debug capwap detail enable B. debug capwap errors enable C. debug capwap info enable D. debug capwap events enable E. debug capwap packet enable F. debug capwap payload enable Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 A network engineer is troubleshooting why EAP authentication with a client is failing. Which two commands should be used to resolve the issue? (Choose two) A. debug dot1x notifications enable B. debug dot1x events enable C. debug arp D. debug aaa detail enable E. debug aaa events detail enable Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 16 Which channel width is the maximum that can be obtained by bonding two 802.11 ac subchannels according to US regulations? A. 160 MHz B. 120 MHz C. 84 MHz D. 240 MHz Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed. B. The AP successfully joined the controller. C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller. D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller. E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18 You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to access the standby unit? (Choose two.) A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface. B. Via Service Port Interface. C. Via SSH to the Management Interface. D. Via console connection. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19 Which ports require unrestricted port access for CleanAir RF spectrum analysis between the AP and Cisco Spectrum Expert? A. UDP 5246 and 5247 B. UDP 37540 and 37550 C. TCP 16113 and 16114 D. TCP 37540 and 37550 E. TCP 5246 and 5247 F. UDP 16113and 16114 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A recently acquired Cisco Aironet 1550 series AP is unable to join the WLC. This message is observed on the AP console: AAA Authentication Failure for UserName:CC93.1981.0035 User Type: WLAN USER Which action must be taken for the AP to associate with the controller? A. Add MAC address CC93.1981.0035 to the Security AAA AP policy Authorization List. B. Authenticate the AP to the WLC from the console using an admin account on the WLC. C. Add MAC address CC93.1981.035 to the Security AAA MAC Filtering tab. D. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:LSC tab. E. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:SSC tab. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client? A. siaddr B. ciaddr C. chaddr D. yiaddr E. giaddrCorrect Answer: C
QUESTION 22 Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout the building when browsing the Internet. Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences? A. low RSSI check B. 802.11r C. RX-SOP D. optimized roaming Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 A network engineer has identified clients who are experiencing delays white roaming. The network is configured with WPA2-Enterpnse. AES encryption, 802 1X authentication, and Cisco Centralized Key Management . Which change resolves the roaming delays? A. Utilize a supplicant that supports Cisco Centralized Key Management.” B. Enable AES and TKIP encryption C. Disable client session timeout D. Install wireless device drivers from Cisco Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 An engineer is deploying a wireless infrastructure and must use Layer 2 discovery for access point association. Which configuration meets this requirement? A. Configure the Access Points and WLC management interface on the same VLAN. B. Configure a DNS A RECORD to point to the controller. C. Configure option 43 on The APs DHCP scope. D. Configure the AP using a serial connection to indicate its controller. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 A wireless engineer is unable to join lightweight access points to the Cisco Wireless Controller. The access points receive ip addresses from a DHCP pool configured on the core switch. Which action must be taken to resolve the issue? A. Upgrade the Wireless Controller to a newer IOS release. B. Configure option 43 on the DHCP pool. C. Configure option 82 on the Wireless controller. D. Change the management ip address on the Wireless Controller. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 A mobile station in a factory contains an AP configured as a work group bridge that authenticates to a root AP using EAP-FAST. To be able to use the mobile station in further parts of the factory, another root AP is installed and also configured for EAP-FAST When the mobile station is attempting to roam to the other AP, it loses connection yet can still authenticate to the first one. What is the cause for the failed authentication on RAP2? Refer to the exhibit.
A. RAP1 is using a different authentication protocol than RAP2. B. RAP2 has a different SSID than RAP1. C. RAP1 is using a different encryption than RAP2. D. The authentication use name and password is different. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 In a cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type n und between the access point and the mass LAW controller? A. DTLS B. TIS C. STIS D. OpenSSL Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28 A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of discovery/join and DHCP process status? A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC B. debug capwap events – from the AP C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC D. debug ip udp – from the AP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Layer 3 WLAN controller mutual authentication join process events on the left into the order in which they occur on the right Not all options are used.
QUESTION 30 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all options are used.
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Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used
to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines
and Guarded Fabric.
Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in
Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure
servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).
Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA),
deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012. All servers run Windows Server 2016. You create a new bastion forest named admin.contoso.com. The forest functional level of admin.contoso.com is Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to implement a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Raise the forest functional level of admm.contoso.com. B. Deploy Microsoft Identify Management (MIM) 2016 to admin.contoso.com. C. Configure contoso.com to trust admin.contoso.com. D. Deploy Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) 2016 to contoso.com. E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com. F. Configure admin.contoso.com to trust contoso.com. Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 2 Note: Thb question Is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you willNOTbeabletorrturntoit.Asa result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network to meet the following requirements: *The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host *Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications. *The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application. Solution: You deploy one Windows container to host all of the applications. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 3 Your network contains two single-domain Active Directory forests named contoso.com and contosoadmin.com. Contosoadmin.com contains all of the user accounts used to manage the servers in contoso.com. You need to recommend a workstation solution that provides the highest level of protection from vulnerabilities and attacks. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Provide a Privileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each user account in both forests. Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain. B. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each user in the contoso.com forest Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain. C. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each administrator. Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain. D. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each administrator. Join each PAW to the contosoadmin.com domain. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 4 Note: This question b part of a series of questions that use the same or simitar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a shared folder named Share1. You need to ensure that all access to Share1 uses SMB Encryption. Which tool should you use? A. File Explorer B. Shared Folders C. Server Manager D. Disk Management E. Storage Explorer F. Computer Management G. System Configuration H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)> Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is port of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question In the series. Each question is Independent of the other questions In this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Vour network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and a Nano Server named Nano1. Nano1 has two volumes named C and D. You are signed in to Server1. You need to configure Data Deduplication on Nano1. Which tool should you use? A. File Explorer B. Shared Folders C. Server Manager D. Disk Management E. Storage Explorer F. Computer Management G. System Configuration H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 6 Note: Thts question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network. The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally. Computerl runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080. You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network. Solution: From Windows Firewall in the Control Panel, you add an application and allow the application to communicate through the firewall on a Private network. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 7 Windows Firewall rules can be configured using PowerShell. The “Set-NetFirewallProfile” cmdlet configures settings that apply to the per-profile configurations of the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. What is the default setting for the AllowInboundRules parameter when managing a GPO? A. FALSE B. NotConfigured Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The default setting when managing a computer is True. When managing a GPO, the default setting is NotConfigured. The NotConfigured value is only valid when configuring a Group Policy Object (GPO). This parameter removes the setting from the GPO, which results in the policy not changing the value on the computer when the policy is applied.
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You plan to create a pilot deployment of Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA). You need to install the ATA Center on Server1. What should you do first?A. Install Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM). B. Obtain an SSL certificate. C. Assign an additional IPv4 address. D. Remove Server1 from the domain. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that the marketing department computers validate DNS responses from adatum.com. Which setting should you configure in the Computer Configuration node of GP1? A. TCPIP Settings from Administrative Templates B. Connection Security Rule from Windows Settings C. DNS Client from Administrative Templates D. Name Resolution Policy from Windows Settings Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 10 Note: This question Is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It, As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-to-business applications to the network to meet the following requirements: *The resources of the applications must be isolated (rom the physical host. *Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications. *The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application. Solution: You deploy a separate Hyper-V container for each application. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 11 Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration. Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks. Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan? A. Start-MpWDOScan B. Start-MpScan C. Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $trueD. Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Some malicious software can be particularly difficult to remove from your PC. Windows Defender Offline (Start-MpWDOScan) can help to find and remove this using up- to-date threat definitions.
QUESTION 12 Vout network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2016. The domain contains a server named Serverl that has Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 installed. You export the baseline shown in the following exhibit.
You have a server named Server2 that is a member of a workgroup. You copy the (2617e9b1-9672-492b-aefa-0505054848c2) folder to Server2. You need to deploy the baseline settings to Server2. What should you do? A. Download, install, and then fun the Lgpo.exe command. B. From Group Policy Management import a Group Policy object (GPO). C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Restore-GPO cmdlet. D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Import-GPO cmdlet. E. From a command prompt run the secedit.exe command and specify the /import parameter. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1, and Server2. Solution: You add User1 to the Backup Operators group in contoso.com. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 14 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain. You install the ATA Center on server named Server1 and the ATA Gateway on a server named Served. You need to ensure that Server2 can collect NTLM authentication events. What should you configure? A. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 4776 to Server2 B. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 1000 to Server1C. Server2 to forward Event ID 1026 to Server1 D. Server1 to forward Event ID 1000 to Server2 Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 15 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that you can deploy a shielded virtual machine to Server4. Which server role should you deploy? A. Hyper-V B. Device Health Attestation C. Network Controller D. Host Guardian Service Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 16 Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains mulbple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network; to meet the following requirements: *The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host. *Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications. *The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application. Solution: You deploy a separate Windows container for each application. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 17 Note: This question b part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contow.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), link it to the Operations Users OU, and modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 18 Note: The question is part of a series of questions th?present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2,000 client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed from a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure them as PAWs. You deploy 10 additional computers and configure them by using the customized Windows image. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 19 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The services on Server1 are shown in the following output.
Rule1 and Rule2 are configured a$ shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20 You plan to deploy three encrypted virtual machines that use Secure Boot. The virtual machines will be configured as shown in the following table.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016 deployed. You implement Privileged Access Management (PAM). You need to request privileged access from a client computer in contoso.com by using PAM. How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22 Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts. Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016. Contoso.com trusts adatum.com. You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2. Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10.You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that you can implement the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) (or the finance department computers. What should you do in the contoso.com forest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains Server1. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1. A user named User1 is a member of group named Group1. The properties of User1 are shown in the User1 exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
From Auditing Entry for Global File SACL, you configure the advanced audit policy settings in GPO1 as shown in the SACL exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Secure that contains all servers. You install Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 on a server named Server1. You need to export the SCM Pnnt Server Secunty baseline and to deploy the baseline to a server named Server2. What should you do? To answer, select the appropnate options in the answer area.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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Who should take this exam? This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam.
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QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have a computer that has a dual-boot configuration. Windows 10 Enterprise is installed on the local disk. Windows 10 Pro is installed in a VHDX file named Disk1.vhdx. Both of the installations are 64-bit versions. You start the computer to Windows 10 Enterprise. You need to ensure that you can install an unsigned driver to Windows 10 Pro when the computer starts in Windows 10 Pro. What should you run? A. Add-WindowsImage B. bcdboot.exe C. bcdedit.exe D. bootcfg.exe E. bootim.exe F. bootsect.exe G. G. diskpart.exe H. Expand-WindowsImage Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.drivethelife.com/windows-drivers/how-to-disable-driver-signature-enforcement- on-windows-10-8-7-xp-vista.html#part3
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A user connects to a wireless network and receives the following message: “Do you want to allow your PC to be discoverable by other PCs and devices on this network?” The user clicks No. The user is unable to browse to the shared folders of other computers on the network by using File E explorer. You need to ensure that the user can browse to the other computers. What should you do? A. Click Turn on password protected sharing. B. Disable Network Discovery. C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule. D. Run theAdd-VpnConnectionTriggerApplicationcmdlet. E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the -Direction Outbound parameter. F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet. G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet. H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet. Correct Answer: G Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj899565(v=wps.630).aspx https://www.itechtics.com/change-network-type-windows-10/
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All computers are members of the domain and run the 64-bit version of Windows 10 Enterprise. On a test computer named Computer_Test1, you pin several company-specific applications in a group named Contoso Apps, and then you export the start menu layout to a file named contoso.xml. You install Client Hyper-V on a computer named Computer6. You identity the following requirements. •Install the Hyper V feature on a computer named Computer1. •Use virtual smart card authentication on a computer named Computer2. •Enable Secure Boot on a computer named Computer3. •Connect a computer named Computer4 to a projector by using Miracast. •Ensure that a user named User 1 can use keyboard shortcuts by pressing one key at a time. •Ensure that you can share the clipboard between Computer6 and the virtual machines running on Computer6. •Add the Contoso Apps group to the Start menu of a computer named Computer7. End of repeated scenario. Which hardware feature must Computer4 must support? A. a Wi-Fi adapter B. a Bluetooth adapter C. an HDMI port D. a MiniDisplayPort connectorCorrect Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-za/windows/windows-10-specifications#sysreqs
QUESTION 4 In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named Computer1 and Computer2. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2. User1 fails to access the Event Viewer logs on Computer2 from Computer1. User1 can connect to Computer2 remotely by using Computer Management. You need to ensure that User1 can use Event Viewer on Computer1 to remotely view the Event Viewer logs on Computer2. Solution: You run winrm quickconfig on Computer2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa384372(v=vs.85).aspx
QUESTION 5 You have a computer named Computer1 that has the following stored credentials: Which two passwords can be viewed in clear text from Credential Manager on Computer1? A. the web credential for accessing the HTTPS URL B. the Windows credential for accessing the shared folder C. the Windows credential for accessing the HTTP URL D. the Windows credential for accessing Remote Desktop E. the web credential for accessing the HTTP URL Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.digitalcitizen.life/credential-manager-where-windows-stores-passwords-other- login-details
QUESTION 6 You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer named Computer1. Computer1 has File History enabled. You create a folder named Folder1 in the root of the C: drive. You need to ensure that Folder1 is protected by File History. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. From File Explorer, include Folder1 in an existing library. B. Modify the Advanced settings from the FileHistory Control Panel item. C. From the Settings app, modify the Backup options. D. From File Explorer, modify the system attribute of Folder1. Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: By default, File History backs up all libraries. We can therefore ensure that Folder1 is protected by File History by adding the folder to a library. The second method of ensuring that Folder1 is protected by File History is to add the folder location to File History. You do this by modifying the Backup options, not the File History Control Panel item as you might expect. In the Settings app, select Update & Security then Backup. Under the Back up using File History heading, select the Add a drive option.
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named Computer1 and Computer2. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2. User1 fails to remotely manage the devices on Computer2 by using Device Manager on Computer1. User1 can connect to Computer2 remotely by using Computer Management. You need to ensure that User1 can disable a device on Computer2 remotely.Solution: You start the Plug and play and Remote Registry services on Computer2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://winintro.com/?Category=Windows_10_2016&Policy=Microsoft.Policies.DeviceInstalla tion%3A%3ADeviceManagement_RPCInterface_Allow
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have a computer named Computer1. Computer1 has a virtual hard disk (VHD) named Disk1.vhdx. Disk1.vhdx has an NTFS partition, which is visible in File Explorer as drive E. You need to apply a Windows 10 image to drive E. What should you run? A. Add-WindowsImage B. bcdboot.exe C. bcdedit.exe D. bootcfg.exe E. bootim.exe F. bootsect.exe G. diskpart.exe H. Expand-WindowsImage Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named adatum.com.The network contains five servers configured as shown in the following table:
All of the servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Test_Server has a shared folder named ShareA. Only local users have permissions to ShareA. The network contains a mainframe computer that is administered by using the Telnet protocol. The domain contains four client computers configured as shown in the following table:
All of the client computers run the 64-bit version of Windows. User3 frequently accesses ShareA. Remote Desktop is enabled on Computer4. Your company identifies the following requirements. •Ensure that you can test unsigned device drivers on Computer1 •Enable Credential Guard on Computer2. •Run commands and cmdlets remotely on computer2. •Configure User Account control (UAC) on Computer3 to prompt administrators for credentials when elevated privileges are required. •Ensure that User1 can view and interact with a desktop session of User3. •Ensure that User2 can use Telnet to manage the mainframe. •Ensure that User4 can use Remote Desktop to access Computer4 remotely. End of repeated scenario.You need to meet the Credential Guard requirement of Computer2. Which two Windows features should you install? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Windows Process Activation Service (WAS) B. Embedded BootExperience C. Isolated User Mode D. Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 E. Hyper-V Hypervisor Correct Answer: CE Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/windows/keep-secure/credential-guard
QUESTION 10 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has two volumes named C and D. Volume C is formatted NTFS and volume D is formatted exFAT. You need to ensure that you can recover files stored in D:\Data. What should you use? A. System Restore points B. File History C. wbadmin.exe D. Backup and Restore (Windows 7) Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.digitalcitizen.life/introducing-windows-8-how-backup-data-file-history
QUESTION 11 You have 10 computers that run Windows 10 Pro. The computers currently receive updates as part of the Current Branch. You need to configure the computers to receive updates as part of Current Branch for Business. What should you do? A. Select the Defer upgrades check box. B. Upgrade to Windows 10 Enterprise. C. Change the product key. D. Clear the Give me updates for other Microsoft products when I update check box. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://windowsitpro.com/windows-10/configure-machine-use-current-branch-business- windows-10
QUESTION 12 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to register Computer1 with Microsoft Intune. What should you do? A. From Accounts in the Settings app, click enroll in to device management. B. From acommand prompt, run the djoin command and specify the /psite pararmeter. C. From System in Control Panel, modify the domain membership. D. From Accounts in the Settings app, add a Microsoft account. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://henkhoogendoorn.blogspot.co.za/2016/04/enroll-in-to-device-management-in.html
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have a computer that has a dual-boot configuration. Windows 10 Pro is installed on the local disk. Windows 10 Enterprise is installed in a VHDX file named Disk1.vhdx. You start the computer to Windows 10 Pro, and then you download a driver package. You need to ensure that the next time the Windows 10 Enterprise installation starts, the driver is installed already. What should you run first? A. Add-WindowsImage B. bcdboot.exe C. bcdedit.exe D. bootcfg.exeE. bootim.exe F. bootsect.exe G. G. diskpart.exe H. Expand-WindowsImage Correct Answer: G Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd799267(v=ws.10).aspx#BKMK_addDrivers
QUESTION 14 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The network contains five servers configured as shown in the following table:
All of the servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Test_Server has a shared folder named ShareA. Only local users have permissions to ShareA. The network contains a mainframe computer that is administered by using the Telnet protocol. The domain contains four client computers configured as shown in the following table:
All of the client computers run the 64-bit version of Windows. User3 frequently accesses ShareA. Remote Desktop is enabled on Computer4. Your company identifies the following requirements. •Ensure that you can test unsigned device drivers on Computer1 •Enable Credential Guard on Computer2. •Run commands and cmdlets remotely on computer2. •Configure User Account control (UAC) on Computer3 to prompt administrators for credentials when elevated privileges are required. •Ensure that User1 can view and interact with a desktop session of User3. •Ensure that User2 can use Telnet to manage the mainframe. •Ensure that User4 can use Remote Desktop to access Computer4 remotely. End of repeated scenario. You need to configure Computer3 to meet the UAC requirement. What should you use? A. User Account Control Settings B. Credential Manager C. Security Options in the Computer Configuration of the Local Computer Policy. D. Security Settings in the User Computer of the Local Computer Policy. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.ghacks.net/2013/06/20/how-to-configure-windows-uac-prompt-behavior-for- admins-and-users/
QUESTION 15 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named Computer1 and Computer2. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2. User1 fails to remotely manage the devices on Computer2 by using Device Manager on Computer1.User1 can connect to Computer2 remotely by using Computer Management. You need to ensure that User1 can disable a device on Computer2 remotely. Solution: You enable Remote Desktop on Computer2, and you instruct User1 to use Remote Desktop. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc766438(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 16 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
All of the client computers run the 64-bit version of Windows. User3 frequently accesses ShareA. Remote Desktop is enabled on Computer4. Your company identifies the following requirements. •Ensure that you can test unsigned device drivers on Computer1 •Enable Credential Guard on Computer2. •Run commands and cmdlets remotely on computer2. •Configure User Account control (UAC) on Computer3 to prompt administrators for credentials when elevated privileges are required. •Ensure that User1 can view and interact with a desktop session of User3. •Ensure that User2 can use Telnet to manage the mainframe. •Ensure that User4 can use Remote Desktop to access Computer4 remotely. End of repeated scenario. You need to meet the requirement of Computer1. Which tool should you use on Computer1? A. BCD Edit B. Device Manager C. Bootcfg D. System Properties Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.drivethelife.com/windows-drivers/how-to-disable-driver-signature-enforcement- on-windows-10-8-7-xp-vista.html
QUESTION 17 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains devices that run Windows 10 Enterprise. You need to prevent computers from connecting to hosts on subnet 131.107.0.0/24. What should you do? A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.B. Disable Network Discovery. C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule. D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet. E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter. F. Run theNew-VpnConnection cmdlet. G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet. H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/networking/2010/12/06/disabling-network- discoverynetwork-resources/
QUESTION 18 You have a computer that runs the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional. You need to perform an in-place upgrade to Windows 10. Which two editions of Windows 10 can you upgrade the computer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. the 32-bit version of Windows 10 Pro B. the 64-bit version of Windows 10 Pro C. the 32-bit version of Windows 10 Enterprise D. the 64-bit version of Windows 10 Enterprise E. the 32-bit version of Windows 10 Home Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/software-download/windows10/
QUESTION 19 You have set up a new wireless network for one of your prestigious clients. The director wants to ensure that only certain designated wireless laptops can connect to the new network to prevent misuse. What do you need to do? A. Use MAC address control B. UseIPv4 address control C. Use WEP D. Use WPA Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.belkin.com/PYRAMID/AdvancedInfo/F5D7633uk4A/Interfaces/UI2/English/wirel ess_mac_ctrl.html\
QUESTION 20 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All computers are members of the domain and run the 64-bit version of Windows 10 Enterprise. On a test computer named Computer_Test1, you pin several company-specific applications in a group named Contoso Apps, and then you export the start menu layout to a file named contoso.xml. You install Client Hyper-V on a computer named Computer6. You identity the following requirements. •Install the Hyper V feature on a computer named Computer1. •Use virtual smart card authentication on a computer named Computer2. •Enable Secure Boot on a computer named Computer3. •Connect a computer named Computer4 to a projector by using Miracast. •Ensure that a user named User 1 can use keyboard shortcuts by pressing one key at a time. •Ensure that you can share the clipboard between Computer6 and the virtual machines running on Computer6. •Add the Contoso Apps group to the Start menu of a computer named Computer7. End of repeated scenario. You install all of the Contoso apps on Computer7. You need to meet the requirements of Computer7. What should you do? A. Run the Import-StartLayout cmdlet. B. Copy Contoso.xml to the C:\Users\Default\Start menu folder. C. Configure the Start Menu and Taskbar settings in a Group Policy. D. Copy Contoso. xml to the C:\ProgramData\Microsoft\Windows\Start Menu folder. Correct Answer: AExplanation Explanation/Reference: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/deploymentguys/2016/03/07/windows-10-start-layout- customization/#Exporting
QUESTION 21 Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named Computer1. You have five users configured as shown in the following table:
Which two users can add a Microsoft account to their Windows account, and then sign in to Cumputer1 by using the Microsoft account? A. User1 B. User2 C. User3 D. User4 E. User5 Correct Answer: DE Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://blog.thefullcircle.com/2015/07/win10-ad-and-microsoft-account-synchronisation/
QUESTION 22 Your networks contain a single Active Directory domain. On a domain controller, an administrator creates a custom Microsoft Management Console (MMC) that uses the Active Directory Users and Computer snap-in. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You use the computer to perform management tasks. You copy the custom MMC to the computer. You need to ensure that you can use MMC and all of the features of the MMC. What should you do on Computer1? A. Enable the Sideload apps developer feature. B. Install the Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT). C. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT). D. Disable User Account Control (UAC). Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://blogs.msmvps.com/acefekay/2012/08/24/delegate-active-directory-users-and- computers-aduc-then-create-a-custom-aduc-mmc/
QUESTION 23 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have 10 computers that run Windows 10 Pro. The computers are in a workgroup. A computer named PC_User1 has shared folder named Share1. Users are not prompted for credentials when they access Share1. You modify the permissions on Share1 so that the share is shared only to a user named User1. You need to ensure that when users from other computers in the workgroup access Share1, they must authenticate by using the credentials of User1. What should you do? A. Click Turn on password protected sharing. B. Disable Network Discovery. C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule. D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet. E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter. F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet. G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet. H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.isunshare.com/windows-10/turn-off-or-on-password-protected-sharing-in- windows-10.html
QUESTION 24 Note: This question is part of a series of a questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.You have a computer named Computer1 that has storage configured as shown in the following table.
Pool1 contains a storage space named Space1 that is 300 GB. Pool3 contains a storage space named Space2 that is 100 GB. Pool2 is empty. You need to configure Space3 to be 200 GB. What should you use? A. Add-PhysicalDisk B. Diskpart C. New-VirtualDisk D. Remove-PhysicalDisk E. Resize-VirtualDisk F. Set-StoragePool G. Subst Update-Disk H. Update-Disk Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 25 You have five computers that run Windows 8. You need to perform an upgrade installation of Windows 10 on the computers. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Apply an image of Windows 10 by running imagex.exe. B. Start the computers from Windows PE, and then run setup.exe from a network share that contains the Windows 10 installation source files. C. While signed in to Windows 8, run setup.exe from a network share that contains the Windows 10 installation source files. D. Start the computers from a bootable USB drive that contains the Windows 10 source files. E. Apply updates by using Windows Update. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.laptopmag.com/articles/how-to-upgrade-windows-10
QUESTION 26 In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. File History is turned on. The user of Computer1 reports that previous versions of D:\Folder\File1.doc are unavailable from the Previous Versions tab. You need to ensure that the previous versions of the file are created. Solution: Modify the Backup settings in the Settings app. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.pcworld.com/article/2974385/windows/how-to-use-windows-10s-file-history- backup-feature.html
QUESTION 27 IPv6 has a vastly larger address space than IPv4. This expansion provides flexibility in allocating addresses and routing traffic and eliminates the primary need for network address translation (NAT).Do you know how many more bits there are in an IPv4 address compared to an IPv6 address? A. 4 times more B. 6 times more C. Twice as many D. 8 times more Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://techlog360.com/ipv4-vs-ipv6/
QUESTION 28 Your network contains a single Active Directory domain that has a Key Management Service (KMS) host. You deploy Windows 10 to several laptops. You need to ensure that Windows 10 is activated on the laptops immediately. Which command should you run? A. ospp.vbs/act B. slmgr.vbs/dli C. slmgr.vbs/ato D. ospp.vbs/dstatus Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn502540(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 29 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains a VPN server that supports all of the VPN protocols. A user named User1 works from home and has a desktop computer that runs Windows 10 Pro. User1 has an application named App1 that requires access to a server on the corporate network. User1 creates a VPN connection on the computer. You need to ensure that when User1 opens App1, App1 can access the required data. What should you do? A. Click Turn on password protected sharing. B. Disable Network Discovery. C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule. D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet. E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter. F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet. G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet. H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn296460(v=wps.630).aspx
QUESTION 30 You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Device Manager on Computer1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can use Communications Port (COM1). What should you do? A. Update the driver for Communications Port (COM1). B. Attach a device to Communications Port (COM1), and then click Scan for hardware changes. C. Enable Communications Port (COM1). D. Modify the IRQ and the I/O Range for Communications Port (COM1). Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/819036/overview-of-the-comdisable-tool
QUESTION 31 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains a VPN server that supports all of the VPN protocols. From a computer that runs Windows 10 Pro, a user named User1 creates an SSTP VPN connection to a network named VPN1. User1 successfully connects to the VPN server. When User1 roams between different Wi- Fi access points, the user loses the connection to the corporate network and must manually re-establish the VPN connection. You need to ensure that VPN1 automatically maintains the connection while the user roams between Wi-Fi access points. What should you do? A. Click Turn on password protected sharing. B. Disable Network Discovery. C. Modify the Profile settings of an incomingfirewall rule. D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet. E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter. F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet. G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet. H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn296460(v=wps.630).aspx
QUESTION 32 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named adatum.com.The network contains five servers configured as shown in the following table:
All of the client computers run the 64-bit version of Windows. User3 frequently accesses ShareA. Remote Desktop is enabled on Computer4. Your company identifies the following requirements. •Ensure that you can test unsigned device drivers on Computer1 •Enable Credential Guard on Computer2. •Run commands and cmdlets remotely on computer2. •Configure User Account control (UAC) on Computer3 to prompt administrators for credentials when elevated privileges are required. •Ensure that User1 can view and interact with a desktop session of User3. •Ensure that User2 can use Telnet to manage the mainframe. •Ensure that User4 can use Remote Desktop to access Computer4 remotely. End of repeated scenario. On Test_Server, you reset the password for User3. You need to ensure that User3 can access ShareA. Which tool should you instruct User3 to use on Computer3? A. the Get-Credential cmdlet B. Credential Manager C. Authorization Manager D. Active Directory Users and Computers Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.digitalcitizen.life/credential-manager-where-windows-stores-passwords-other- login-details
QUESTION 33 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have a computer named Computer1. Computer1 has a virtual hard disk (VHD) named Disk1.vhcix. Windows is installed on Disk1.vhdx.disk1.vhdx is visible in File Explorer as drive E. You need to configure Computer1 to start from VHDX. Hardware virtualization must not be available when Computer1 starts from VHDX. What should you run? A. Add-Windows Image B. bcdboot.exe C. bcdedit.exe D. bootcfg.exe E. bootim.exe F. bootsect.exe G. diskpart.exe H. Expand-Windows Image Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en- us/windows/hardware/commercialize/manufacture/desktop/boot-to-vhd–native-boot–add-a- virtual-hard-disk-to-the-boot-menu
QUESTION 34 You administer a group of 10 client computers that run Windows 10. The client computers are members of a local workgroup. Employees log on to the client computers by using their Microsoft accounts.The company plans to use Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption. You need to back up the BitLocker recovery key. Which two options can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.) A. Save the recovery key to a file on the BitLocker-encrypted drive. B. Save the recovery key in the Credential Store. C. Save the recovery key to OneDrive. D. Print the recovery key. Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference: C: The Bitlocker recovery key is saved in your OneDrive account in the cloud. D: The recovery key can be printed.
QUESTION 35 You are using sysprep to prepare a system for imaging. You want to reset the security ID (SID) and clear the event logs. Which option should you use? A. /generalize B. /oobe C. /audit D. /unattend Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Generalize prepares the Windows installation to be imaged. If this option is specified, all unique system information is removed from the Windows installation. The security ID (SID) resets, any system restore points are cleared, and event logs are deleted. The next time the computer starts, the specialize configuration pass runs. A new security ID (SID)is created, and the clock for Windows activation resets, if the clock has not already been reset three times.
QUESTION 36 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All computers are members of the domain and run the 64-bit version of Windows 10 Enterprise. On a test computer named Computer_Test1, you pin several company-specific applications in a group named Contoso Apps, and then you export the start menu layout to a file named contoso.xml. You install Client Hyper-V on a computer named Computer6. You identity the following requirements. •Install the Hyper V feature on a computer named Computer1. •Use virtual smart card authentication on a computer named Computer2. •Enable Secure Boot on a computer named Computer3. •Connect a computer named Computer4 to a projector by using Miracast. •Ensure that a user named User 1 can use keyboard shortcuts by pressing one key at a time. •Ensure that you can share the clipboard between Computer6 and the virtual machines running on Computer6. •Add the Contoso Apps group to the Start menu of a computer named Computer7. End of repeated scenario. Which hardware feature must Computer2 support? A. a smart card reader B. Second Level Address Translation (SLAT) C. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) D. Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askds/2016/05/11/setting-up-virtual-smart-card-logon- using-virtual-tpm-for-windows-10-hyper-v-vm-guests/
QUESTION 37 You administer a Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The computer has File History turned on, and system protection turned on for drive C. You accidentally delete a folder named Libraries\Customers by using the Shift+Delete keyboard shortcut. You need to restore the most recent version of the folder to its original location. Which approach should you use to restore the folder? A. Recycle Bin B. the latest restore point C. File History D. a manually selected restore pointCorrect Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: File History is similar to Previous Versions in previous versions of Windows. It takes regular backups of your data and saves them to a separate disk volume or external drive. When File History is enabled, it backs up all the system libraries and your custom libraries by default. To restore a deleted folder, you can browse to the parent folder or library and select Restore Previous Versions. The Previous Versions tab will list the previous versions that can be restored to its original location or restored to an alternative location.
QUESTION 38 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have a computer named Computer1. Computer1 has a virtual hard disk (VHD) named Disk1.vhdx. Disk1.vhdx has an NTFS partition, which is visible in File Explorer as drive E. You need to provision Windows 10 on Disk1.vhdx. What should you run? A. Add-WindowsImage B. bcdboot.exe C. bcdedit.exe D. bootcfg.exe E. bootim.exe F. bootsect.exe G. G. diskpart.exe H. Expand-WindowsImage Correct Answer: G Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://bcrawfordjr.wordpress.com/2014/10/05/install-windows-10-tech-preview-in-a- bootable-vhd/
QUESTION 39 You have a computer named Computer1. You obtain a new driver for a device installed on Computer1. The driver package is stored in C:\Drivers and includes the following files: You need to install the driver on Computer1 by using File Explorer. Which file should you use to initiate the installation? A. Driver.sys B. Driver.dll C. Driver.cat D. Driver.inf Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://lifehacker.com/269063/install-a-dll-file-in-windows
QUESTION 40 Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains a computer that runs Windows 10. You plan to use the computer to test applications. You need to install Windows Insider Preview builds on the computer. What should you do? A. From Group Policy, configure the Add features to Windows 10 settings. B. From theSettings app, configure the Advanced options for Windows Update. C. From Group Policy, configure the Windows Update settings. D. From the Settings app, select Developer mode. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.howtogeek.com/224826/how-to-become-a-windows-insider-and-test-new- windows-10-features/
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QUESTION 1 You plan to deploy a customized Windows To Go workspace that uses an Unattend.xml file. You need to prevent a local fixed disk from appearing in File Explorer when a computer starts from Windows To Go. Which setting should you modify in Unattend.xml? A. Start Menu B. Storage C. Deviceaccess D. SanPolicy Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj592680(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details in a question apply only to that question. You have a mobile device that connects to a 4G network and a laptop. You work from a remote location that does not have Internet access. You plan to use the mobile device as a mobile hotspot for the laptop, so that you can access files from the corporate office. Which Control Panel application should you use on the laptop to connect to the mobile hotspot? A. Phone and Modem B. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections C. System D. Credential Manager E. Work Folders F. Power Options G. Sync Center H. Network and Sharing Center Correct Answer: H Explanation
QUESTION 3 You are configuring two Windows 10 Enterprise client computers: A desktop computer named COMPUTER1 and a portable computer named COMPUTER2. You have the following requirements: You need to configure the computers to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. From COMPUER2, connect to COMPUTER1 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline. B. From COMPUTER1, connect to COMPUTER2 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline. C. In Sync Center, configure a schedule for offline files. D. From COMPUTER2, map a network drive to the Data folder onCOMPUTER1. E. In Sync Center, set up a new sync partnership. Correct Answer: CE Explanation
QUESTION 4 You are an IT professional for a bank. All of the user’s files on the external drives are encrypted by using EFS. You replace a user’s computer with a new Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The user needs to connect her external hard drive to the new computer. You have the original computer’s certificate and key. You need to import the certificate and key onto the new computer. Into which certificate store should you import the certificate and key? A. Untrusted Certificates B. Trusted Root Certification Authorities C. Personal D. Trusted Publishers Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 5 You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers in a workgroup. You have configured a local AppLocker policy to prevent users from running versions of app.exe previous to v9.4. Users are still able to run app.exe. You need to block users from running app.exe by using the minimum administrative effort. What should you do? A. Change the Application Identity service startup mode to automatic and start the service. B. Configure enforcement for Windows Installed rules. C. Configure a Software Restriction Policy publisher rule. D. Run the GPupdate /force command in a relevant command prompt. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee791779(v=ws.10).aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/windows/keep-secure/configure-the-application- identity-service
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All users have email addresses in the @adatum.com domain. You need to ensure that users can register Windows 10 mobile devices for mobile device management (MDM). Which DNS record should you create? A. Enterpriseregistration.adatum.com B. Deviceregistration.adatum.com C. Deviceregistration.contoso.com D. Enterpriseregistration.contoso.com Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/dn771709.aspx
QUESTION 7 You have a Microsoft Intune subscription. You need to uninstall the Intune agent from a computer. What should you do? A. From the Groups node in the Microsoft Intune administration portal, click Delete. B. From the computer, run the provisioningutil.exe command. C. From the computer, run the cltui.exe command. D. From the computer, use Programs and Features in Control Panel.Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer A is close but incorrect. You would need to select Retire/Wipe, not Delete. References: https://www.petervanderwoude.nl/post/uninstall-the-microsoft-intune-client/
QUESTION 8 You have 100 Windows computers that are managed by using Microsoft Intune. You need to ensure that when a new critical update is released, the update is approved automatically and deployed to the computers within 24 hours of approval. What should you do from the Microsoft Intune administration portal? A. From the updates node, select Critical Updates, and then modify the Approval settings. B. From the Admin node, click Enrollment Rules, and then modify the device enrollment rules. C. From the Policy node, click Configuration Policies, and then create a new Windows policy. D. From the Policy node, click Compliance Policies, and then create a new compliance policy. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/deploy-use/keep-windows-pcs-up-to- date-with-software-updates-in-microsoft-intune
QUESTION 9 You administer Windows 10 Enterprise tablets that are members of an Active Directory domain. Your company policy allows users to download and install only certain few Windows Store apps. You have created a new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy to help enforce the company policy. You need to test the new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy before you implement it for the entire company. What should you do? A. Open PowerShell and run the Get–AppLockerPolicy –Effective cmdlet to retrieve the AppLocker effective policy. B. Open Group Policy Management console and enforce the new AppLocker policy in Audit Only mode. C. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Modeling Wizard. D. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Results Wizard. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831440(v=ws.11).aspx https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/device-security/applocker/determine-your- application-control-objectives
QUESTION 10 A company has Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. A client computer named COMPUTER1 has a shared folder named Folder1 located in the user’s Downloads folder. Folder1 is shared only with employees in the Marketing department. All Marketing employees can connect to Folder1 from their client computers. A Marketing employee is unable to connect to Folder1 from a legacy device that is not compatible with the Windows 10 Enterprise default sharing settings. The device is able to connect to resources on other client computers. You need to configure COMPUTER1 to allow the device to connect to Folder1. Which setting should you enable? A. Enable file sharing for devices that use 40- or 56-bit encryption B. Turn off password protected sharing C. Use 128-bit encryption to help protect file sharing connections D. Turn off network discovery E. Turn on sharing so anyone with network access can read and write files in the Public folders. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: http://www.tenforums.com/tutorials/51024-file-sharing-encryption-level- change-windows-10-a.html
QUESTION 11 A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. Corporate police prohibits homegroups on the corporate network. You need to ensure that client computer network adapter settings do not support joining a homegroup. What should you do? A. Disable IPv6. B. Disable IPv4. C. Enable IPv6. D. Enable IPv4. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://h30434.www3.hp.com/t5/Notebook-Wireless-and-Networking/Windows-10-can-t-set- up-a-homegroup-on-this-computer/td-p/5581558
QUESTION 12 You have a laptop that has connections for three WiFi network named WiFi1, WiFi2, and WiFi 3. You need to ensure that the laptop connects to WiFi1 when multiple WiFi1 networks are available. What should you do? A. From Netsh, configure the WLAN context. B. From Network Connections in Control Panel, modify the bindings for the WiFi. C. From the Windows Settings app, configure the Wi-Fi Sense settings. D. From Network Connections in Control Panel, modify the network provider order. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: http://www.quepublishing.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2455390&seqNum=3
QUESTION 13 You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You install a second hard disk drive on the computer and you create a new volume named E. You need to enable system protection for volume E. What should you use? A. the Wbadmin command B. the Settings app C. System Properties D. the Set-Volume cmdlet Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14 You have an unsecured wireless network for users to connect to from their personal Windows 10 devices. You need to prevent Wi-Fi Sense from sharing information about the unsecured wireless network. What should you do? A. Configure the SSID of the unsecured wireless to contain _optout. B. Instruct the users to disable Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv6) on their wireless network adapters.C. Configure the SSID of the guest wireless to be hidden. D. Instruct the users to turn off Network Discovery on their devices. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: http://www.pcworld.com/article/2951824/windows/how-to-disable-windows- 10s-wi-fi-sense-password-sharing.html
QUESTION 15 You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You have an application control policy on the computer. You discover that the policy is not enforced on the computer. You open the Services snap-in as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to enforce the application control policy on the computer. What should you do? A. Set the Application Identity service Startup Type to Automatic and start the service. B. Set the Application Information service Startup Type to Automatic and start the service. C. Set the Application Management service Startup Type to Automatic and start the service. D. Set the Application Experience service Startup Type to Automatic and start the service. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: AppLocker, and its applications control policies, relies upon the Application Identity Service being active. Note: When you install Windows 7, the startup type of the Application Identity Service is set to Manual. When testing AppLocker, you should keep the startup type as Manual in case you configure rules incorrectly. In that event, you can just reboot the computer and the AppLocker rules will no longer be in effect. Only when you are sure that your policies are applied correctly should you set the startup type of the Application Identity Service to Automatic.
QUESTION 16 You have a laptop that is a member of a workgroup. The laptop does not have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip. You plan to enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) for the operating system drive. What are two methods that you can use to unlock the drive when the laptop restarts? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. a password B. a Near Field Communication (NFC)-enabled portable device C. a USB drive D. a user account E. Network Unlock Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/6229/how-to-use-bitlocker-on-drives- without-tpm/
QUESTION 17 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an application named App1 installed on a computer named Computer1. Computer1 runs Windows 10. App1 saves data to %UserProfile%\App1\Data. You need to ensure that you can recover the App1 data if Computer1 fails. What should you configure? A. share permissions B. application control policies C. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings D. NTFS permissions E. HomeGroup settings F. Microsoft OneDrive G. software restriction policies H. account policies Correct Answer: F Explanation
QUESTION 18 You administer computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise in an Active Directory domain in a single Active Directory Site. All user account objects in Active Directory have the Manager attribute populated. The company has purchased a subscription to Windows Intune. The domain security groups are synchronized with the Microsoft Online directory. You create a Windows Intune group that specifies a manager as a membership criterion. You notice that the group has no members. You need to ensure that users that meet the membership criteria are added to the Windows Intune group. What should you do? A. Force Active Directory replication within the domain. B. Ensure that all user accounts are identified as synchronized users. C. Ensure that the user who is performing the search has been synchronized with the Microsoft Online directory. D. Synchronize the Active Directory Domain Service (AD DS) with the Microsoft Online directory. Correct Answer: BExplanation Explanation/Reference: For users and security groups to appear in the Windows Intune administrator console, you must sign in to the Windows Intune account portal and do one of the following: Manually add users or security groups, or both, to the account portal. Use Active Directory synchronization to populate the account portal with synchronized users and security groups. The Windows Intune cloud service enables you to centrally manage and secure PCs through a single web-based console so you can keep your computers, IT staff, and users operating at peak performance from virtually anywhere without compromising the essentials: cost, control, security, and compliance. References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/intune.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/library/hh441723.aspx
QUESTION 19 A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and joined to the domain. You have the following requirements: You need to configure Group Policy settings to meet the requirements. What should you do first? A. Enable the Enable file synchronization on costed networks policy setting. B. Enable the Synchronize all offline files when logging on policy settings. C. Enable and configure the Configure slow-link mode policy setting. D. Enable and configure the Specify administratively assigned Offline Files policy setting. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh968298.aspx
QUESTION 20 You administer computers that run Windows XP Professional. These computers have a wide range of line of business (LOB) applications installed. You want to migrate from Windows XP Professional to Windows 10 Enterprise. You need to identify which application will prompt users for elevated privileges. What should you do first? A. Configure the advanced audit setting on the Windows 10 Enterprise computers before you install the LOB applications. B. Install the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit. C. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT). D. Install User Experience Virtualization (UE-V) on the Windows 10 Enterprise computers before you install the LOB applications. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee449434(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 21 DRAG DROP Your network contains an Active Directory domain and 100 Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. All software is deployed by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0. Users are NOT configured as local administrators. Your company purchases a subscription to Microsoft Office 365 that includes Office 365 ProPlus. You need to create an App-V package for Office 365 ProPlus. Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22 HOTSPOT You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and that is a Remote Desktop server. The RD Web Access Web application settings are shown in the following graphic.
se the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. Note: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23 HOTSPOT You have an Active Directory domain. All of the client computers in the domain run Windows 10 Enterprise. You need to configure the client computers to download updates from a Windows Server Update Service server. Which two settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24 HOTSPOT You plan to deploy a Microsoft Azure RemoteApp hybrid collection. You plan to use a custom template image named Image1 to deploy the hybrid collection. You need to identify the role and feature that must be enabled in the image to support the deployment of the hybrid collection. What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25 HOTSPOT You provide support for a small company. The company purchases a Windows 10 laptop for an employee who travels often. The company wants to use BitLocker to secure the hard drive for the laptop in case it is lost or stolen. While attempting to enable BitLocker, you receive the error message shown in the following image:
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26 HOTSPOT You run the Get-AppvClientConfiguration cmdlet and you receive the following output.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the output.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27 DRAG DROP You have a computer named Client1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise. Client1 is a member of an Active Directory domain. A domain administrator provisions a certificate template for a virtual smart card logon. In the BIOS of Client1, you enable the Trusted Platform Module (TPM). You need to enable the virtual smartcard logon on Client1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28 HOTSPOT Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The Default Domain Policy contains the AppLocker settings configured as shown in the AppLocker Settings exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The Default Domain Policy contains the AppLocker properties configured as shown in the AppLocker properties exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29 DRAG DROP Ten client computers run Windows 7 and a custom application. The custom application is compatible with Windows 10 Enterprise. You purchase 10 new computers that have Windows 10 Enterprise pre-installed. You plan to migrate user settings and data from the Windows 7 computers to the Windows 10 Enterprise computers. You add the User State Migration Toolkit (USMT) on a USB flash drive. You need to ensure that the custom application settings are applied to the Windows 10 Enterprise computers after the migration is complete. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30 DRAG DROP You administer Windows 7 and Windows 10 Enterprise computers. You run an application that saves files that contain local settings unique to each user. You want to allow users to synchronize settings for an application to any enterprise computer when they log on to the enterprise computer. You need to implement a solution that will move a user’s settings files to any computer. You also need to ensure that you can roll back the changes if necessary. Which required task or tasks should you perform with each approach? To answer, drag the appropriate required task to the corresponding approach. Each required task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31 DRAG DROP As part of its upgrade to Windows 10 Enterprise, your company is implementing additional security controls relating to data access. You need to implement a solution that meets the following requirements: Which feature should you use to meet each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate feature or features to the correct requirement or requirements. Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32 HOTSPOT You are the PC support specialist for Contoso, Ltd. Your department upgrades your company’s laptops to Windows 10 Enterprise. You need to use BitLocker to encrypt the system drives on these laptops. You attempt to encrypt several laptops but receive an error message shown in the following image:
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Note: Each correct selection is worth one point
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33 DRAG DROP You are the system administrator for your company. You deploy new Windows 10 Enterprise computers to replace the company’s Windows Vista and Windows 7 computers. Users report that the new Windows 10 Enterprise computers display error messages when the users run the company’s custom financial applications. In addition, many features do not function properly.You need to set up Remote Desktop Services on a Windows Server 2012 R2 server to provide Windows 7 VM-hosted RemoteApp programs. All prerequisite roles and features are installed on the server. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34 DRAG DROP You administer Windows 10 Enterprise computers. Users in the accounting department ask you to configure a recovery solution for Microsoft Word and Excel files. You need to ensure that users can restore Microsoft Word and Excel files to previous versions for up to 30 days. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35 DRAG DROP You plan to use Microsoft Intune to manage application updates for non-Microsoft applications. You create a new Intune subscription. You need to test the deployment of the updates on a computer. The solution must ensure that the updates are deployed only if the test computer has the corresponding application installed already. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36 HOTSPOT You administer Windows 10 Enterprise client computers in your company network. The computers belong to an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and have Windows Firewall enabled. All of the computers are connected to the Internet. You ping one of the desktops, which has an IP Address of 10.4.4.4, but you receive the message “Request timed out”. You need to configure the desktop to reply to ping request from other devices on the company network. From the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security window, which inbound rule should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate inbound rule in the answer area,
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37 DRAG DROP You support Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. Company policy requires that Microsoft Outlook 2010 be the only mail client allowed and supported. You collect software metering data and discover that several users are running other thirdparty mail clients. You need to block the third-party mail client from running on the computers. All other applications should be allowed. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38 DRAG DROP You support Windows 10 Enterprise laptops. You need to configure the laptops to support offline file access. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39 DRAG DROP You administer Windows 7 and Windows 8 client computers in your company network. You add 100 new client computers that have Windows 10 Enterprise installed. You need to migrate user profiles, local groups membership, and network mapped drives to the new client computers. You download and copy User State Migration Tool (USMT) files to a network share. Which three actions should you perform next, in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40 DRAG DROP You are a desktop support technician for your company. You support more than 100 Windows 8 and Windows 10 Enterprise desktop computers. You are preparing an installation image of a Windows 10 Enterprise computer by using the Deployment and Imaging Tools Environment command prompt on your own computer. The image includes a customized instance of the Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE). You need to extract and mount the Windows RE image. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 1
Which HPE StoreVirtual features enable substantially increased effciency? (Select two.)
A. space reclamation
B. iSCSI storage clustering
C. storage federation
D. reservation-less thin provisioning
E. network RAID
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Which functions are provided by server-based storage virtualization? (Select two.)
A. Host path failover
B. Volume sharing among multiple servers
C. Performance load balancing of SAN connections
D. Intelligent LUN expansion and reducti n
E. Thin provisioning
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
You are using HPE Library and Tape Tools to document serial number and firmware versions of your customers tape
infrastructure. What do you use to perform this?
A. diagnostics option
B. device into option
C. support ticket option
D. failure analysis option
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A customer is opening a new remote office They have servers containing internal storage that they plan to virtualize
They currently own existing HPE Data Protector licenses Which data protection solution would be ideal for them?
A. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
B. HPE StoreEasy 1000 C. HPE StoreOnce VSA
D. HPE StoreEver LTO-7
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which RAID level uses double parity Advanced Data Guarding?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which element of HPE\’s BURA storage portfolio provides deduplicated backup disk storage?
A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
B. HPE StoreEver
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE Store All
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What does the HPE StoreVirtual solution provide?
A. scale-out storage
B. SAN. NAS and object storage
C. file level storage
D. scale-up storage
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which service is used in a NAS environment, but not a SAN environment?
A. block access services
B. direct access services
C. object access services D. file access services
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which HPE 3PAR StoreServ virtualization technology provides DHAM cache extension to reduce application response ti
for read intensive I/O workloads?
A. Priority Optimization
B. Adaptive Flash Cache
C. Persistent Cache
D. Rapid Provisioning
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology supports automatic path rerouting it all ISLs between two switches fail?
A. Flat SAN
B. single cote-edge
C. cascade
D. mesh
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A customer has a number of server blades in a BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure and an HP D2220sb Storage Blade, and
wants to implement a small test and development iSCSI SAN. What can provide this functionality?
A. Windows Storage Server
B. VMware ESXi
C. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
D. HPE StoreOnce VSA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Under the HPE Converged Storage strategy, which type of primary storage is provided through NAS solutions?
A. sequential
B. object
C. block D. file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which component performs the iSCSI encapsulation process in an iSCSI SAN environment when not using a TCP/IP
Offload Engine (TOE) card?
A. network switch
B. softwareinitiator
C. network interface card
D. GBIC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which statement is true about thin provisioning?
A. It stores frequently accessed files in a local cache to reduce the consumed storage space.
B. It allows allocation of physical storage resources only after they are consumed by an application.
C. It removes allocated. Out unused space with minimal performance impact.
D. It uses a real-ti I/O engine to intelligently position data on the most appropriate tier of storage.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which operating systems support space reclamation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2012
B. Microsoft Windows 2003 SP2
C. VMware vSphere (ESXi) 5.x
D. Ubuntu 12 x
E. SLES 9 x
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 16
Which benefits are enabled by using the HPE StoreVirtual DSM for Microsoft MPIO? {Select two.)
A. synchronous streaming replication between HPE StoreVirtual nodes
B. automatic creation of an I/O pain to each storage system in the cluster on which the volume resides C. Network RAID 10 use between multi-site clusters tor Windows servers
D. improved architecture over native MPIO solutions
E. enhanced backup capabilites of HPE StoreVirtual nodes
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 17
Your customer is considering moving their storage from HPE ProLiant Servers with direct attached HPE D3700 storage
shelves, to HPE StoreVirtual VSA, You
want to demonstrate the management console to the customer.
Which console should you use?
A. CMC
B. SMU
C. SSMC
D. IMC
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Your customer requested a Network Attached Storage (NAS) solution that allows Microsoft Windows users to continue
working uninterrupted during hardware failures Which HPEStore Easy functionality supports transparent failover?
A. SMB V3
B. InstantOn
C. Data Guarding
D. Peer Motion
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which HPE primary production storage solution is targeted to the small and mid-sized business markets?
A. HPE StoreVirtual
B. HPE StoreAll
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE StoreEver
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
What are benefits of using the NinjaProtected Tool? (Select two.)
A. identifies the agents that the solution needs
B. identifies potential deduplication-driven benefits
C. measures the performance of transactions
D. assists in finding opportunities for cost reductions
E. simplifies the number of licenses required
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
What are hardware components of a Fibre Channel SAN fabric implementation? (Select two.)
A. server
B. enclosure
C. SFP+ transceivers
D. host bus adapter
E. array controller
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 22
A customer has the following requirements for a new storage solution for the company\’s 4-node HPE ProLiant DL380
Gen9 SQL Cluster: ?fully redundant SAS connectivity ?dual controller architecture ?mixed drive support ?4 pons per
controller ?SSD drive support Which storage solution meets the customer requirements?
A. HPE 3PAR 8200
B. HPE MSA 2040
C. HPE MSA 1040
D. HPE D3700
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
What is the term for the maximum allowable period for a business to be without a specific application should a disaster
occur?
A. Service Level Objective
B. Service Level Agreement
C. Recovery Point Objective D. Recovery Time Objective
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
A customer is experiencing rapid data growth and requires more backup data to be available online. Which technology
could benefit the customer?
A. deduplication
B. wide striping
C. snapshots
D. tiering
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which software is used to assign or zone D6000 drive bays directly to an HPE BladeSystem server bay?
A. Virtual SAS Manager (VSM)
B. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
C. Onboard Administrator (OA)
D. Array configuration utility (ACU)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which networking transport protocol is used in a NAS environment?
A. TCP
B. FCIP
C. Ethernet
D. Token Ring
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which HPE management tool provides a single integrated management environment with powerful search capabilities
and an open architecture?
A. HPE Insight Remote Support
B. HPE Systems Insight Manager
C. HPE OneView D. HPE SUM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which benefit does dual-domain offer over dual-path SAS?
A. Dual-path SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HIBA) failure.
B. Dual-domain SAS implementations provide some lower cost solutions that cover cable failure.
C. Dual-path SAS implementations provide full redundancy of a SAS solution.
D. Dual-domain SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HBA) failure.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
A large SMB customer requests a storage solution in which downtime is not an option. What is the requirement?
A. RPO must be zero.
B. RPO must be very low.
C. RTO must be very low.
D. RTO must be zero.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which device typically has a SCSi ID of?
A. Narrow SCSi tape
B. SCSi host adapter
C. Bootable Hard Drive
D. First device
Correct Answer: B
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Exam B
QUESTION 1
How does HPE Converged Storage simplify management?
A. It eliminates configuration through the use of auto-discovery.
B. It incorporates business needs into the design.
C. It provides a common CL1 translator for all HPE Storage families.
D. It provides a single pane of glass for all HPE Storage products.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which HPE StoreVirtual feature can be used to reduce the effort required to migrate from existing HPE StoreVirtual nodes?
A. Adaptive Optimization
B. Remote Copy
C. Peer Motion
D. Dynamic Optimization
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which storage technology allows a customer to provision a group of servers with 10 TB of storage from only 5 TB of actual physical storage?
A. space reclamation
B. thin provisioning
C. thick provisioning
D. full provisioning
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
How does storage clustering provide virtualization in an HPE StoreVirtual environment?
A. recreates storage pools on multiple devices
B. enables access through multiple protocols
C. eliminates the need for storage controllers
D. aggregates resources and capacity into a single storage pool
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Your company leverages the HPE Renew Program to deliver an HPE 3PAR StoreServ demonstration unit to a potential customer looking for a block storage
system to run an OLTP application. The customer estimates at least 20 TB of usable capacity and wants to use the existing 10 Gb/s iSCSl infrastructure. Low
latency is important, but cost is also a concern.
What should you include in the demonstration unit design to deliver the proof of concept?
A. (8) 1.92 TB SSD drives, (16) 1.2 TB SAS drives, two-port 10 Gb/s iSCSI/FCoE adapter.
Adaptive Optimization license
B. (8) 2 TB NL drives, a two-port 10 Gb/s Ethernet adapter. File Persona license, configure AFC
C. (8) 480 MLC SSD drives, (16) 1.2 TB SAS drives, a two-port 10 Gb/s Ethernet adapter, Adaptive Optimization license
D. (16) 920 GB MLC SSD drives, an iSCSI adapter, configure AFC
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
A customer adds two new SFF 8000 enclosures that are fully populated with Nearline drives to an existing HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400 array. The old configuration
consisted of Fast Class and Nearline SAS drives in me 8000 SFF enclosure. What should the customer’s engineer do to optimize then storage configuration?
A. Run checkhealth on their system.
B. Defrag the CPGs and run align-drive on their system.
C. Run tune sys on their system.
D. Run compactcpg for existing virtual volumes.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A customer wants you to expand an HPE StoreVirtual cluster with two additional nodes.
What do you need to consider?
A. The new nodes must be configured into a new management group.
B. The firmware of the new nodes must match the version running in the cluster before adding them.
C. Nodes must be of equal or greater capacity compared to the existing nodes in a cluster.
D. The expansion needs downtime to re-balance the resources within the cluster.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which protocols are currently used by SSD and HDD to interface with host systems? (Select two.)
A. FCoE
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. SATAE. SAS
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
You need to configure an HPE 3PAR StoreServ to provide 16 Gb/s host connectivity, peer motion capabilities, and FCoE/iSCSI. Which configuration satisfies
these requirements?
A. HPE 3PAR 8200 2-node with 4-port 16 Gb/s Fibre Channel Cards
B. HPE 3PAR 8400 4-node with 2-port 1SCSI/FC0E and 4-port 16 Gb/s Fibre Channel Cards
C. HPE 3PAR 8200 2-node with 2-port 1SCSI/FC0E and 4-port 16 Gb/s Fibre Channel Cards
D. HPE 3PAR 8400 2-node with 2-port iSCSI/FCoE and 4-port 16 Gb/s Fibre Channel Cards
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Where does HPE 3PAR StoreServ Data at Rest Encryption occur?
A. ASIC
B. host
C. physical disk
D. StoreServ processor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which HPE solution can be ready for production in 15 minutes and is built (or a scale-out of consolidated virtualized applications and virtual desktops?
A. HPE ConvergedSystem 250-HC Store Virtual
B. HPE ConvergedSystem 500 for HANA
C. HPE ConvergedSystem 700 for Citrix XenDesktop
D. HPE ConvergedSystem 100 tor Hosted Desktops
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
A customer has an existing HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200 using Fast Class and Nearline drives with read intensive workloads. They need to increase the read I/O
performance; however, they have a restricted budget.
What should they do?
A. Add an additional 15 K Fast Class drives and implement mm provisioned deduplicated virtual volumes.
B. Add an additional 15 K Fast Class drives and configure AO policy lo net data onto the new tier or disk.
C. Add a tier of SSD and implement mm provisioned virtual volumes.
D. Add 4 SSD drives and enable Adaptive Flash Cache.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
A customer’s environment has four HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400 systems and three HPE 3PAR StoreServ 20800 systems deployed. The customer wants to
optimize application performance.
Which solution is available to achieve this goal?
A. Use RESTful APIs to provide federated management
B. import StoreServ private keys to the Management Console before managing more man one storage unit.
C. Use HPE One View to manage all HPE 3PAR StoreServ arrays
D. implement HPE StoreServ storage federation, using the StoreServ Management Console.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What are advantages of using SSD drives over performance HDO drives? (Select two)
A. latency
B. encryption support
C. IOPS
D. form factor
E. OS support
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
When using the HPE Storage Quick ROI Calculator to prepare a business case for an HPE StoreVirtual storage solution proposal, which financial metrics can be
calculated for the business case? (Select two.)
A. real options valuation
B. total economic impact
C. risk adjusted ROI
D. rapid economic justification
E. NPV savings
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 16
You are designing a solution that will have three new HPE BladeSystems and art HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8000 storage array within four controller nodes. This newenvironment must Keep the infrastructure within the data center to a minimum.
Which virtual connect module should you recommend to achieve this goal?
A. 16 Gb 24-port Fibre Channel
B. Flex-10/10D
C. 6125XLG
D. FlexFabric-20/40 F8
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
You are designing a solution that will have three new HPE BladeSystems and an HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8000 storage array with four controller nodes. This new
environment must keep the infrastructure Within the data center to a minimum.
Which virtual connect module should you recommend to achieve this goal?
A. Flex-10/10D
B. 16 Gb 24-port Fibre Channel
C. FlexFabric-20/40 F8
D. 6125XLG
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A customer has a Microsoft application environment that uses HPE StoreServ arrays. The customer wants to simplify the process to back up the application data
and implement rapid online recovery of the applications, however, the customer cannot accomplish this from the StoreServ Management Console (SSMC).
What must be added to the solution for the customer to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Application Suite for Data Protection
B. Recovery Manager
C. Advanced Shadow Copy Services for Windows Servers
D. Virtual Copy
E. VSS provider for HPE 3PAR StoreServ
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
Which tasks should you perform during the prepare and interview stages of a consulting engagement? (Select two.)
A. Design the solution mat meets the customer’s needs and conveys value.
B. Determine who to add to your team to produce a winning proposal.
C. Listen to what the customer has to say.
D. Determine which solutions are closely aligned with the customer’s business needs.
E. Research the company and people, and discover areas of concern.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 20
You are configuring a new HPE 3PAR StoreServ al-flash array for a customer. Which ratio should you expect to have the highest efficiency?
A. compaction ratio
B. reclamation ratio
C. deduplication ratio
D. read/write ratio
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which additional is functionality is offered in an HPE SPAR StoreServ 8000 system when compared to an HPE 3PAR StoreServ 7000 system?
A. HPE 3PAR Online import license
B. HPE 3PAR Data at Rest Encryption
C. HPE 3PAR Adaptive Optimization and Dynamic Optimization
D. HPE 3PAR Persistent Checksum end-to-end data integrity
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
You are designing a storage array to replace two existing HPE EVA P6500s in two locations that are currently using HPE Continuous Access. Your design
includes an HPE 3PAR StoreServ with four nodes. Additionally, you included me following HPE 3PAR Software:
稨PE 3PAR Data Optimization Software Suite v2
稨PE 3PAR Peer Persistence
稨PE3PAR virtual Copy
稨PE 3PAR Virtual Domains
稨PE 3PAR Online import software
Which HPE 3PAR StoreServ license is missing?
A. HPE 3PAR Virtual Lock
B. HPE 3PAR Remote CopyC. HPE 3PAR Peer Motion
D. HPE 3PAR Adaptive Optimization
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What is a business benefit of HPE hyper-converged systems?
A. larger footprint
B. faster deployment
C. lower latency
D. fewer choices
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which HPE management tool provides a single, integrated management environment for a converged infrastructure?
A. HPE OneView
B. HPE StoreOnce RMC
C. HPE 3PAR SSMC
D. HPE IMC
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which statement is correct about the functionality of the HPE StoreVirtual DSM for Microsoft MPIO?
A. iSCSl connections are blocked to non-critical nodes in me cluster by default.
B. The storage system, which receives a copy of me data, does not service the write I/O.
C. The storage system, which holds a copy of the requested data, services the read l/Os.
D. It opens an iSCSi connection to each storage node in a cluster when requited.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which HPE Storage solution offers Remote Copy for asynchronous replication on a per- volume basis without additional costs?
A. HPE StoreVirtual
B. HPE StoreEasy
C. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
D. HPE MSA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
You have just completed a performance analysis of a new HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8400 Disk Array at a customer’s site. After reviewing me performance metrics,
you determine that they should install a new tier of SSD drives. Which actions should you recommend they take to fully optimize me array? (Select two.)
A. Configure Adaptive Optimization
B. Configure Adaptive Flash Cache
C. Rebalance all flash drives between nodes 0 and 2.
D. Configure scheduled tunesys tasks.
E. Add more flash drives to enable Advanced Flash Cache.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which management interlace uses four basic commands (create, read, update, and delete) to enable administrators define and radically simplify the most complex
management processes?
A. WMI
B. WBEN
C. REST API
D. SMI-S
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which statement describes HPE StoreVirtual Network RAID functionality?
A. Redundancy is managed on a per-volume basis.
B. 10+2 configuration enables Network RAID.
C. Failover Manager increases the availability of the redundancy level.
D. Volumes remain available if an odd number of nodes are available.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which software-defined management platform can control, manage, and provision HPE Storage and a part of the solution for the HPE Converged Infrastructure
strategy?
A. HPE OneView
B. HPE Storage Essentials
C. HPE Storage Operations ManagerD. HPE Operations Orchestration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which SAN topologies offer the highest centralized data access performance? {Select two.)
A. single switch
B. cascaded
C. meshed
D. ring
E. core-edge
Correct Answer: BE
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SAS Statistical Business Analyst (A00-240) Certification Exam Sample Questions(1-13)
Vendor: Peoplecert Exam Code: PC0-001 Exam Name: ITIL 2011 Foundation
QUESTION 1
Refer to the ROC curve:
As you move along the curve, what changes?
A.The priors in the population
B.The true negative rate in the population
C.The proportion of events in the training data
D.The probability cutoff for scoring
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for honest assessment, what is
the most appropriate method for handling the mean imputation?
A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own partition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now interested in getting the
sensitivity and specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of cutoff values. Which statement and option combination will generate these statistics?
A. Scoredata=valid1 out=roc;
B. Scoredata=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1resp(event= ‘1’) = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1resp(event”1″) = gender region/ out=roc;
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Which SAS program will divide the original data set into 60% training and 40% validation data sets,
stratified by county?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer:C
QUESTION 6
Refer to the lift chart:
At a depth of 0.1, Lift = 3.14. What does this mean?
A. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 times more events
than a random draw of 10%.
B. Selecting the observations with a response probability of at least 10% should result in 3.14 times more
events than a random draw of 10%.
C. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 timesgreater
accuracy than a random draw of 10%.
D. Selecting the observations with a response probability of atleast 10% should result in 3.14times greater
accuracy than a random draw of 10%.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Refer to the lift chart:
What does the reference line at lift = 1 corresponds to?
A. The predicted lift for the best 50% of validation data cases
B. The predicted lift if the entire population is scored as event cases
C. The predicted lift if none of the population are scored as event cases
D. The predicted lift if 50% of the population are randomly scored as event cases
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Suppose training data are oversampled in the event group to make the number of events and non-events
roughly equal. A logistic regression is run and the probabilities are output to a data set NEW and given the
variable name PE. A decision rule considered is, “Classify data as an event if probability is greater than
0.5.” Also the data set NEW contains a variable TG that indicates whether there is an event (1=Event, 0=
No event).
The following SAS program was used.
What does this program calculate?
A. Depth
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Positive predictive value
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit:
The plots represent two models, A and B, being fit to the same two data sets, training and validation.
Model A is 90.5% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 75.5% accurate at
doing the same on validation data. Model B is 83% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training
data and 78.3% accurate at doing the same on the validation data.
Which of the two models should be selected and why?
A. Model A. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model B on training data.
B. Model A. It performs better on the boundary for the training data.
C. Model B. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
D. Model B. It is simpler with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Assume a $10 cost for soliciting a non-responder and a $200 profit for soliciting a responder. The logistic
regression model gives a probability score named P_R on a SAS data set called VALID. The VALID data
set contains the responder variable Pinch, a 1/0 variable coded as 1 for responder. Customers will be
solicited when their probability score is more than 0.05.
Which SAS program computes the profit for each customer in the data set VALID?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
In order to perform honest assessment on a predictive model, what is an acceptable division between
training, validation, and testing data?
A. Training: 50% Validation: 0% Testing: 50%
B. Training: 100% Validation: 0% Testing: 0%
C. Training: 0% Validation: 100% Testing: 0%
D. Training: 50% Validation: 50% Testing: 0%
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit:
Based upon the comparative ROC plot for two competing models, which is the champion model and why?
A. Candidate 1, because the area outside the curve is greater
B. Candidate 2, because the area under the curve is greater
C. Candidate 1, because it is closer to the diagonal reference curve
D. Candidate 2, because it shows less over fit than Candidate 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A marketing campaign will send brochures describing an expensive product to a set of customers. The
cost for mailing and production per customer is $50. The company makes $500 revenue for each sale.
What is the profit matrix for a typical person in the population?
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Exam D
QUESTION 1
An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower
B. FireSIGT
C. WSA
D. ASA
300-210 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which cloud-based malware detection engine uses machine-learning detection techniques in the Cisco Advanced Malware Protection cloud?
A. third-party detections
B. Spero
C. Ethos
D. Memcache
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 3
which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy
B. rule header
C. Rule assignment and ports
D. rule options
E. Rule footer 300-210 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true’? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats.
B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time.
C. It supports granular application policies.
D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches.
E. It supports local content caching.
F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
QUESTION 5
When creating an SSL policy on Cisco FirePOWER, which three options do you have
A. do not decrypt
B. trust
C. allow
D. block with reset
E. block
F. encrypt
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent
B. routed
C. passive
D. inline set
E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which two statement about Cisco Firepower file and intrusion inspection under control policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. File inspection occurs before intrusion prevention.
B. Intrusion Inspection occurs after traffic is blocked by file type.
C. File and intrusion drop the same packet.
D. Blocking by file type takes precedence over malware inspection and blocking
E. File inspection occurs after file discovery
300-210 vce Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding
B. rate-limiting
C. limiting
D. correlation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Web Security Appliance feature enables the appliance to block suspicious traffic on all of its ports and IP addresses?
A. explicit forward mode
B. Layer 4 Traffic Monitor
C. transparent mode
D. Secure Web Proxy
300-210 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 10
What is the maximum message size that the Cisco Email Security Appliance will accept from the violet.public domain?
A. 1 KB
B. 100 KB
C. 1 MB
D. 10 MB
E. 100 MB
F. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
B. reduced space and power requirements
C. outbound message protection
D. automated administration 300-210 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 12
An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition.
B. Database sync time is reduced.
C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances.
D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. WHITELIST
B. BLACKLIST
C. UNKNOWNLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to deploy a virtual cisco ESA and wants protection against email-based threats, email encryption, and clustering. Which software license bundle must the network engineer purchase to access these components?
A. cisco email security Premium
B. cisco email security Hybrid Essential
C. cisco email security advansed
D. cisco email security Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Email Security Premium Boundle: Antispam scanning, Sophos Antivirus solution, Virus Outbreack filtres,DLP Compliance, Email encryption, CLustering
QUESTION 15
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an ICAP-capable proxy server
B. a PKI certificate server
C. an HTTP server
D. an HTTPS server
300-210 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which Cisco technology is a customizable web-based alerting service designed to report threats and vulnerabilities?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service
C. Cisco Security Optimization Service
D. Cisco Software Application Support Service
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS appliance configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The maximum number of denied attackers is set to 10000.
B. The block action duraton is set to 3600 seconds.
C. The Meta Event Generator is globally enabled.
D. Events Summarization is globally disabled.
E. Threat Rating Adjustment is globally disabled.
300-210 exam Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
QUESTION 18
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which signature definition is virtual sensor 0 assigned to use?
A. rules0
B. vs0
C. sig0
D. ad0
E. ad1
F. sigl 300-210 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is the default signature.
You can create multiple security policies and apply them to individual virtual sensors. A security policy is made up of a signature definition policy, an event action rules policy, and an anomaly detection policy. Cisco IPS contains a default signature definition policy called sig0, a default event action rules policy called rules0, and a default anomaly detection policy called ad0. You can assign the default policies to a virtual sensor or you can create new policies.
QUESTION 20
Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access?
A. Port 23
B. Port 25
C. Port 22
D. Port 443
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 21
An ASA with an IPS module must be configured to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and block all traffic if the module fails. Which describes the correct configuration?
A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic
B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic
C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic
D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which three options are valid event actions for a Cisco IPS? (Choose three.)
A. deny-packet-inline
B. deny-attack-reset
C. produce-verbose-alert
D. log-attacker-packets
E. deny-packet-internal
F. request-block-drop-connection
300-210 vce Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
QUESTION 24
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos- net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
300-210 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
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Which two statements about the show command output are true? (Choose two.)
Which out-of-dialog SIP OPTIONS ping response put dial-peer tag 1111 into its current operational state?
The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
Your customer sent you this debug output, captured on a Cisco IOS router (router A), to troubleshoot a problem where all H.323 calls that originate from another Cisco IOS router (router B) are being dropped almost immediately after arriving
The exhibit shows the Cisco IOS CLI output of debug ipdhcp packet, which was captured on a router that is located at a branch office where a single IP phone is located. There is a standalone Cisco Unified Communications Manager serverat the central site, which also provides DHCP services to the IP phone at the branch office. You are troubleshooting a problem where the IP phone could not register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. You have confirmed that the IP
The exhibit shows an outgoing SIP 401 response message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to a SIP VoIP service provider gateway. Which action can the Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems administrator use to
A. The client has a 5 GHz connection.
A. Increase the fragmentation threshold to allow larger packets over the air.
A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
