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QUESTION 28
Which three tasks can you perform with Disk Utility? (Choose three).
A. Erase a CD-RW disk.
B. Determine disk usage by user name.
C. Verify and repair a UFS-formatted disk.
D. Create an encrypted partition on a hard disk.
E. Discover details about top-level directories on a FireWire disk drive.
F. Discover details about a FireWire drive such as size and configuration.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 29
To make a font available to Classic applications, install the font in ______________.
A. /User/Fonts
B. /Library/Fonts
C. /System Folder/Fonts
D. /System Library/Fonts
E. /System Folder/Font Book
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Mac OS X v10.3 administrator named “Certkiller” can view the details of a kernel panic in ____________.
A. /Library/Logs/kp.log
B. /Library/Logs/panic.log
C. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Logs/kp.log
D. /Users/Certkiller /Library/Logs/panic.log
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
A disk image file ___________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. can be encrypted at the time it is created B. has the extension .img or .dmg by default
C. can only be created from the command line
D. is represented by a folder icon when mounted
E. can only be create by the System Administrator
F. may represent a compressed folder and its content

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 32
Disk utility can display _______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. a disk drive capacity
B. a list of partitions on a disk drive
C. the volume format of a mounted partition
D. the number of files in the system folder
E. the number of files on an unmounted partition
F. information about internal drives only, not external drives

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
Suppose you are an administrator named “sandra”. To make a font available for all local users to access, install the font file in ______________.
A. /Users/Sandra/Library/Fonts
B. /System/Library/Fonts
C. /Users/Library/Fonts
D. /Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: D  100-105 dumps
QUESTION 34
The Repair Disk Permissions feature of Disk Utility can ONLY repair permissions_____________________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. on a volume with Mac OS X system software installed.
B. If the computer is booted from the Mac OS X Install disc
C. Of top-level directories, such as /System and /Users only
D. Of user-created files, by restoring them to a previously saved state
E. Of system files, by restoring their permissions to the default configuration

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 35
Which two directories will NOT exist by default on which you have installed Mac OS X v10.3 and added a single user named “Certkiller”? (Choose two.)
A. /Fonts
B. /Applications
C. /Library/Preferences
D. /System/Library/Caches
E. /Users/Certkiller/Documents
F. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Caches
G. /Users/Shared/Library/Caches
Correct Answer: AG QUESTION 36
Disk Utlity with Mac OS X v10.3 allows you to configure drives in RAID configurations of what level(s)?
A. Level 0 only
B. Level 1 only
C. Level 0 or 1
D. Level 1 or 5
E. Level 0, 1, or 5

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 37
By default in Mac OS X v10.3, you can use the Finder to______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Burn a CD
B. Create a disk image file
C. See every file in your home directory
D. To archive multiple items simultaneously using the Archive menu item
E. Empty the trash securely, so that data-recovery software cannot restore the files.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 38
In what order does Mac OS X v10.3 search for resources such as fonts?
A. ~/Library,/Library,/System/Library
B. /Library,~/Library,/System/Library
C. /System/Library,~/Library,/Library
D. ~/Library,/System/Library,/Library
E. /Library,/System/Library, ~/Library

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
You can use ___________ to create disk image files.
A. CpMac
B. Image Disk
C. Disk Utility
D. Image Capture

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
You are currently in the same directory as a file called ” Certkiller 3″. To view this file contents from the command line you can type ____________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat Certkiller 3
B. cat Certkiller \3
C. cat Certkiller \3
D. cat Certkiller \ 3
E. cat ” Certkiller 3″
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 41
Exhibit ls *.* You enter this command in a Terminal Window. Which file names would be listed in the output of the command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Certkiller .exe
B. Index.html
C. Myfile
D. Hello
E. X

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 42
Which command is included with the Mac OS X Developer Tools, but NOT with a default installation of Mac OS X v10.3?
A. du
B. pwd
C. open
D. ditto
E. CpMac

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 43
Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. system_profiler
B. ditto
C. ppen
D. ls

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A Mac OS X v10.3 user can view a file ownership and access permissions by _________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. viewing the file in Column View
B. using the ls -l command in the Terminal utility.
C. Pressing the Verify Permissions button in Disk Utility.
D. Selecting the file and choosing Get Info from the File menu.
E. Selecting the Permissions tab in the Apple System Profiler utility

Correct Answer: BD

101 exam

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101 Exam Video Training:

 

 

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QUESTION 21
Which two statements describe Cisco WLC v7.0 implementation of country codes for RF regulatory domains? (Choose two.)
A. There is a maximum of one per controller.
B. There is a maximum of 12 per controller.
C. There is a maximum of 20 per controller.
D. The AP defaults its RF code selection.
E. The AP is configurable for one RF code per radio.
F. The AP is configurable for one RF code across both radios.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 22
Which two options must match to allow client roaming between wireless controllers? (Choose two.)
A. mobility group name
B. RF group name
C. SNMP community string
D. multicast messaging IP address
E. mobility MAC address
F. Cisco WLC hardware model type
G. Cisco WLC software code version

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
A wireless client is having difficulty associating. What is the most likely cause, given the output of the following debug?
DOT1X-1-MAX_EAPOL_KEY_RETRANS_FOR_MOBILE: MAX EAPOL-Key M1 retransmissions reached for mobile xx:xx:xx:xx:xx
A. Cisco WLC is not requesting authentication.
B. Cisco WLC has no RADIUS entry to direct authentication.
C. Cisco WLC is timing out waiting for authentication.
D. The Cisco WLC authentication type is incompatible with the client.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which two statements correctly describe ClientLink on a Cisco WLC v7.0.116.0? (Choose two.)
A. It is beneficial for bidirectional stream traffic that is sent to wireless clients.
B. It is beneficial for upstream traffic that is sent only to wireless clients.
C. It is beneficial for downstream traffic that is sent only to wireless clients.
D. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 15 clients.
E. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 25 clients.
F. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 30 clients.
G. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 50 clients.
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 25
Which two statements correctly describe ClientLink on a Cisco WLC v7.0.116.0? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on 802.11n APs for 802.11n clients.
B. It is supported on 802.11n APs for 802.11a/g clients.
C. It is supported on non-802.11n APs for 802.11a/b/g clients.
D. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -50 dBm or weaker.
E. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -60 dBm or weaker.
F. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -70 dBm or weaker.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

What does the count of 20 for Handoff Requests Sent represent in the Mobility Statistics output?
A. the number of handoff replies that have been received in response to the requests sent
B. the total number of handoff requests received, ignored, or responses sent
C. the number of handoffs in which the entire client session has been transferred
D. the number of clients that have been associated to the controller and have been announced to the mobility group

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Context-aware usage has been deployed on a Cisco MSE 3310 that is licensed to maximum capacity. Approximately 900 wireless clients are currently being tracked. New services need to be added for 500 RFID tags based on RSSI and 500 RF interferers tracked via CleanAir. What should be changed regarding the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. Add a second Cisco MSE 3310 with a license for RFID tags, and then add a license for CleanAir to either the original or new Cisco MSE.
B. Replace Cisco MSE 3310 with MSE 3355 with a license for CleanAir and tags, and then move the license from Cisco MSE 3310 to MSE 3355 for context-aware.
C. Add a CleanAir and RFID tag license to Cisco MSE 3310.
D. Add only an RFID tag license to Cisco MSE 3310.
E. Add only a CleanAir license to Cisco MSE 3310.
F. Increase only the context-aware license.
G. No license is required.

Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 28
When planning on tracking rogue APs, RFID tags that are based on RSSI, and wireless clients, what is needed for the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. wIPS license, context-aware license, and Cisco RFID tag license only
B. wIPS license, context-aware license, and partner tag engine license only
C. wIPS license and context-aware license only
D. context-aware license only

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What are the recommended RFID timeout configuration values for Cisco WLC v7.0 to ensure that tags are detected?
A. minimum of two times and maximum of four times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
B. minimum of two times and maximum of four times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
C. minimum of three times and maximum of eight times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
D. minimum of three times and maximum of eight times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
E. minimum of 6 times and maximum of 12 times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
F. minimum of 6 times and maximum of 12 times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which option should be the RSSI (dBm) cell edge for a site survey for a wireless network of data, voice, and location services?
A. -65
B. -67
C. -72
D. -75
E. -80

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which changes in context-aware location services using the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 have the greatest impact to reduce the database size?
A. restricting to a single location device type
B. restricting the number of devices that are being tracked
C. restricting the history archive
D. scheduled database cleanup
E. scheduled backup

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
How are licenses purchased regarding the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 for Cisco wireless client tracking, Cisco RFID tracking, and AeroScout RFID tracking?
A. Three separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
B. Two separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.
C. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
D. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which two statements correctly describe implementing RFID tags based on RSSI and TDoA location in Cisco Unified Wireless Network v7.0? (Choose two.)
A. Only one tag engine can be installed and be operational in a Cisco 3300 Series MSE.
B. Two tag engines can be installed, but only one can be operational at any time in a Cisco MSE.
C. Separate tag engines can be installed and run concurrently for RSSI and TDoA in a Cisco MSE.
D. Basic RSSI and TDoA location can be performed by Cisco APs.
E. RSSI tag location can be performed by Cisco APs, but partner sensors are required for TDoA tag location.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 34
What is the list of Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 network location service elements that can be individually enabled or disabled for device tracking and quantity limitation?
A. Clients and Tags only
B. Clients, Rogue APs, Interferers, and Tags only
C. Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
D. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
E. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, Active Tags, and Choke Point Tags

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What is the default username and password for communication between Cisco WCS and the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. cisco and cisco
B. Cisco and Cisco
C. admin and admin
D. root and admin
E. root and password
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36

 

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QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Which configuration does Cisco recommend for the peer address on the Expressway-C secure traversal zone when the Expressway-E has one NIC enabled?
A. Expressway-E internal IP address
B. Expressway-E external IP address
C. Expressway-E internal FQDN
D. Expressway-E external FQDN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC

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The previous post revealed some of the specifics about the half of the CCNA R&S content covered in the ICND1 100-105 exam. This next post completes the analysis of the new Cisco 100-105 dumps exam topics, with a look at the verbs in the exam topics as well as the topics that appear to be removed from the exams.

Quick Disclaimer
With this post and others like it, I am reading the publicly posted exam topics and giving my personal opinion as to what those words mean. Note that the analysis in this and other blog posts represents my opinion of Cisco System’s publicly available exam topics for the old and new exams. I do not represent Cisco 100-105 dumps, and these opinions are my own.

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Still in Cisco 100-105 dumps , but Higher Performance Level
Cisco exam topics list different verbs, and these verbs have specific meaning to those who work within the education world. If you scan the current exam topics, you will see the following verbs on most exam topics:

  • Describe
  • Compare and contrast
  • Configure and verify
  • Configure, verify, and troubleshoot

These verbs define the performance level that they try to assess through the exam questions. The verb describe requires a basic level of skill, while compare and contrast requires a little more skill. Similarly, exam topics that include the troubleshoot verb, instead of stopping at the verify verb, imply a deeper skill level.

For this latest cisco 100-105 dumps exam, Cisco has bumped up the performance level on several topics. All these were formerly listed with verbs “configure and verify”, and now have “configure, verify, and troubleshoot”. To be honest, on the actual exam, it might be difficult to tell the difference between a question for a “configure and verify” topic versus a “configure, verify, and troubleshoot” question. However, from an exam preparation perspective, you can and should prepare specifically for those troubleshooting topics, as follows:

  • Pay close attention to show commands, for status codes and their values when the feature is correctly configured and working
  • Pay close attention to those same status values when the feature is misconfigured.

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Complete CISSP Study Guide Certification Training

QUESTION 30
What is NOT true with pre shared key authentication within IKE / IPsec protocol?
A. Pre shared key authentication is normally based on simple passwords
B. Needs a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to work
C. IKE is used to setup Security Associations D. IKE builds upon the Oakley protocol and the ISAKMP protocol.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Internet Key Exchange (IKE or IKEv2) is the protocol used to set up a security association (SA) in the IPsec protocol suite. IKE builds upon the Oakley protocol and ISAKMP. IKE uses X.509 certificates for authentication which are either pre-shared or distributed using DNS (preferably with DNSSEC) and a DiffieHellman key exchange to set up a shared session secret from which cryptographic keys are derived. Internet Key Exchange (IKE) Internet key exchange allows communicating partners to prove their identity to each other and establish a secure communication channel, and is applied as an authentication component of IPSec. IKE uses two phases: Phase 1: In this phase, the partners authenticate with each other, using one of the following: Shared Secret: A key that is exchanged by humans via telephone, fax, encrypted e-mail, etc. Public Key Encryption: Digital certificates are exchanged. Revised mode of Public Key Encryption: To reduce the overhead of public key encryption, a nonce (a Cryptographic function that refers to a number or bit string used only once, in security engineering) is encrypted with the communicating partner’s public key, and the peer’s identity is encrypted with symmetric encryption using the nonce as the key. Next, IKE establishes a temporary security association and secure tunnel to protect the rest of the key exchange. Phase 2: The peers’ security associations are established, using the secure tunnel and temporary SA created at the end of phase 1.
The following reference(s) were used for this question: Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 7032-7048). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition. and RFC 2409 at http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2409 and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Key_Exchange
QUESTION 31
In SSL/TLS protocol, what kind of authentication is supported when you establish a secure session between a client and a server?
A. Peer-to-peer authentication
B. Only server authentication (optional)
C. Server authentication (mandatory) and client authentication (optional)
D. Role based authentication scheme
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
RESCORLA, Eric, SSL and TLS: Designing and Building Secure Systems, 2000, Addison Wesley
Professional; SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.

QUESTION 32
What kind of encryption is realized in the S/MIME-standard?
A. Asymmetric encryption scheme
B. Password based encryption scheme
C. Public key based, hybrid encryption scheme
D. Elliptic curve based encryption
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
S/MIME (for Secure MIME, or Secure Multipurpose Mail Extension) is a security process used for e-mail
exchanges that makes it possible to guarantee the confidentiality and non-repudiation of electronic
messages.
S/MIME is based on the MIME standard, the goal of which is to let users attach files other than ASCII text
files to electronic messages. The MIME standard therefore makes it possible to attach all types of files to
e-mails.
S/MIME was originally developed by the company RSA Data Security. Ratified in July 1999 by the IETF, S/
MIME has become a standard, whose specifications are contained in RFCs 2630 to 2633.
How S/MIME works
The S/MIME standard is based on the principle of public-key encryption. S/MIME therefore makes it
possible to encrypt the content of messages but does not encrypt the communication.

The various sections of an electronic message, encoded according to the MIME standard, are each
encrypted using a session key.

The session key is inserted in each section’s header, and is encrypted using the recipient’s public key.
Only the recipient can open the message’s body, using his private key, which guarantees the
confidentiality and integrity of the received message. In addition, the message’s signature is encrypted with
the sender’s private key. Anyone intercepting the communication can read the content of the message’s
signature, but this ensures the recipient of the sender’s identity, since only the sender is capable of
encrypting a message (with his private key) that can be decrypted with his public key.

Reference(s) used for this question:

http://en.kioskea.net/contents/139-cryptography-s-mime RFC 2630: Cryptographic Message Syntax;
OPPLIGER, Rolf, Secure Messaging with PGP and S/MIME, 2000, Artech House; HARRIS, Shon, All-In-
One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 2001, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, page 570;
SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.

 

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QUESTION 33
Which of the following is true of network security?
A. A firewall is a not a necessity in today’s connected world.
B. A firewall is a necessity in today’s connected world.
C. A whitewall is a necessity in today’s connected world.
D. A black firewall is a necessity in today’s connected world.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Commercial firewalls are a dime-a-dozen in todays world. Black firewall and whitewall are just distracters.
QUESTION 34
Which of the following best describes signature-based detection?
A. Compare source code, looking for events or sets of events that could cause damage to a system or network.
B. Compare system activity for the behaviour patterns of new attacks.
C. Compare system activity, looking for events or sets of events that match a predefined pattern of events that describe a known attack.
D. Compare network nodes looking for objects or sets of objects that match a predefined pattern of objects that may describe a known attack.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Misuse detectors compare system activity, looking for events or sets of events that match a predefined pattern of events that describe a known attack. As the patterns corresponding to known attacks are called signatures, misuse detection is sometimes called “signature-based detection.”
The most common form of misuse detection used in commercial products specifies each pattern of events
corresponding to an attack as a separate signature. However, there are more sophisticated approaches to
doing misuse detection (called “state-based” analysis techniques) that can leverage a single signature to
detect groups of attacks.

Reference:
Old Document:
BACE, Rebecca & MELL, Peter, NIST Special Publication 800-31 on Intrusion Detection Systems, Page

16.
The publication above has been replaced by 800-94 on page 2-4 The Updated URL is: http://csrc.nist.gov/
publications/nistpubs/800-94/SP800-94.pdf

QUESTION 35
Which layer deals with Media Access Control (MAC) addresses?
A. Data link layer
B. Physical layer
C. Transport layer
D. Network layer
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 (Data Link layer) transfers information to the other end of the physical link. It handles physical addressing, network topology, error notification, delivery of frames and flow control.

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QUESTION NO: 79
Consider the following IP address in CIDR notation:
142.98.8.0/26

How many addresses can theoretically be in each subnet?
A. 62
B. 254
C. 4,094
D. 1,048,574
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 80
You want to connect a PBX made by one manufacturer to another PBX made by a different manufacturer. You need to ensure that these interconnected PBXs will retain their basic and supplementary services. Which protocol was originally designed to allow this?
A. H.225
B. H.450
C. Q.932
D. QSIG
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
What is the term for assigning a unique VLAN identifier to traffic controlled according to 802.1q standards?
A. Frame tagging
B. VLAN switching
C. Packet injection
D. LAN segmentation
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following is most likely to cause packet loss and clicking during a phone call?
A. Impedance mismatch
B. Improper reference clocking
C. Improper equipment grounding
D. Packets arriving out of order
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 83
Which of the following encodes messages in ASCII, uses proxies instead of gatekeepers, and is a peer-to-peer protocol?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. The local loop
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following can cause the most significant interference with WiFi communications?
A. Ethernet hubs
B. Television equipment
C. 2.4-GHz cordless phones
D. 900-MHz cordless phones
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 85
Which device specializes in admitting calls into a network, manages session traffic, and helps traffic traverse a firewall?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
C. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
D. Session Border Controller (SBC)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 86
When data is sent down to the session layer of the OSI/RM, the PDU consists of which encapsulated components?
A. Physical header, network header, data
B. Data, application header, presentation header
C. Network header, data link header, physical header
D. Application header, presentation header, transport header
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 87
A traditional PBX generally offers all of the following features EXCEPT:
A. Voice mail
B. Call forwarding
C. Call interruption
D. Find me/follow me
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
You are implementing an IPsec VPN for voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will you implement?
A. Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol
B. Transport mode using the AH security protocol
C. Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol
D. Transport mode using the ESP security protocol
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 89
Which problem typically occurs if a jitter buffer is too small?
A. Too many delays will occur.
B. Too few packets will be re-sent.
C. Too few interfaces will be addressed.
D. Too many packets will be discarded.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 90

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Question: 26
When you move a folder, the objects within are also moved. What happens to the folder’s object rights?
A. The folder rights are set to the default View for Everyone.
B. The folder rights are set to the default Full Control for the Administrators group.
C. The folder retains the object rights of the original.
D. The folder inherits the object rights set on the new parent folder.
Answer: C

Question: 27
What is an advantage of scheduling List of Values (LOV) report objects to run on a regular basis? (Select the best option.)
A. Reduces time of retrieving records from the database when viewing a report that uses a prompt
B. Reduces load on the Input File Repository Server

Exam Name: Business Objects(TM) Enterprise Certified Professional XI 每 Level One
Exam Type: Business Objects
Exam Code: SABE201 Total Questions: 79

C. Reduces database hits by using saved values when generating prompt
D. Reduces load on the Output File Repository Server
Answer: C

Question: 28
Which two databases does the BusinessObjects Enterprise Central Management Server (CMS) maintain? (Choose two.)
A. Event
B. Config
C. Audit
D. System
Answer: C, D

Question: 29
Which two content management recommendations should you follow when designing your BusinessObjects Enterprise security model? (Choose two)
A. Assign security at the folder level to groups whenever possible to reduce complexity.
B. Grant the Everyone group No Access at the global level then grant specific rights to the desired groups.
C. Avoid Predefined Access Levels whenever possible to reduce complexity.
D. Set the Everyone group to Deny Access at the global level then grant specific rights to the desired groups at the folder levels.
Answer: A, B

Question: 30
Which BusinessObjects Enterprise component would you use to schedule List of Values (LOV) objects?
A. InfoView interface
B. Business View Manager
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: B
Question: 31
Which two statements about Object inheritance rules are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Rights set at the global level override rights set at the folder level.
B. Top-level folders inherit rights set at the global level.
C. Objects inherit rights from their parent folders.
D. Rights inherited from the parent folder override explicit rights set at the object level.
Answer: B, C
Question: 32
Which statement about Category inheritance rules is correct?
A. A category may contain subcategories that inherit the rights of their parent category.
B. Objects in categories inherit the rights set on their parent categories.

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QUESTION NO: 46
If you change the sample size in a codec so that it is too small for your particular needs, then voice quality will suffer because:
A. IP overhead will increase.
B. hubs will be necessary to process traffic.
C. end users will have to make longer calls.
D. a codec mismatch is more likely to occur.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 47
Which element of an Analog Telephone Adapter (ATA) is responsible for providing the connection for a standard telephone?
A. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
B. Foreign Exchange Office (FXO)
C. Time Division Multiplexer (TDM)
D. Foreign Exchange Station (FXS)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
While conducting a network health check, you check to see if the network can accommodate an SIP VoIP implementation. Which network issue needs to be addressed most urgently before the network can accommodate an SIP VoIP implementation?
A. The firewall uses Network Address Translation (NAT).
B. No one has implemented a proxy server on the network.
C. A router has not enabled access control lists.
D. The DNS server does not use any Canonical Name (CNAME) records.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
Which device is generally used to enable find-me/follow-me services by enabling call forking?
A. A Layer 2 switch
B. A Layer 3 switch
C. An SIP proxy
D. A label-edge router
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 50
Which choice correctly lists the setup sequences for SIP and H.323?
A. SIP: INVITE, 200 OK, ACK
H.323:
SETUP, CONNECT, ACK

B.
SIP: SETUP, ACK, CONNECT,

H.323: SYN, CONNECT, ACK

C.
H.323: INVITE, 200 OK, ACK SIP: SETUP, CONNECT, ACK

D.
H.323: SETUP, ACK, CONNECT SIP: SYN, CONNECT, ACK
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is a foundational network element that must be fully functional before you begin to implement a convergent solution?
A. All cabling must be upgraded to Category 3.
B. All routers must be upgraded to IPv6.
C. Fully functional Telnet must be implemented.
D. Fully functional DNS must be implemented.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 52
Which of the following is a potential drawback of using private IP addresses?
A. Private IP addresses may require the use of Network Address Translation (NAT).
B. Private IP addresses are not routable.
C. Private IP addresses do not support SIP or H.323 communications on converged corporate networks.
D. Private IP addresses cannot be used by registered corporations.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
There are eight traffic priority classes. Which of the following priorities would you recommend for voice in an 802.1p VLAN?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
A technician has been trying to determine whether or not the e-mail service is operating on an SIP-enabled device. She issues the following command from a terminal:
telnet gateway.ctpcertified.com 25
What is the result of this command?
A. The Telnet client will try to access the SMTP port on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
B. She will be presented with a login prompt via the SSH protocol.
C. The Telnet client will try to access the Telnet port for 25 seconds on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
D. The Telnet client will try to access the standard SNMP port of gateway.ctpcertified.com.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
You have just installed a wireless access point that you plan to use for voice and video calls. Which settings can you put in place to enable you to prioritize multiple traffic streams?
A. Larger MTU and SYN packet settings
B. MAC address filtering and RADIUS settings
C. WME and/or multiple SSID entries
D. Multiple default gateways and switches
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 56

What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) is the least restrictive?
A. Symmetric
B. Full cone
C. Restricted cone
D. Port restricted cone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
What are the four access categories defined by Wireless Multimedia Extensions (WME), in order from highest to lowest priority?
A. Connectionless, Connection-Oriented, Standard and SIP
B. TCP, UDP, IP and H.323
C. Voice, Video, Best Effort and Background
D. TCP, UDP, IP and SIP
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
You are troubleshooting a problem in which several IP phones cannot access an SIP proxy. You have been told that all SIP proxies and clients in the company are using the standard port as a default. When you view the various configuration screens, you see the following information:
-DNS server: dns1.ctpcertified.com
-DHCP: Auto.
-SIP proxy: sipproxy.ctpcertified.com: 8080
-IP address: 192.168.2.33

Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0

A.
The wrong DNS server has been specified.

B.
DHCP settings are not configured correctly.

C.
The wrong subnet mask has been specified.

D.
The wrong port number is specified in the proxy server.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 59
An SIP proxy server has the following IP configuration:
172.80.54.23/20
Which is the correct address for the network containing this server?
A. 172.80.54.0
B. 172.43.63.18
C. 172.80.48.0
D. 172.80.64.0
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A. Use a custom subnet mask for all external network devices.
B. Deploy a CSU/DSU.
C. Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D. Use private IP addresses for all devices.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
You have installed 100 IP phones in a new subnet. None of the phones in this new subnet can receive IP addresses from the company DHCP server that resides on a separate subnet. Which of the following can you implement to solve this problem the most easily and securely?
A. Enable 802.1p on the Layer 2 switch.
B. Enable BOOTP forwarding on the router.
C. Place the DHCP server on the default VLAN.
D. Upgrade the DHCP server.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 62
Voice call quality drops at certain times of the day. You discover that this is usually when high amounts of e-mail and Web traffic occur across several LANs in your company. Which action can you take to solve this problem?
A. Implement H.323.
B. Implement SIP.
C. Implement QoS.
D. Implement MGCP.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 63
Given a 21st century Ethernet network, which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i WiFi card and an IP-enabled PBX network adapter?
A. A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID)
B. A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry
C. A Media Access Control (MAC) address
D. A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 64
The IP phones for the sales department reside in Subnet A, while the IP PBX resides in Subnet B of the same network. All network switches and routers are properly configured. A technician visiting the sales department is having problems registering the sales department phones with the IP PBX. The technician can ping each phone from within Subnet A, but not from outside the subnet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The router does not have access control lists enabled.
B. The IP phones are configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
C. The cables connecting the IP phones are Category 5, rather than Category 5e.
D. The MAC addresses for the phones have not yet been registered with the IP PBX.
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 65

You are implementing an IPsec VPN for voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will you implement?
A. Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol
B. Transport mode using the AH security protocol
C. Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol
D. Transport mode using the ESP security protocol
Answer: C
Topic 2, A
A
QUESTION NO: 66
Which element of a convergent network does a connection-hijacking attack typically exploit?
A. Soft phones
B. Wireless network radio frequencies
C. The TCP three-way handshake
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
What algorithm is usually selected when voice is companded at 64 Kbps in all parts of the world except North America and Japan?
A. A-Law
B. Mu-Law
C. G.711
D. G.729a
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 68
Which element of an Analog Telephone Adapter (ATA) is responsible for providing the connection for a standard telephone?
A. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
B. Foreign Exchange Office (FXO)
C. Time Division Multiplexer (TDM)
D. Foreign Exchange Station (FXS)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 69
Which term describes a method of attacking resources on a VLAN?
A. Dictionary attack
B. VLAN hopping
C. VLAN spamming
D. Social engineering
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 70
There are eight traffic priority classes. Which of the following priorities would you recommend for voice in an 802.1p VLAN?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
Consider the following output of the tracert command:
Tracing route to www.CTP-certified.com [164.128.206.2] over a maximum of 30 hops:
1 2 ms 1 ms 2 ms 192.168.1.1
2 13 ms 9 ms 12 ms 10.160.64.1
3 10 ms 11 ms 11 ms 68.2.9.21
4 9 ms 10 ms 8 ms 68.2.13.166
5 9 ms 12 ms 13 ms 68.2.13.30
6 27 ms 16 ms 9 ms chnddsrj02-ae2.0.rd.ph.cox.net [68.2.14.5]
7 32 ms 24 ms 20 ms langhbr01-ae0.r2.1a.cox.net [68.1.0.232]
8 21 ms 25 ms 25 ms eqix.lsan.twtelecom.net [206.223.123.36]
9 18 ms 18 ms 24 ms 66.192.251.26

10 40 ms 33 ms 35 ms core-01-so-0-0-0-0.phnx.twtelecom.net [66.192.7.17] 11 36 ms 42 ms 39 ms hagg-01-ge-0-3-0-510.phnx.twtelecom.net [66.192.247.73] 12 40 ms 43 ms 45 ms 206-169-207-8.static.twtelecom.net [206.169.207.8] 13 44 ms 51 ms 42 ms www.ctpcertified.org [64.128.206.2]
Trace complete.
Line 4 includes the string “9 ms 10 ms 8 ms.” What do these numbers indicate?
A. The average time it took for the router to respond
B. The router’s three interfaces that are able to respond to the tracert query
C. The response time for the three packets sent by tracert to return from the router
D. The time it takes for intervening hosts to process the packets between your host and the router in question
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following will best help you determine the presence of bottlenecks in a switched LAN?
A. Disabling frame tagging
B. Enabling VLAN hopping
C. Establishing a baseline
D. Creating an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 73
What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) is the least restrictive?
A. Symmetric
B. Full cone
C. Restricted cone
D. Port restricted cone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following best describes ISDN Primary Rate Interface (PRI) in both North America and Europe?
A. In all areas, ISDN PRI offers two 64-Kbps “B” channels and one 16-Kbps “D” channel.
B. In Europe, Asia and Africa, ISDN PRI offers two 64-Kbps “B” channels and one 16-Kbps “D” channel; whereas in North America, it offers only two 64-Kbps “B” channels.
C. In Europe, Asia and Africa, ISDN PRI offers 30 64-Kbps “B” channels, plus two 64-Kbps “D” channels for framing and signaling, respectively; whereas in North America, it offers 23 64-Kbps “B” channels and one 64-Kbps “D” signaling channel.
D. In North America, ISDN PRI offers 30 64-Kbps “B” channels, plus two 64-Kbps “D” signaling channels for framing and signaling, respectively; whereas in Europe, Asia and Africa, it offers 23 64-Kbps “B” channels, plus one 64-Kbps “D” channel for framing and signaling.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 75
What is the call sequence as established by the Q.931 standard?
A. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
B. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, RELEASE
C. SETUP, CALL PROCEEDING, ALERTING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, DISCONNECT, RELEASE, RELEASE COMPLETE
D. ESTABLISH, SYN, SYN ACK, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, CALL PROCEEDING, DISCONNECT, RELEASE, RELEASE ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following best describes the IPv4 and IPv6 address formats?
A. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 8-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the eight 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
B. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 16-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the seven 32-bit fields is separated by a colon.
C. In IPv4 addresses, the subnet mask fields are separated by a dash, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the 10 8-bit fields is separated by a colon.
D. In IPv4 addresses, each of the 32-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
What impact does the 3-bit User Priority field in an 802.1q frame have to help voice quality in LAN-based communications?
A. It stipulates the format of the MAC address for each network host.
B. It names a collision domain.
C. It replaces a system’s MAC address.
D. It identifies the prioritization settings.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 78
You need to choose a codec according to the following parameters:
-The codec should be standard for convergent voice and video calls.
-Due to the limited capability of the IP phones, the codec should require as little computation power as possible.
-The codec should create voice at a bit rate of 8 Kbps.
Which codec should you choose?
A. G.711
B. G.723.1
C. G.726
D. G.729a
Answer: D

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QUESTION 40
Which statement(s) are correct about the DOE Factorial plot output here? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

A. Two factors were operated at 3 levels each
B. The highest tool age was achieved with metal hardness at high level while keeping the cutting speed at the low level
C. The design indicated above is a 32 factorial design
D. The cutting speed and cutting angle are at the low level for the least tool age achieved
E. All factors had 2 levels in the experiment

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 41
Which statement(s) are incorrect for the Regression Analysis shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
B. The Regression explains over 98% of the process variation
C. This Multiple Linear Regression has three statistically significant independent variables
D. If the air-fuel ratio increases by 1, the TurbineOutput more than triples
E. The SteamExitTemp explains the most variation of the TurbineOutput

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 42
Which statement(s) are most correct for the Regression Analysis shown here?

A. The Regression explains 50.8% of the process variation
B. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
C. This Simple Linear Regression explains 98+% of the process variation
D. This Multiple Linear Regression has four statistically significant independent variables

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
A valid mathematical Regression represents all of the characteristics shown except ___________________________.
A. The residuals when plotted follow a Normal Distribution
B. The sum of the residuals is zero
C. All of the standardized residuals will be within ±3 Standard Deviations
D. Most standardized residuals are within ±2 Standard Deviations

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
When a Belt conducts a Linear Correlation Analysis and finds that as an X increases the Y also increase then he has proven a ______________ correlation.
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Monomial
D. Single alignment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A valid Multiple Linear Regression (MLR) is characterized by all of these except _______________________.
A. It is an assumption that the X’s (inputs) are not correlated to each other
B. The X’s (inputs) are assumed to be independent of each other
C. MLR is conducted based on a deliberate form of experimentation
D. The Residuals from MLR analysis have to be Normally Distributed

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
Which statement is NOT correct about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?

A. The independent variable is the reactant
B. If the reactant was 6 units, with 95 % confidence we would expect a minimum yield of 100 units
C. With at least 95% confidence, we can expect less than 10 units of Yield when the reactant is at a value of 1
D. A reactant value between 2 and 4 units yields around 20 to 40
E. When the reactant increases, the expected yield would increase

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
When doing Hypothesis Testing on Non-normal data Belts will use a ________________ to compare more than two sample proportions to each other.
A. Z score Table
B. Sakami Table
C. Mean-to-Mode Analysis
D. Contingency Table
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
It would be more likely than not for a Belt conducting a Regression Analysis to find that the _______________________.
A. r2 value is smaller than the absolute value of r
B. Correlation Coefficient equals r2
C. Coefficient of Determination is less than r2
D. Correlation Coefficient equals r divided by 2

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
When a Belt properly analyzes the results of an experiment he must examine the Residuals in expectation of finding all of the following except _________.
A. Some Residuals higher than others
B. Some Residuals lower than others
C. All Residuals within 2 Standard Deviations of the Mean
D. Residuals will represent a Linear Regression

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Which statement(s) are correct about the Regression shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. The dependent variable is the outside temperature
B. The relationship between outside temperature and number of customers per hour is a Linear Regression
C. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence where all of the process data should fall between
D. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence the estimate for the Quadratic Regression Line
E. The predicted number of customers per hour is close to 5 if the outside temperature is 10 deg C

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 51
Which of these might contribute to similar distributions having Unequal Variance?
A. Extreme tails
B. Outliers
C. Multiple Modes
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was estimated. Select the answer that best states the Practical Problem.
A. If the average cost per component is $4,200 or less, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
B. If the average cost per component is greater than $4,200, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
C. Only if the average cost per product upgrade is $4,060, will the purchase manager introduce new product upgrades with new components.
D. If the average cost per new product upgrade is less than $180, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was estimated. The Alternative Hypothesis in the above example is?
A. The Standard Deviation is equal to $300.
B. The Mean is less than $4,320.
C. The Mean is equal to $4,060.
D. The Mean is less than $4,200.
E. The Mean is greater than $ 4,200.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 54
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $3,600 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 42 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $3,200 and a Standard Deviation of $180 was estimated. Based on the data provided, the Z value for the data assuming a Normal Distribution is?
A. 1.11
B. 2.22
C. 4.30
D. 5.42

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Sally motivates Sara mentioning that they will sell a minimum of 15 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample, whose population

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