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QUESTION NO: 46
If you change the sample size in a codec so that it is too small for your particular needs, then voice quality will suffer because:
A. IP overhead will increase.
B. hubs will be necessary to process traffic.
C. end users will have to make longer calls.
D. a codec mismatch is more likely to occur.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 47
Which element of an Analog Telephone Adapter (ATA) is responsible for providing the connection for a standard telephone?
A. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
B. Foreign Exchange Office (FXO)
C. Time Division Multiplexer (TDM)
D. Foreign Exchange Station (FXS)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
While conducting a network health check, you check to see if the network can accommodate an SIP VoIP implementation. Which network issue needs to be addressed most urgently before the network can accommodate an SIP VoIP implementation?
A. The firewall uses Network Address Translation (NAT).
B. No one has implemented a proxy server on the network.
C. A router has not enabled access control lists.
D. The DNS server does not use any Canonical Name (CNAME) records.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
Which device is generally used to enable find-me/follow-me services by enabling call forking?
A. A Layer 2 switch
B. A Layer 3 switch
C. An SIP proxy
D. A label-edge router
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 50
Which choice correctly lists the setup sequences for SIP and H.323?
A. SIP: INVITE, 200 OK, ACK
H.323:
SETUP, CONNECT, ACK

B.
SIP: SETUP, ACK, CONNECT,

H.323: SYN, CONNECT, ACK

C.
H.323: INVITE, 200 OK, ACK SIP: SETUP, CONNECT, ACK

D.
H.323: SETUP, ACK, CONNECT SIP: SYN, CONNECT, ACK
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is a foundational network element that must be fully functional before you begin to implement a convergent solution?
A. All cabling must be upgraded to Category 3.
B. All routers must be upgraded to IPv6.
C. Fully functional Telnet must be implemented.
D. Fully functional DNS must be implemented.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 52
Which of the following is a potential drawback of using private IP addresses?
A. Private IP addresses may require the use of Network Address Translation (NAT).
B. Private IP addresses are not routable.
C. Private IP addresses do not support SIP or H.323 communications on converged corporate networks.
D. Private IP addresses cannot be used by registered corporations.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
There are eight traffic priority classes. Which of the following priorities would you recommend for voice in an 802.1p VLAN?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
A technician has been trying to determine whether or not the e-mail service is operating on an SIP-enabled device. She issues the following command from a terminal:
telnet gateway.ctpcertified.com 25
What is the result of this command?
A. The Telnet client will try to access the SMTP port on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
B. She will be presented with a login prompt via the SSH protocol.
C. The Telnet client will try to access the Telnet port for 25 seconds on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
D. The Telnet client will try to access the standard SNMP port of gateway.ctpcertified.com.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
You have just installed a wireless access point that you plan to use for voice and video calls. Which settings can you put in place to enable you to prioritize multiple traffic streams?
A. Larger MTU and SYN packet settings
B. MAC address filtering and RADIUS settings
C. WME and/or multiple SSID entries
D. Multiple default gateways and switches
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 56

What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) is the least restrictive?
A. Symmetric
B. Full cone
C. Restricted cone
D. Port restricted cone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
What are the four access categories defined by Wireless Multimedia Extensions (WME), in order from highest to lowest priority?
A. Connectionless, Connection-Oriented, Standard and SIP
B. TCP, UDP, IP and H.323
C. Voice, Video, Best Effort and Background
D. TCP, UDP, IP and SIP
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
You are troubleshooting a problem in which several IP phones cannot access an SIP proxy. You have been told that all SIP proxies and clients in the company are using the standard port as a default. When you view the various configuration screens, you see the following information:
-DNS server: dns1.ctpcertified.com
-DHCP: Auto.
-SIP proxy: sipproxy.ctpcertified.com: 8080
-IP address: 192.168.2.33

Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0

A.
The wrong DNS server has been specified.

B.
DHCP settings are not configured correctly.

C.
The wrong subnet mask has been specified.

D.
The wrong port number is specified in the proxy server.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 59
An SIP proxy server has the following IP configuration:
172.80.54.23/20
Which is the correct address for the network containing this server?
A. 172.80.54.0
B. 172.43.63.18
C. 172.80.48.0
D. 172.80.64.0
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A. Use a custom subnet mask for all external network devices.
B. Deploy a CSU/DSU.
C. Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D. Use private IP addresses for all devices.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
You have installed 100 IP phones in a new subnet. None of the phones in this new subnet can receive IP addresses from the company DHCP server that resides on a separate subnet. Which of the following can you implement to solve this problem the most easily and securely?
A. Enable 802.1p on the Layer 2 switch.
B. Enable BOOTP forwarding on the router.
C. Place the DHCP server on the default VLAN.
D. Upgrade the DHCP server.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 62
Voice call quality drops at certain times of the day. You discover that this is usually when high amounts of e-mail and Web traffic occur across several LANs in your company. Which action can you take to solve this problem?
A. Implement H.323.
B. Implement SIP.
C. Implement QoS.
D. Implement MGCP.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 63
Given a 21st century Ethernet network, which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i WiFi card and an IP-enabled PBX network adapter?
A. A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID)
B. A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry
C. A Media Access Control (MAC) address
D. A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 64
The IP phones for the sales department reside in Subnet A, while the IP PBX resides in Subnet B of the same network. All network switches and routers are properly configured. A technician visiting the sales department is having problems registering the sales department phones with the IP PBX. The technician can ping each phone from within Subnet A, but not from outside the subnet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The router does not have access control lists enabled.
B. The IP phones are configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
C. The cables connecting the IP phones are Category 5, rather than Category 5e.
D. The MAC addresses for the phones have not yet been registered with the IP PBX.
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 65

You are implementing an IPsec VPN for voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will you implement?
A. Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol
B. Transport mode using the AH security protocol
C. Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol
D. Transport mode using the ESP security protocol
Answer: C
Topic 2, A
A
QUESTION NO: 66
Which element of a convergent network does a connection-hijacking attack typically exploit?
A. Soft phones
B. Wireless network radio frequencies
C. The TCP three-way handshake
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
What algorithm is usually selected when voice is companded at 64 Kbps in all parts of the world except North America and Japan?
A. A-Law
B. Mu-Law
C. G.711
D. G.729a
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 68
Which element of an Analog Telephone Adapter (ATA) is responsible for providing the connection for a standard telephone?
A. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
B. Foreign Exchange Office (FXO)
C. Time Division Multiplexer (TDM)
D. Foreign Exchange Station (FXS)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 69
Which term describes a method of attacking resources on a VLAN?
A. Dictionary attack
B. VLAN hopping
C. VLAN spamming
D. Social engineering
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 70
There are eight traffic priority classes. Which of the following priorities would you recommend for voice in an 802.1p VLAN?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
Consider the following output of the tracert command:
Tracing route to www.CTP-certified.com [164.128.206.2] over a maximum of 30 hops:
1 2 ms 1 ms 2 ms 192.168.1.1
2 13 ms 9 ms 12 ms 10.160.64.1
3 10 ms 11 ms 11 ms 68.2.9.21
4 9 ms 10 ms 8 ms 68.2.13.166
5 9 ms 12 ms 13 ms 68.2.13.30
6 27 ms 16 ms 9 ms chnddsrj02-ae2.0.rd.ph.cox.net [68.2.14.5]
7 32 ms 24 ms 20 ms langhbr01-ae0.r2.1a.cox.net [68.1.0.232]
8 21 ms 25 ms 25 ms eqix.lsan.twtelecom.net [206.223.123.36]
9 18 ms 18 ms 24 ms 66.192.251.26

10 40 ms 33 ms 35 ms core-01-so-0-0-0-0.phnx.twtelecom.net [66.192.7.17] 11 36 ms 42 ms 39 ms hagg-01-ge-0-3-0-510.phnx.twtelecom.net [66.192.247.73] 12 40 ms 43 ms 45 ms 206-169-207-8.static.twtelecom.net [206.169.207.8] 13 44 ms 51 ms 42 ms www.ctpcertified.org [64.128.206.2]
Trace complete.
Line 4 includes the string “9 ms 10 ms 8 ms.” What do these numbers indicate?
A. The average time it took for the router to respond
B. The router’s three interfaces that are able to respond to the tracert query
C. The response time for the three packets sent by tracert to return from the router
D. The time it takes for intervening hosts to process the packets between your host and the router in question
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following will best help you determine the presence of bottlenecks in a switched LAN?
A. Disabling frame tagging
B. Enabling VLAN hopping
C. Establishing a baseline
D. Creating an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 73
What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) is the least restrictive?
A. Symmetric
B. Full cone
C. Restricted cone
D. Port restricted cone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following best describes ISDN Primary Rate Interface (PRI) in both North America and Europe?
A. In all areas, ISDN PRI offers two 64-Kbps “B” channels and one 16-Kbps “D” channel.
B. In Europe, Asia and Africa, ISDN PRI offers two 64-Kbps “B” channels and one 16-Kbps “D” channel; whereas in North America, it offers only two 64-Kbps “B” channels.
C. In Europe, Asia and Africa, ISDN PRI offers 30 64-Kbps “B” channels, plus two 64-Kbps “D” channels for framing and signaling, respectively; whereas in North America, it offers 23 64-Kbps “B” channels and one 64-Kbps “D” signaling channel.
D. In North America, ISDN PRI offers 30 64-Kbps “B” channels, plus two 64-Kbps “D” signaling channels for framing and signaling, respectively; whereas in Europe, Asia and Africa, it offers 23 64-Kbps “B” channels, plus one 64-Kbps “D” channel for framing and signaling.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 75
What is the call sequence as established by the Q.931 standard?
A. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
B. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, RELEASE
C. SETUP, CALL PROCEEDING, ALERTING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, DISCONNECT, RELEASE, RELEASE COMPLETE
D. ESTABLISH, SYN, SYN ACK, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, CALL PROCEEDING, DISCONNECT, RELEASE, RELEASE ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following best describes the IPv4 and IPv6 address formats?
A. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 8-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the eight 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
B. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 16-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the seven 32-bit fields is separated by a colon.
C. In IPv4 addresses, the subnet mask fields are separated by a dash, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the 10 8-bit fields is separated by a colon.
D. In IPv4 addresses, each of the 32-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6 addresses, each of the 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
What impact does the 3-bit User Priority field in an 802.1q frame have to help voice quality in LAN-based communications?
A. It stipulates the format of the MAC address for each network host.
B. It names a collision domain.
C. It replaces a system’s MAC address.
D. It identifies the prioritization settings.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 78
You need to choose a codec according to the following parameters:
-The codec should be standard for convergent voice and video calls.
-Due to the limited capability of the IP phones, the codec should require as little computation power as possible.
-The codec should create voice at a bit rate of 8 Kbps.
Which codec should you choose?
A. G.711
B. G.723.1
C. G.726
D. G.729a
Answer: D

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QUESTION 40
Which statement(s) are correct about the DOE Factorial plot output here? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

A. Two factors were operated at 3 levels each
B. The highest tool age was achieved with metal hardness at high level while keeping the cutting speed at the low level
C. The design indicated above is a 32 factorial design
D. The cutting speed and cutting angle are at the low level for the least tool age achieved
E. All factors had 2 levels in the experiment

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 41
Which statement(s) are incorrect for the Regression Analysis shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
B. The Regression explains over 98% of the process variation
C. This Multiple Linear Regression has three statistically significant independent variables
D. If the air-fuel ratio increases by 1, the TurbineOutput more than triples
E. The SteamExitTemp explains the most variation of the TurbineOutput

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 42
Which statement(s) are most correct for the Regression Analysis shown here?

A. The Regression explains 50.8% of the process variation
B. The air-fuel ratio explains most of the TurbineOutput variation
C. This Simple Linear Regression explains 98+% of the process variation
D. This Multiple Linear Regression has four statistically significant independent variables

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
A valid mathematical Regression represents all of the characteristics shown except ___________________________.
A. The residuals when plotted follow a Normal Distribution
B. The sum of the residuals is zero
C. All of the standardized residuals will be within ±3 Standard Deviations
D. Most standardized residuals are within ±2 Standard Deviations

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
When a Belt conducts a Linear Correlation Analysis and finds that as an X increases the Y also increase then he has proven a ______________ correlation.
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Monomial
D. Single alignment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A valid Multiple Linear Regression (MLR) is characterized by all of these except _______________________.
A. It is an assumption that the X’s (inputs) are not correlated to each other
B. The X’s (inputs) are assumed to be independent of each other
C. MLR is conducted based on a deliberate form of experimentation
D. The Residuals from MLR analysis have to be Normally Distributed

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
Which statement is NOT correct about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?

A. The independent variable is the reactant
B. If the reactant was 6 units, with 95 % confidence we would expect a minimum yield of 100 units
C. With at least 95% confidence, we can expect less than 10 units of Yield when the reactant is at a value of 1
D. A reactant value between 2 and 4 units yields around 20 to 40
E. When the reactant increases, the expected yield would increase

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
When doing Hypothesis Testing on Non-normal data Belts will use a ________________ to compare more than two sample proportions to each other.
A. Z score Table
B. Sakami Table
C. Mean-to-Mode Analysis
D. Contingency Table
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
It would be more likely than not for a Belt conducting a Regression Analysis to find that the _______________________.
A. r2 value is smaller than the absolute value of r
B. Correlation Coefficient equals r2
C. Coefficient of Determination is less than r2
D. Correlation Coefficient equals r divided by 2

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
When a Belt properly analyzes the results of an experiment he must examine the Residuals in expectation of finding all of the following except _________.
A. Some Residuals higher than others
B. Some Residuals lower than others
C. All Residuals within 2 Standard Deviations of the Mean
D. Residuals will represent a Linear Regression

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Which statement(s) are correct about the Regression shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. The dependent variable is the outside temperature
B. The relationship between outside temperature and number of customers per hour is a Linear Regression
C. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence where all of the process data should fall between
D. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence the estimate for the Quadratic Regression Line
E. The predicted number of customers per hour is close to 5 if the outside temperature is 10 deg C

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 51
Which of these might contribute to similar distributions having Unequal Variance?
A. Extreme tails
B. Outliers
C. Multiple Modes
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was estimated. Select the answer that best states the Practical Problem.
A. If the average cost per component is $4,200 or less, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
B. If the average cost per component is greater than $4,200, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
C. Only if the average cost per product upgrade is $4,060, will the purchase manager introduce new product upgrades with new components.
D. If the average cost per new product upgrade is less than $180, then the purchase manager will introduce the new product upgrade with new components.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was estimated. The Alternative Hypothesis in the above example is?
A. The Standard Deviation is equal to $300.
B. The Mean is less than $4,320.
C. The Mean is equal to $4,060.
D. The Mean is less than $4,200.
E. The Mean is greater than $ 4,200.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 54
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $3,600 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 42 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $3,200 and a Standard Deviation of $180 was estimated. Based on the data provided, the Z value for the data assuming a Normal Distribution is?
A. 1.11
B. 2.22
C. 4.30
D. 5.42

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Sally motivates Sara mentioning that they will sell a minimum of 15 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample, whose population

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QUESTION 71
If a measure is considered valid, it means that: A. It is easy to be obtained
B. It is objective
C. It measures what it is intended to measure
D. Two or more people can collect the same number
E. It is robust

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
The COSO Enterprise Risk Management model’s ____________ component ensures that management has a process in place to set objectives and that the chosen objectives support and align with the organization’s mission/vision.
A. Information and Communication
B. Objective Setting
C. Risk Assessment
D. Control Activities
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Statement Testing is included in which of the following test data categories?
A. Functional
B. Structural
C. Error Oriented
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
What is the risk that an organization faces if management does not take action to alter the risk’s likelihood or impact?
A. Risk Management
B. Risk Appetite
C. Enterprise Risk Management
D. Residual Risk
E. Inherent Risk
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 75
A help desk employee is allowed to hire a courier to deliver a report needed quickly by a user; but only up to a cost of $100. This means that the employee is being ___________.
A. Mentored
B. Empowered
C. Trained
D. Included
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Within COTS software, attributes designed to “get you out of trouble” when you get into trouble is which aspect of a COTS software?
A. Knowledge to Execute
B. Understandability
C. Quality of Communication
D. Effectiveness of Help Routines
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
One of the concerns that IT management needs to address with their staff when software development is outsourced to an outside organization is:
A. Why the contract was selected
B. Loss of employee morale
C. Need to cooperate with the contractor
D. Benefit to the organization by having software developed at a lower cost
E. Improved quality that can be achieved by contracting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
What is the primary responsibility of an internal auditor in maintaining the security system?
A. Define internal controls
B. Conduct training on internal controls
C. Examine internal controls and recommend improvements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Stress-testing subjects a system to which of the following types of tests?
A. Test Scripts
B. System Requirements
C. Large Volumes of Transactions
D. Change to Transactions
E. Error Conditions
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Which of the following tools category has a mathematical focus and is related to data collection or interpretation?
A. Management Tools
B. Presentation Tools
C. Statistical Tools
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 81
Process mapping identifies or maps relationships with all the below mentioned activities except?
A. Between processes and the organization’s mission and goals
B. Its process exit criteria and work products
C. Its deliverables (products and services)
D. Its functional units or roles (people)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
The system having adequate safeguards to protect the data against damage refers to which CSF?
A. Maintainability
B. Cost-effectiveness
C. Security
D. Reliability
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
Earned Value is used to:
A. Manage and Control the Product
B. Manage and Control the Process
C. Improve the Process
D. Manage the Risks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
If you want to ensure that individuals can effectively perform work processes, which activity would you implement to achieve that goal?
A. Measurement
B. Team Building
C. Performance Reviews
D. Career Development
E. Training
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 85
Which of the following Dynamic Testing techniques produces the highest defect yield?
A. Sliver Testing
B. Black-Box Testing
C. White-Box Testing
D. Thread Testing
E. Incremental Testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
There are many benefits associated with maturing work processes. As work processes mature, which of the following would be expected to decrease:
A. Training
B. Management Support
C. Defect Rates
D. Customer Satisfaction
E. Confidence in the Process
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87

Getting the right change installed at the right time is a responsibility of what type of software management?
A. Software Risk Management
B. Risk Management
C. Defect Management
D. Software Configuration Management
E. Software Test Management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Which of the following tools / techniques is a facilitated technique where all teammates participate by individually ranking ideas, issues, concerns, and solutions; then the group achieves a consensus by combining the individual rankings?
A. Brainstorming
B. Nominal Group Technique
C. Force Field Analysis
D. Affinity Diagram
E. Benchmarking
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
If you found, through testing software, that your IT project team was building software with an average of 58 defects per 1000 function points, this would be a:
A. Baseline
B. Benchmark
C. Complexity Metric
D. Size Measure
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
The optimal number of task force members is:
A. 1 – 3 members
B. 3 – 8 members
C. 8 – 10 members
D. No limit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 91
Which answer below is NOT one of the seven steps for implementing an IT quality function?
A. Develop a charter
B. Identify a quality manager
C. Staff and train the quality function
D. Audit the use of quality tools
E. Build support for quality
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Controls are placed near the end of a process or workbench because this is the most appropriate location.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 93
What is the correct definition for the term “testable requirements”?
A. A requirement with a test
B. A requirement with a minimum of two tests
C. A requirement that can be validated to be incorrect or correct
D. A requirement that will be tested during test execution
E. A requirement that will be assigned to a tester to test

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
If your customer complains that you made an error, you need to do the following:
A. If you are wrong, admit the error
B. Negotiate a satisfactory resolution
C. State solution and get agreement
D. Take action to implement a solution
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 95
Which type of monitoring focuses on the input or entrance criteria to a business process, for compliance to organizational policies?
A. Preventive Monitoring
B. Detective Monitoring
C. Management Monitoring
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 96
Characteristics such as ‘product based’, ‘defect detection’, relates to:
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Improvement

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 97
If the data in a pie chart represent five components of a total population and four of the five sections of the pie chart represent 5%, 25%, 50%, and 10% of the total population, what percentage of the total population is the fifth section?
A. 100%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 5%
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 98
One of the primary objectives of process control is to:
A. Reduce Variability
B. Increase Competition
C. Improve Metrics
D. Find Root Causes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
The Pareto analysis statistical quality tool is more commonly known as:
A. Fishbone Diagram
B. Run Chart
C. Scatter Diagram
D. 80 / 20 Rule
E. Tally Sheet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 100
A Standard states:
A. What
B. When
C. Where
D. Why
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 50
You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You want to see the list of the filesystems mounted automatically at startup by the mount -a command in the /etc/rc startup file. Which of the following Unix configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/named.conf
B. /etc/groups
C. /etc/mtab
D. /etc/fstab
Answer: D Explanation: In Unix, the /etc/fstab file is used by system administrators to list the filesystems that are mounted automatically at startup by the mount –a command (in /etc/rc or its equivalent startup file). Answer: C is incorrect. In Unix, the /etc/mtab file contains a list of the currently mounted file systems. This is set up by the boot scripts and updated by the mount command. Answer: A is incorrect. In Unix, the /etc/named.conf file is used for domain name servers. Answer: B is incorrect. In Unix, the /etc/groups file contains passwords to let a user join a group.

QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?
A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
B. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
C. Exposure Factor (EF)
D. Safeguard
Answer: B Explanation: The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Answer: C is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). Answer: A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) Answer: D is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats.
QUESTION NO: 52

An executive in your company reports odd behavior on her PDA. After investigation you discover that a trusted device is actually copying data off the PDA. The executive tells you that the behavior started shortly after accepting an e-business card from an unknown person. What type of attack is this?
A. Session Hijacking
B. Bluesnarfing
C. Privilege Escalation
D. PDA Hijacking
Answer: B Explanation: Bluesnarfing is a rare attack in which an attacker takes control of a bluetooth enabled device. One way to do this is to get your PDA to accept the attacker’s device as a trusted device.

QUESTION NO: 53
You work as the Project Engineer for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. Your office consists of one server, seventy client computers, and one print device. You raise a request for printing a confidential page. After 30 minutes, you find that your print request job is not processed and is at the seventh position in the printer queue. You analyze that it shall take another one hour to print. You decide to remove your job from the printer queue and get your page printed outside the office. Which of the following Unix commands can you use to remove your job from the printer queue?
A. tunelp
B. pr
C. lprm
D. gs
Answer: C Explanation: The basic Unix printing commands are as follows: banner: It is used to print a large banner on a printer. lpr: It is used to submit a job to the printer. lpc: It enables one to check the status of the printer and set its state. lpq: It shows the contents of a spool directory for a given printer. lprm: It is used to remove a job from the printer queue. gs: It works as a PostScript interpreter. pr: It is used to print a file. tunelp: It is used to set various parameters for the lp device.

QUESTION NO: 54
You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You want to run a command that forces all the unwritten blocks in the buffer cache to be written to the disk. Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. swapon
B. tune2fs
C. swapoff
D. sync
Answer: D Explanation: The sync command is used to flush filesystem buffers. It ensures that all disk writes have been completed before the processor is halted or rebooted. Generally, it is preferable to use reboot or halt to shut down a system, as they may perform additional actions such as resynchronizing the hardware clock and flushing internal caches before performing a final sync. Answer: B is incorrect. In Unix, the tune2fs command is used to adjust tunable filesystem parameters on the second extended filesystems. Answer: A is incorrect. In Unix, the swapon command is used to activate a swap partition. Answer: C is incorrect. In Unix, the swapoff command is used to de-activate a swap partition.

QUESTION NO: 55
You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company’s network has an FTP server. You want to secure the server so that only authorized users can access it. What will you do to accomplish this?
A. Disable anonymous authentication.
B. Stop the FTP service on the server.
C. Disable the network adapter on the server.
D. Enable anonymous authentication.
Answer: A Explanation: You will have to disable anonymous authentication. This will prevent unauthorized users from accessing the FTP server. Anonymous authentication (anonymous access) is a method of authentication for Websites. Using this method, a user can establish a Web connection to the IIS server without providing a username and password. Hence, this is an insecure method of authentication. This method is generally used to permit unknown users to access the Web or FTP server directories. Answer: D is incorrect. Enabling anonymous authentication will allow all the users to access the server. Answer: B is incorrect. Stopping the FTP service on the server will

prevent all the users from accessing the FTP server. Answer: C is incorrect. Disabling the network
adapter on the FTP server will disconnect the server from the network.

QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following statements about a perimeter network are true? (Choose three)
A. It has a connection to the Internet through an external firewall and a connection to an internal network through an interior firewall.
B. It has a connection to a private network through an external firewall and a connection to an internal network through an interior firewall.
C. It is also known as a demilitarized zone or DMZ.
D. It prevents access to the internal corporate network for outside users.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation: A perimeter network, also known as a demilitarized zone or DMZ, is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network. It has a connection to the Internet through an external firewall and a connection to the internal network through an interior firewall. It allows outside users access to the specific servers located in the perimeter network while preventing access to the internal corporate network. Servers, routers, and switches that maintain security by preventing the internal network from being exposed on the Internet are placed in a perimeter network. A perimeter network is commonly used for deploying e-mail and Web servers for a company.

QUESTION NO: 57
John works as a Network Administrator for We-are-secure Inc. The We-are-secure server is based on Windows Server 2003. One day, while analyzing the network security, he receives an error message that Kernel32.exe is encountering a problem. Which of the following steps should John take as a countermeasure to this situation?
A. He should download the latest patches for Windows Server 2003 from the Microsoft site, so that he can repair the kernel.
B. He should restore his Windows settings.
C. He should observe the process viewer (Task Manager) to see whether any new process is running on the computer or not. If any new malicious process is running, he should kill that process.
D. He should upgrade his antivirus program.

Answer: C,D Explanation: In such a situation, when John receives an error message revealing that Kernel32.exe is encountering a problem, he needs to come to the conclusion that his antivirus program needs to be updated, because Kernel32.exe is not a Microsoft file (It is a Kernel32.DLL file.). Although such viruses normally run on stealth mode, he should examine the process viewer (Task Manager) to see whether any new process is running on the computer or not. If any new process (malicious) is running on the server, he should exterminate that process. Answer: A, B are incorrect. Since kernel.exe is not a real kernel file of Windows, there is no need to repair or download any patch for Windows Server 2003 from the Microsoft site to repair the kernel. Note: Such error messages can be received if the computer is infected with malware, such as Worm_Badtrans.b, Backdoor.G_Door, Glacier Backdoor, Win32.Badtrans.29020, etc.

QUESTION NO: 58
In addition to denying and granting access, what other services does a firewall support?
A. Network Access Translation (NAT)
B. Secondary connections
C. Control Internet access based on keyword restriction
D. Data caching
Answer: A,C,D Explanation: A firewall is a tool to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports. Firewalls often have network address translation (NAT) functionality. The hosts protected behind a firewall commonly have addresses in the private address range. Firewalls have such functionality to hide the true address of protected hosts. Firewalls are used by administrators to control Internet access based on keyword restriction. Some proxy firewalls can cache data so that clients can access frequently requested data from the local cache instead of using the Internet connection to request it. This is convenient for cutting down on unnecessary bandwidth consumption. Answer: B is incorrect. It is an area where a firewall faces difficulty in securing the network. It is the area where employees make alternate connections to the Internet for their personal use, resulting in useless rendering of the firewall.
QUESTION NO: 59

Which of the following are the goals of risk management? (Choose three)
A. Identifying the risk
B. Assessing the impact of potential threats
C. Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure
D. Identifying the accused
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: There are three goals of risk management as follows: Identifying the risk Assessing the impact of potential threats Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure Answer: D is incorrect. Identifying the accused does not come under the scope of risk management.

QUESTION NO: 60
Ryan wants to create an ad hoc wireless network so that he can share some important files with another employee of his company. Which of the following wireless security protocols should he choose for setting up an ad hoc wireless network?
(Choose two)
A. WPA2 -EAP
B. WPA-PSK
C. WEP
D. WPA-EAP
Answer: B,C Explanation: Ryan can either choose WEP or WPA-PSK wireless protocol to set an ad hoc wireless network. Answer: A is incorrect. WPA2-EAP cannot be chosen for an ad hoc wireless network, as it requires RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial- In User Service) server for authentication. Answer: D is incorrect. WPA-EAP cannot be chosen for an ad hoc wireless network, as it requires RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) server for authentication.
QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following mechanisms is closely related to authorization?
A. Sending secret data such as credit card information.
B. Allowing access to a particular resource.
C. Verifying username and password.
D. Sending data so that no one can alter it on the way.
Answer: B Explanation: Authorization is a process that verifies whether a user has permission to access a Web resource. A Web server can restrict access to some of its resources to only those clients that log in using a recognized username and password. To be authorized, a user must first be authenticated. Answer: C is incorrect. Verifying username and password describes the mechanism of authentication. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a user. This is usually done using a user name and password. This process compares the provided user name and password with those stored in the database of an authentication server. Answer: D is incorrect. Sending data so that no one can alter it on the way describes the mechanism of data integrity. Data integrity is a mechanism that ensures that the data is not modified during transmission from source to destination. This means that the data received at the destination should be exactly the same as that sent from the source. Answer: A is incorrect. Sending secret data such as credit card information describes the mechanism of confidentiality. Confidentiality is a mechanism that ensures that only the intendeA, Duthorized recipients are able to read data. The data is so encrypted that even if an unauthorized user gets access to it, he will not get any meaning out of it.

QUESTION NO: 62
An auditor assesses the database environment before beginning the audit. This includes various key tasks that should be performed by an auditor to identify and prioritize the users, data, activities, and applications to be monitored. Which of the following tasks need to be performed by the auditor manually?
A. Classifying data risk within the database systems
B. Monitoring data changes and modifications to the database structure, permission and user changes, and data viewing activities
C. Analyzing access authority
D. Archiving, analyzing, reviewing, and reporting of audit information
Answer: A,C Explanation: The Internal Audit Association lists the following as key components of a database audit: Create an inventory of all database systems and use classifications. This should include production and test data. Keep it up-to-date. Classify data risk within the database systems. Monitoring should be prioritized for high, medium, and low risk data. Implement an access request process that requires database owners to authorize the “roles” granted to database accounts (roles as in Role Based Access and not the native database roles). Analyze access authority. Users with higher degrees of access permission should be under higher scrutiny, and any account for which access has been suspended should be monitored to ensure access is denieA, Dttempts are identified. Assess application coverage. Determine what applications have built-in controls, and prioritize database auditing accordingly. All privileged user access must have audit priority. Legacy and custom applications are the next highest priority to consider, followed by the packaged applications. Ensure technical safeguards. Make sure access controls are set properly. Audit the activities. Monitor data changes and modifications to the database structure, permission and user changes, and data viewing activities. Consider using network-based database activity monitoring appliances instead of native database audit trails. Archive, analyze, review, and report audit information. Reports to auditors and IT managers must communicate relevant audit information, which can be analyzed and reviewed to determine if corrective action is required. Organizations that must retain audit data for long-term use should archive this information with the ability to retrieve relevant data when needed. The first five steps listed are to be performed by the auditor manually. Answer: B, D are incorrect. These tasks are best achieved by using an automated solution.

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QUESTION 41
A control that detects transmission errors by appending calculated bits onto the end of each segment of data is known as a:
A. reasonableness check.
B. parity check.
C. redundancy check.
D. check digits. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A redundancy check detects transmission errors by appending calculated bits onto the end
of each segment of datA.
Incorrect answers:

A. A reasonableness check compares data to predefined reasonability limits or occurrence rates established for the datA.
B. A parity check is a hardware control that detects data errors when data are read from one computer to another, from memory or during transmission.
D. Check digits detect transposition and transcription errors.
QUESTION 42
What is the primary objective of a control self-assessment (CSA) program?
A. Enhancement of the audit responsibility
B. Elimination of the audit responsibility
C. Replacement of the audit responsibility
D. Integrity of the audit responsibility Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Audit responsibility enhancement is an objective of a control self-assessment (CSA) program.
QUESTION 43
IS auditors are MOST likely to perform compliance tests of internal controls if, after their initial evaluation of the controls, they conclude that control risks are within the acceptable limits. True or false?
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
IS auditors are most likely to perform compliance tests of internal controls if, after their initial evaluation of the controls, they conclude that control risks are within the acceptable limits. Think of it this way: If any reliance is placed on internal controls, that reliance must be validated through compliance testing. High control risk results in little reliance on internal controls, which results in additional substantive testing.
QUESTION 44
As compared to understanding an organization’s IT process from evidence directly collected, how valuable are prior audit reports as evidence?
A. The same value.
B. Greater value.
C. Lesser value.
D. Prior audit reports are not relevant. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Prior audit reports are considered of lesser value to an IS auditor attempting to gain an understanding of an organization’s IT process than evidence directly collected.
QUESTION 45
What is the PRIMARY purpose of audit trails?
A. To document auditing efforts
B. To correct data integrity errors
C. To establish accountability and responsibility for processed transactions
D. To prevent unauthorized access to data Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The primary purpose of audit trails is to establish accountability and responsibility for processed transactions.
QUESTION 46
How does the process of systems auditing benefit from using a risk-based approach to audit planning?
A. Controls testing starts earlier.
B. Auditing resources are allocated to the areas of highest concern.
C. Auditing risk is reduced.
D. Controls testing is more thorough. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Allocation of auditing resources to the areas of highest concern is a benefit of a risk-based approach to audit planning.
QUESTION 47
After an IS auditor has identified threats and potential impacts, the auditor should:
A. Identify and evaluate the existing controls
B. Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)
C. Report on existing controls
D. Propose new controls Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
After an IS auditor has identified threats and potential impacts, the auditor should then identify and evaluate the existing controls.
QUESTION 48
The use of statistical sampling procedures helps minimize:
A. Detection risk
B. Business risk
C. Controls risk
D. Compliance risk Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The use of statistical sampling procedures helps minimize detection risk.
QUESTION 49
What type of risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist?
A. Business risk
B. Detection risk
C. Residual risk
D. Inherent risk Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Detection risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist.
QUESTION 50
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can:
A. Identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later
B. Reduce audit costs
C. Reduce audit time
D. Increase audit accuracy Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later.
QUESTION 51
What type of approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment?
A. Bottom-up
B. Top-down
C. Comprehensive
D. Integrated Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
A bottom-up approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment.
QUESTION 52
Who is accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets?
A. Data and systems owners
B. Data and systems users
C. Data and systems custodians
D. Data and systems auditors Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Data and systems owners are accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets.
QUESTION 53
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality-assurance functions. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality-assurance functions.
QUESTION 54
What should an IS auditor do if he or she observes that project-approval procedures do not exist?
A. Advise senior management to invest in project-management training for the staff
B. Create project-approval procedures for future project implementations
C. Assign project leaders
D. Recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
If an IS auditor observes that project-approval procedures do not exist, the IS auditor should recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented.
QUESTION 55
Who is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy?
A. The board of directors
B. Middle management
C. Security administrators
D. Network administrators Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The board of directors is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy.
QUESTION 56
Proper segregation of duties normally does not prohibit a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities. True or false?
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties normally prohibits a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities.
QUESTION 57
A core tenant of an IS strategy is that it must:
A. Be inexpensive
B. Be protected as sensitive confidential information
C. Protect information confidentiality, integrity, and availability
D. Support the business objectives of the organization Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Above all else, an IS strategy must support the business objectives of the organization.
QUESTION 58
Batch control reconciliation is a _____________________ (fill in the blank) control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Preventative
D. Compensatory Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Batch control reconciliations is a compensatory control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
QUESTION 59
.
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that:

A. Data is entered correctly
B. Only authorized cryptographic keys are used
C. Input is authorized
D. Database indexing is performed properly Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that data is entered correctly.
QUESTION 60
. If senior management is not committed to strategic planning, how likely is it that a company’s implementation of IT will be successful?
A. IT cannot be implemented if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
B. More likely.
C. Less likely.
D. Strategic planning does not affect the success of a company’s implementation of IT.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A company’s implementation of IT will be less likely to succeed if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
QUESTION 61
. Which of the following could lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy
B. Failure to comply with a company’s information security policy
C. A momentary lapse of reason
D. Lack of security policy enforcement procedures Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy could lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality.
QUESTION 62
. What topology provides the greatest redundancy of routes and the greatest network fault tolerance?
A. A star network topology
B. A mesh network topology with packet forwarding enabled at each host
C. A bus network topology
D. A ring network topology Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
A mesh network topology provides a point-to-point link between every network host. If each host is configured to route and forward communication, this topology provides the greatest redundancy of routes and the greatest network fault tolerance.
QUESTION 63
. An IS auditor usually places more reliance on evidence directly collected. What is an example of such evidence?
A. Evidence collected through personal observation
B. Evidence collected through systems logs provided by the organization’s security administration
C. Evidence collected through surveys collected from internal staff
D. Evidence collected through transaction reports provided by the organization’s IT administration Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
An IS auditor usually places more reliance on evidence directly collected, such as through personal observation.
QUESTION 64
. What kind of protocols does the OSI Transport Layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite provide to ensure reliable communication?
A. Nonconnection-oriented protocols
B. Connection-oriented protocols
C. Session-oriented protocols
D. Nonsession-oriented protocols Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The transport layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite provides for connection-oriented protocols to ensure reliable communication.
QUESTION 65
. How is the time required for transaction processing review usually affected by properly implemented Electronic Data Interface (EDI)?
A. EDI usually decreases the time necessary for review.
B. EDI usually increases the time necessary for review.
C. Cannot be determined.
D. EDI does not affect the time necessary for review. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Electronic data interface (EDI) supports intervendor communication while decreasing the time necessary for review because it is usually configured to readily identify errors requiring follow-up.
QUESTION 66
.
What would an IS auditor expect to find in the console log? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Evidence of password spoofing
B. System errors
C. Evidence of data copy activities
D. Evidence of password sharing Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
An IS auditor can expect to find system errors to be detailed in the console log.
QUESTION 67
. Atomicity enforces data integrity by ensuring that a transaction is either completed in its entirely or not at all. Atomicity is part of the ACID test reference for transaction processing. True or false?
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Atomicity enforces data integrity by ensuring that a transaction is either completed in its entirely or not at all. Atomicity is part of the ACID test reference for transaction processing.
QUESTION 68
.
Why does the IS auditor often review the system logs?

A. To get evidence of password spoofing
B. To get evidence of data copy activities
C. To determine the existence of unauthorized access to data by a user or program
D. To get evidence of password sharing Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
When trying to determine the existence of unauthorized access to data by a user or program, the IS auditor will often review the system logs.
QUESTION 69
. What is essential for the IS auditor to obtain a clear understanding of network management?
A. Security administrator access to systems
B. Systems logs of all hosts providing application services
C. A graphical map of the network topology
D. Administrator access to systems
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A graphical interface to the map of the network topology is essential for the IS auditor to obtain a clear understanding of network management.
QUESTION 70
.
How is risk affected if users have direct access to a database at the system level?

A. Risk of unauthorized access increases, but risk of untraceable changes to the database decreases.
B. Risk of unauthorized and untraceable changes to the database increases.
C. Risk of unauthorized access decreases, but risk of untraceable changes to the database increases.
D. Risk of unauthorized and untraceable changes to the database decreases. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
If users have direct access to a database at the system level, risk of unauthorized and untraceable changes to the database increases.
QUESTION 71
.
What is the most common purpose of a virtual private network implementation?

A. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over an otherwise unsecured channel such as the Internet.
B. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over a dedicated T1 connection.
C. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access within an enterprise when communicating over a dedicated T1 connection between network segments within the same facility.
D. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over a wireless connection.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over an otherwise unsecured channel such as the Internet.

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QUESTION 46
Estimated third party payor settlements are the category of?
A. Current assets
B. Current Equity
C. Current Expenses
D. Current liabilities

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which are the obligations to pay suppliers who have sold the health care organization goods or services on credit?
A. Account suppliers
B. Account payable
C. Account receivable
D. Accrued Account

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Accrued expenses are the liabilities and are reflected in the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
For not-for-profit health care providers, the net assets section of the balance sheet is analogous to the owner’s equity section of a for-profit organization’s statement of cash flow.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
Stockholders equity for investors-owned organizations represents:
A. Stock and retained earnings
B. Stock and accrual earnings
C. Stock and sales D. Stock and purchase

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51
Which of the following in NOT the body of the income statement for investors-owned health care organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Income for taxes
D. Excess of revenues

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
Which of the following in NOT the body of the statement of operations for non-for-profit health care organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Net income
D. Excess of revenues

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53
uses the accrual basis of accounting, which summarizes how much the organization earned and the resources it used to generate that income during a period of time.
A. Balance sheet
B. Non-operating income
C. Statement of operations
D. Accounting system for income

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
Revenues represent amounts earned by the organization would, not the amount of it received during the period.
A. Cash
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
Premium revenues are the revenues earned from capitated contracts which are not earned solely through the delivery of service but rather through a passage of time.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
Which are a measure of the amount of resources used or consumed in providing a service, not cash-out flows?
A. Operating income
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Income derived from the organization’s main line of business is called:
A. Depreciated income
B. Operative income
C. Net income
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
The allocation of the acquisition cost of debt to the period which it benefits refers to:
A. Depreciated income
B. Accrual expense
C. Net income
D. Amortization

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Bad debt expense is:
A. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will not be collected.
B. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will be collected.
C. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will not be collected.
D. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will be collected.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Working capital is:
A. Current assets and current liabilities
B. Current expenses and current revenues
C. Expected assets and expected liabilities
D. Expected expenses and expected revenues
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
The difference between current assets and current liabilities is called:
A. Net accounting gain
B. Net expenditure
C. Net working capital
D. Net profit

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Which of the following is NOT the phase of the working capital cycle?
A. Obtaining cash
B. Turning cash into resources
C. Resources are restricted to be used seldom
D. Billing patients for the services and collecting revenues

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
How much extra working capital an organization determines it must keep as a cushion is called its:
A. Obtaining cash strategy
B. Working capital strategy
C. Financing mix strategy
D. Billing strategy

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
A strategy that refers to how an organization chooses to finance its working capital needs is called:
A. Asset mix
B. Aggressive mix
C. Conservative mix
D. Financing mix

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
A health care organization that utilizes an aggressive asset mix strategy seeks to minimize its returns by investing in non-liquid assets but faces the risk of lower liquidity.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
If the organization has long-term working capital financing needs, it is better off financing needs with short-term financing under normal conditions.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
are variable in short-term and fixed in long-term under normal conditions for working capital.
A. Interest rates
B. Volatility risks
C. Profits
D. Interest costs

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QUESTION 17
A Storwize V7000 system with one control enclosure and three expansion enclosures at the local site is being replicated to a Storwize V7000 system with one control enclosure and two expansion enclosures at the remote site.
How many remote replication licenses need to be entered for the local site?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
An implementer is creating zoning to support Metro Mirror or Global Mirror between two Storwize V7000 systems.
Based on best practice what is the number of replication zones to create in each fabric?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
After collecting the logs from the Storwize V7000, where would an IT administrator submit the Storwize V7000 data for IBM support to analyze?
A. IBM Support portal
B. IBM Fix Central
C. ftp boulder ibm.com
D. Enhanced Customer Data Repository

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
When performing the initial system setup for the Storwize V7000 which login credential are required the set up?
A. username: administrator – password admin0
B. username: admin – password: admin
C. username: superuser – password: password
D. username: root – password: Password

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
A customer unpacks their new Storwize V7000 Along with the Storwize V7000 control enclosures find the following items: 2 x expansion enclosures 2 x 5m FC cables 4 x 1m SAS cables 24 x 600 GB HDDs
What additional item is required to install the system?
A. 1m FC cables
B. 3m SAS cable
C. IBM Storwize V7000 Quick Installation Guide
D. USB key

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
During preparation for Storwize V7000 implementation, it is stated that the network security team isolates every subnet in the enterprise with its own firewall. Furthermore, the customer states that the default firewall policy is to reject all protocols.
To access the management GUI, what protocol must be allowed through the firewall isolating the Storwize V7000?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SSH

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
As part of a Storwize V7000 implementation project twelve Global Mirror with Change Volume relationships are planned for creation. All twelve master volumes are contained in a single pool on the primary Storwize V7000 and all twelve auxiliary volumes are contained in a single pool on the secondary Storwize V7000. During implementation it is found that no more than six Global Mirror with Change Volume relationships can exist at one time.
Which of the following Storwize V7000 configuration changes will most likely resolve this issue?
A. Increase the number of primary and secondary volumes
B. Increase the size of the primary and secondary volumes
C. Increase the cycle time on Global Mirror with Change Volume relationships
D. Increase the size of the pools containing the primary and secondary volumes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What action must be taken to receive timely updates automatically on firmware and flash updates/ releases?
A. Register to receive IBM My Notifications
B. Sign up for Fix Central notifications
C. Use the Storwi2e V7000 Call Home feature
D. Utilize the Storwize V7000 GUI for alert notifications

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Where should the user go to in the GUI when IBM support requires additional diagnostic information?
A. Run svc_snap command
B. Go to Monitoring > Event
C. Go to Settings > Support > Download Support Package
D. Go to Settings > Support > Show full log listing

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
Which GUI volume preset should the storage administrator choose to minimize consumption of the storage pool while being closely related to the number of writes from the host?
A. Mirror
B. Thin-Provisioned
C. Thin Mirror
D. Generic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Beginning with V6.4.0 a Storwize V7000 can Virtualize another Storwize system What must be changed?
A. Layer attribute changed from factory default on the Storwize V7000
B. From the GUI – cluster the two systems together
C. Call IBM support for the licensing feature
D. Layer attribute changed from factory defaults on the virtualized Storwize system

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
An implementer has started the Storwize V7000 management GUI for the first time. What item is displayed automatically in the GUI?
A. Serial number
B. IBM’s email address for Gall Home support
C. Date and time
D. Licenses

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
An implementer is creating a clustered Storwize V7000 via the GUI The nodes of the second control enclosure need to be in what state?
A. Service mode
B. Candidate status

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QUESTION NO: 36
What algorithm is usually selected when voice is companded at 64 Kbps in all parts of the world except North America and Japan?
A. A-Law
B. Mu-Law
C. G.711
D. G.729a
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Which term describes a method of attacking resources on a VLAN?
A. Dictionary attack
B. VLAN hopping
C. VLAN spamming
D. Social engineering
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Consider the following IP address in CIDR notation:
142.98.8.0/26
How many addresses can theoretically be in each subnet?

A. 62
B. 254
C. 4,094
D. 1,048,574
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
What impact does the 3-bit User Priority field in an 802.1q frame have to help voice quality in LAN-based communications?
A. It stipulates the format of the MAC address for each network host.
B. It names a collision domain.
C. It replaces a system’s MAC address.
D. It identifies the prioritization settings.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
You require an architecture that provides the following:

Support for both packet-switched and circuit-switched calls


Support for fixed and mobile voice calls and data transmission
-A non-proprietary architecture

Ability to enable access to the Internet


Ability to interoperate with SIP.
Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Calling Line Identification Presentation (CLIP)
B. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
C. Session Announcement Protocol (SAP)
D. Realtime Transport Protocol (RTP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following describes how Realtime Control Protocol (RTCP) allocates a port when it is paired with the Realtime Transport Protocol (RTP)?
A. RTCP uses TCP port 8080.
B. RTCP uses UDP port 1719.
C. RTCP allocates a port one greater than that used by RTP.
D. RTCP relies on the SIP proxy or H.323 gateway to determine the port used.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following will occur if best-effort delivery is implemented instead of traffic shaping on a convergent network?
A. Queues, buffers, and traffic ingress
B. Congestion, jitter, and bursts of egress traffic
C. Latency, reduced traffic, and lower packet loss
D. Lower egress traffic bursts, packet loss, and wander
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following are basic configuration settings for a wireless NIC?
A. SSID and RTP settings
B. Channel and 802.3 settings
C. MAC address filtering and subnet mask
D. SSID and channel
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which standard used by a wireless access point uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) to encrypt data, voice and video?
A. 802.3af
B. 802.11i
C. RADIUS
D. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 45
As a general rule, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Decreasing compression increases bandwidth usage and reduces voice quality.
B. Increasing compression to reduce bandwidth consumption increases voice quality.
C. Increasing compression increases bandwidth consumption and reduces voice quality.
D. Increasing compression to reduce bandwidth consumption reduces voice quality.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 36
When an instructor is trying to gather information from learners about a subject, which of the following question types can be asked?
A. Closed-ended
B. Open-ended
C. Clarifying
D. True/false

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
An instructor wants to quickly evaluate learner knowledge after an exercise. Which of the following methods would BEST achieve this?
A. Give a written exam on the topic.
B. Have the learners perform an additional exercise on the topic
C. Ask the learners random questions about the topic.
D. Have the learners engage in a group discussion of the topic.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Which of the following is an essential technique for holding a learner’s attention?
A. Providing a model for professional and interpersonal behavior
B. Using humorous stories to interest learners in the course content
C. Asking open-ended questions and allowing sufficient time for learners to elaborate on their responses
D. Using eye contact to engage learners when making an oral presentation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
After teaching a very long block of instruction before lunch, the instructor wants to check how well the learners have learned the material. Which of the following methods is the BEST to accomplish this goal?
A. Have the learners answer review questions about the block of instruction
B. Have each learner recite what was said during the block of instruction
C. Give the learners home work that night and go over it the next day
D. Put the learners in groups to discuss the instruction that was taught.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
An instructor completed the required content of a technical course early. The instructor decided to fill the time by writing tasks on the board and assigning them to individual students. A timeline was provided for the overall task completion and all students were expected to apply their new knowledge to the task assigned. The instructor then proceeded to work on plans for the next course in this situation, which of the following statements about the appropriateness of the activity is true?
A. It was appropriate because use of the exercises covered the gap in the timing of the course.
B. It was appropriate because the students were given a frame of reference upon which to apply what they learned.
C. It was inappropriate because it placed a heavy burden on students to successfully complete the exercise.
D. It was inappropriate because it did not offer students a stated learning result applicable to their experience

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
Pause at an appropriate place during a presentation can contribute to: (Select TWO)
A. Reviewing the material
B. Maintaining consistent behavior
C. Adding emphasis to a statement
D. Pronouncing words properly
E. Assessing learner’s level of interest

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 42
Prior to a course an instructor remembers that learners always challenge a topic’s technical accuracy. Which of the following actions should the instructor take in order to avoid this?
A. Allow the learners to decide on a resolution.
B. Omit the topic from the course.
C. Tell the learners that controversy on this topic is normal
D. Produce authoritative references.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
An instructor gives several tests over the course of the class. The tests given should focus on:
A. The prerequisites of the course
B. The syllabus objectives
C. Knowledge learned
D. Objectives covered

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A contract instructor is preparing training materials for a corporate client. The corporate client has supplied standardized material, but wishes to tailor it for their particular needs. Which of the following steps would BEST address this situation?
A. Use the standardized material and supply the learners with supplemental visual aids,
B. Modify the standardized materials as necessary to suit the expectations of the corporate client.
C. Use the standardized material and explain how this material will be sufficient to meet their needs
D. Ask the corporate client to supplement the material after the class.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
An instructor is delivering a course with limited time and has learners with various skill levels. Which of the following would the instructor do to BEST follow up any needs of the learners?
A. Offer fee based consulting for the program
B. Divide the class into groups with similar skill sets
C. Provide additional material on the technology
D. Contract for additional training time

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
An instructor was preparing for a one-hour virtual class anticipating that several questions would come up during the event. Which of the following steps should the instructor take to prepare for this session?
A. Conduct a pre-course assessment to defer any questions
B. Ask all participants to hold questions until the end to manage time
C. Prepare answers to common questions ahead of time
D. Only allow five minutes for questions at the beginning of the training

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
An instructor is teaching a beginner topic. Most of the learners explain that they are already familiar with the course content. Which of the following should the instructor do?
A. Continue the class as planned assuring completion of current course objectives
B. Ask the advanced learners what they would like to cover in the course and then change objectives based on advanced learner’s requests.
C. Ask the experienced learners to return for a more advanced course
D. Modify the curriculum as necessary to fulfill student expectations while still meeting course objectives.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
While giving an overhead presentation the projector being used powers off. Which of the following is the FIRST course of action?
A. Take a break and have technical support address the problem.
B. Lecture from the instructor notes until the next break.
C. Dismiss the class until the projector can be fixed.
D. Have technical support correct the problem immediately during class

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
An instructor is contracted to teach a highly technical on-site course. The instructor walks into a classroom filled with learners from various backgrounds. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Ask each student about their level of knowledge about the content in order to tailor the courseware
B. Incorporate more demonstrations during course delivery to make the content more interesting.
C. Immediately discuss the nature of the situation with the course contact and ask how much of the content should actually be taught
D. Reschedule the class after a skills assessment to better prepare for the class.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 86
Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Design coordination
D. Release management

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after?
1.
What is the vision?

2.
Where are we now?

3.
Where do we want to be?

4.
How do we get there?

5.
Did we get there?

6.
?
A. What is the return on investment (ROI)?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the value on investment (VOI)?

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 89
Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?
A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)
B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Which of the following BEST describes a problem?
A. An issue reported by a user
B. The cause of two or more incidents
C. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business
D. The cause of one or more incidents

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Service desk
D. Shared services unit

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
A. Incidents can only be reported by users
B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service
C. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidents
D. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?
A. Incident management
B. Access management
C. Change management
D. Request fulfillment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 95
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1.
Data mining and workflow

2.
Measurement and reporting

3.
Release and deployment

4.
Process design
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 96
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A. As many as necessary to complete the activity
B. Only one – the process owner
C. Two – the process owner and the process enactor
D. Only one – the process architect

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 97
The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?
A. A change
B. A change model
C. A change request
D. A change advisory board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
Where should the following information be stored?
1.
The experience of staff

2.
Records of user behaviour

3.
Supplier’s abilities and requirements

4.
User skill levels
A. The forward schedule of change
B. The service portfolio
C. A configuration management database (CMDB)
D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 99
Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1.
The approach is pre-authorized

2.
The risk is usually low and well understood

3.
Details of the change will be recorded

4.
Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access management
B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management
D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?
A. Incident management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Capacity management
D. IT service continuity management

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
B. Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider
C. Reports should be produced weekly
D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 103
Which one of the following does service metrics measure?
A. Functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end-to-end service
D. Infrastructure availability
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and resultant incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 105
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A. Demand management
B. Incident management
C. Release and deployment management
D. Request fulfillment

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?
A. Technical management
B. IT operations management
C. Request fulfillment
D. Applications management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 107
Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1.
Logging details of incidents and service requests

2.
Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis

3.
Restoring service

4.
Implementing all standard changes
A. All of the above
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 108
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A. Do
B. Perform
C. Implement
D. Measure

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 110
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?
A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality
B. Strategic, tactical and operational
C. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
D. Technology, process and service

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 111
Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1.
Customers

2.
Users

3.
Suppliers
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?
A. User
B. Customer
C. Supplier
D. Administrator

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 113
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
A. Request fulfilment
B. Service portfolio management
C. Service desk
D. IT finance

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
C. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
D. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 115
Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

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