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QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA? Cisco 642-887 dumps
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC
642-887
QUESTION 4
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress,classify based on the qos group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two features are used to provide Cisco 642-887 dumps MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
Cisco 642-887 dumps MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and Micosoft 70-413 exam AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.
70-413
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the 70-413 pdf GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.

QUESTION 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the 70-413 vce research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the 70-413 dumps current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations.
Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the 70-413 VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

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QUESTION 28
Which three tasks can you perform with Disk Utility? (Choose three).
A. Erase a CD-RW disk.
B. Determine disk usage by user name.
C. Verify and repair a UFS-formatted disk.
D. Create an encrypted partition on a hard disk.
E. Discover details about top-level directories on a FireWire disk drive.
F. Discover details about a FireWire drive such as size and configuration.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 29
To make a font available to Classic applications, install the font in ______________.
A. /User/Fonts
B. /Library/Fonts
C. /System Folder/Fonts
D. /System Library/Fonts
E. /System Folder/Font Book
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Mac OS X v10.3 administrator named “Certkiller” can view the details of a kernel panic in ____________.
A. /Library/Logs/kp.log
B. /Library/Logs/panic.log
C. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Logs/kp.log
D. /Users/Certkiller /Library/Logs/panic.log
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
A disk image file ___________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. can be encrypted at the time it is created B. has the extension .img or .dmg by default
C. can only be created from the command line
D. is represented by a folder icon when mounted
E. can only be create by the System Administrator
F. may represent a compressed folder and its content

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 32
Disk utility can display _______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. a disk drive capacity
B. a list of partitions on a disk drive
C. the volume format of a mounted partition
D. the number of files in the system folder
E. the number of files on an unmounted partition
F. information about internal drives only, not external drives

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
Suppose you are an administrator named “sandra”. To make a font available for all local users to access, install the font file in ______________.
A. /Users/Sandra/Library/Fonts
B. /System/Library/Fonts
C. /Users/Library/Fonts
D. /Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: D  100-105 dumps
QUESTION 34
The Repair Disk Permissions feature of Disk Utility can ONLY repair permissions_____________________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. on a volume with Mac OS X system software installed.
B. If the computer is booted from the Mac OS X Install disc
C. Of top-level directories, such as /System and /Users only
D. Of user-created files, by restoring them to a previously saved state
E. Of system files, by restoring their permissions to the default configuration

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 35
Which two directories will NOT exist by default on which you have installed Mac OS X v10.3 and added a single user named “Certkiller”? (Choose two.)
A. /Fonts
B. /Applications
C. /Library/Preferences
D. /System/Library/Caches
E. /Users/Certkiller/Documents
F. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Caches
G. /Users/Shared/Library/Caches
Correct Answer: AG QUESTION 36
Disk Utlity with Mac OS X v10.3 allows you to configure drives in RAID configurations of what level(s)?
A. Level 0 only
B. Level 1 only
C. Level 0 or 1
D. Level 1 or 5
E. Level 0, 1, or 5

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 37
By default in Mac OS X v10.3, you can use the Finder to______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Burn a CD
B. Create a disk image file
C. See every file in your home directory
D. To archive multiple items simultaneously using the Archive menu item
E. Empty the trash securely, so that data-recovery software cannot restore the files.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 38
In what order does Mac OS X v10.3 search for resources such as fonts?
A. ~/Library,/Library,/System/Library
B. /Library,~/Library,/System/Library
C. /System/Library,~/Library,/Library
D. ~/Library,/System/Library,/Library
E. /Library,/System/Library, ~/Library

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
You can use ___________ to create disk image files.
A. CpMac
B. Image Disk
C. Disk Utility
D. Image Capture

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
You are currently in the same directory as a file called ” Certkiller 3″. To view this file contents from the command line you can type ____________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat Certkiller 3
B. cat Certkiller \3
C. cat Certkiller \3
D. cat Certkiller \ 3
E. cat ” Certkiller 3″
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 41
Exhibit ls *.* You enter this command in a Terminal Window. Which file names would be listed in the output of the command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Certkiller .exe
B. Index.html
C. Myfile
D. Hello
E. X

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 42
Which command is included with the Mac OS X Developer Tools, but NOT with a default installation of Mac OS X v10.3?
A. du
B. pwd
C. open
D. ditto
E. CpMac

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 43
Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. system_profiler
B. ditto
C. ppen
D. ls

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A Mac OS X v10.3 user can view a file ownership and access permissions by _________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. viewing the file in Column View
B. using the ls -l command in the Terminal utility.
C. Pressing the Verify Permissions button in Disk Utility.
D. Selecting the file and choosing Get Info from the File menu.
E. Selecting the Permissions tab in the Apple System Profiler utility

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 21
Which two statements describe Cisco WLC v7.0 implementation of country codes for RF regulatory domains? (Choose two.)
A. There is a maximum of one per controller.
B. There is a maximum of 12 per controller.
C. There is a maximum of 20 per controller.
D. The AP defaults its RF code selection.
E. The AP is configurable for one RF code per radio.
F. The AP is configurable for one RF code across both radios.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 22
Which two options must match to allow client roaming between wireless controllers? (Choose two.)
A. mobility group name
B. RF group name
C. SNMP community string
D. multicast messaging IP address
E. mobility MAC address
F. Cisco WLC hardware model type
G. Cisco WLC software code version

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
A wireless client is having difficulty associating. What is the most likely cause, given the output of the following debug?
DOT1X-1-MAX_EAPOL_KEY_RETRANS_FOR_MOBILE: MAX EAPOL-Key M1 retransmissions reached for mobile xx:xx:xx:xx:xx
A. Cisco WLC is not requesting authentication.
B. Cisco WLC has no RADIUS entry to direct authentication.
C. Cisco WLC is timing out waiting for authentication.
D. The Cisco WLC authentication type is incompatible with the client.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which two statements correctly describe ClientLink on a Cisco WLC v7.0.116.0? (Choose two.)
A. It is beneficial for bidirectional stream traffic that is sent to wireless clients.
B. It is beneficial for upstream traffic that is sent only to wireless clients.
C. It is beneficial for downstream traffic that is sent only to wireless clients.
D. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 15 clients.
E. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 25 clients.
F. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 30 clients.
G. The dual-radio AP has the capability to service 50 clients.
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 25
Which two statements correctly describe ClientLink on a Cisco WLC v7.0.116.0? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on 802.11n APs for 802.11n clients.
B. It is supported on 802.11n APs for 802.11a/g clients.
C. It is supported on non-802.11n APs for 802.11a/b/g clients.
D. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -50 dBm or weaker.
E. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -60 dBm or weaker.
F. Beamforming starts only when 802.11a clients reach a minimum of -70 dBm or weaker.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

What does the count of 20 for Handoff Requests Sent represent in the Mobility Statistics output?
A. the number of handoff replies that have been received in response to the requests sent
B. the total number of handoff requests received, ignored, or responses sent
C. the number of handoffs in which the entire client session has been transferred
D. the number of clients that have been associated to the controller and have been announced to the mobility group

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Context-aware usage has been deployed on a Cisco MSE 3310 that is licensed to maximum capacity. Approximately 900 wireless clients are currently being tracked. New services need to be added for 500 RFID tags based on RSSI and 500 RF interferers tracked via CleanAir. What should be changed regarding the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. Add a second Cisco MSE 3310 with a license for RFID tags, and then add a license for CleanAir to either the original or new Cisco MSE.
B. Replace Cisco MSE 3310 with MSE 3355 with a license for CleanAir and tags, and then move the license from Cisco MSE 3310 to MSE 3355 for context-aware.
C. Add a CleanAir and RFID tag license to Cisco MSE 3310.
D. Add only an RFID tag license to Cisco MSE 3310.
E. Add only a CleanAir license to Cisco MSE 3310.
F. Increase only the context-aware license.
G. No license is required.

Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 28
When planning on tracking rogue APs, RFID tags that are based on RSSI, and wireless clients, what is needed for the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. wIPS license, context-aware license, and Cisco RFID tag license only
B. wIPS license, context-aware license, and partner tag engine license only
C. wIPS license and context-aware license only
D. context-aware license only

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What are the recommended RFID timeout configuration values for Cisco WLC v7.0 to ensure that tags are detected?
A. minimum of two times and maximum of four times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
B. minimum of two times and maximum of four times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
C. minimum of three times and maximum of eight times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
D. minimum of three times and maximum of eight times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
E. minimum of 6 times and maximum of 12 times the shortest tag interval that is found in the RFID population
F. minimum of 6 times and maximum of 12 times the longest tag interval that is found in the RFID population

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which option should be the RSSI (dBm) cell edge for a site survey for a wireless network of data, voice, and location services?
A. -65
B. -67
C. -72
D. -75
E. -80

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which changes in context-aware location services using the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 have the greatest impact to reduce the database size?
A. restricting to a single location device type
B. restricting the number of devices that are being tracked
C. restricting the history archive
D. scheduled database cleanup
E. scheduled backup

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
How are licenses purchased regarding the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 for Cisco wireless client tracking, Cisco RFID tracking, and AeroScout RFID tracking?
A. Three separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
B. Two separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.
C. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
D. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which two statements correctly describe implementing RFID tags based on RSSI and TDoA location in Cisco Unified Wireless Network v7.0? (Choose two.)
A. Only one tag engine can be installed and be operational in a Cisco 3300 Series MSE.
B. Two tag engines can be installed, but only one can be operational at any time in a Cisco MSE.
C. Separate tag engines can be installed and run concurrently for RSSI and TDoA in a Cisco MSE.
D. Basic RSSI and TDoA location can be performed by Cisco APs.
E. RSSI tag location can be performed by Cisco APs, but partner sensors are required for TDoA tag location.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 34
What is the list of Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 network location service elements that can be individually enabled or disabled for device tracking and quantity limitation?
A. Clients and Tags only
B. Clients, Rogue APs, Interferers, and Tags only
C. Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
D. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
E. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, Active Tags, and Choke Point Tags

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What is the default username and password for communication between Cisco WCS and the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. cisco and cisco
B. Cisco and Cisco
C. admin and admin
D. root and admin
E. root and password
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36

 

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QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Which configuration does Cisco recommend for the peer address on the Expressway-C secure traversal zone when the Expressway-E has one NIC enabled?
A. Expressway-E internal IP address
B. Expressway-E external IP address
C. Expressway-E internal FQDN
D. Expressway-E external FQDN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC

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The previous post revealed some of the specifics about the half of the CCNA R&S content covered in the ICND1 100-105 exam. This next post completes the analysis of the new Cisco 100-105 dumps exam topics, with a look at the verbs in the exam topics as well as the topics that appear to be removed from the exams.

Quick Disclaimer
With this post and others like it, I am reading the publicly posted exam topics and giving my personal opinion as to what those words mean. Note that the analysis in this and other blog posts represents my opinion of Cisco System’s publicly available exam topics for the old and new exams. I do not represent Cisco 100-105 dumps, and these opinions are my own.

100-105 dumps

Still in Cisco 100-105 dumps , but Higher Performance Level
Cisco exam topics list different verbs, and these verbs have specific meaning to those who work within the education world. If you scan the current exam topics, you will see the following verbs on most exam topics:

  • Describe
  • Compare and contrast
  • Configure and verify
  • Configure, verify, and troubleshoot

These verbs define the performance level that they try to assess through the exam questions. The verb describe requires a basic level of skill, while compare and contrast requires a little more skill. Similarly, exam topics that include the troubleshoot verb, instead of stopping at the verify verb, imply a deeper skill level.

For this latest cisco 100-105 dumps exam, Cisco has bumped up the performance level on several topics. All these were formerly listed with verbs “configure and verify”, and now have “configure, verify, and troubleshoot”. To be honest, on the actual exam, it might be difficult to tell the difference between a question for a “configure and verify” topic versus a “configure, verify, and troubleshoot” question. However, from an exam preparation perspective, you can and should prepare specifically for those troubleshooting topics, as follows:

  • Pay close attention to show commands, for status codes and their values when the feature is correctly configured and working
  • Pay close attention to those same status values when the feature is misconfigured.

dumps

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Complete CISSP Study Guide Certification Training

QUESTION 30
What is NOT true with pre shared key authentication within IKE / IPsec protocol?
A. Pre shared key authentication is normally based on simple passwords
B. Needs a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to work
C. IKE is used to setup Security Associations D. IKE builds upon the Oakley protocol and the ISAKMP protocol.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Internet Key Exchange (IKE or IKEv2) is the protocol used to set up a security association (SA) in the IPsec protocol suite. IKE builds upon the Oakley protocol and ISAKMP. IKE uses X.509 certificates for authentication which are either pre-shared or distributed using DNS (preferably with DNSSEC) and a DiffieHellman key exchange to set up a shared session secret from which cryptographic keys are derived. Internet Key Exchange (IKE) Internet key exchange allows communicating partners to prove their identity to each other and establish a secure communication channel, and is applied as an authentication component of IPSec. IKE uses two phases: Phase 1: In this phase, the partners authenticate with each other, using one of the following: Shared Secret: A key that is exchanged by humans via telephone, fax, encrypted e-mail, etc. Public Key Encryption: Digital certificates are exchanged. Revised mode of Public Key Encryption: To reduce the overhead of public key encryption, a nonce (a Cryptographic function that refers to a number or bit string used only once, in security engineering) is encrypted with the communicating partner’s public key, and the peer’s identity is encrypted with symmetric encryption using the nonce as the key. Next, IKE establishes a temporary security association and secure tunnel to protect the rest of the key exchange. Phase 2: The peers’ security associations are established, using the secure tunnel and temporary SA created at the end of phase 1.
The following reference(s) were used for this question: Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 7032-7048). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition. and RFC 2409 at http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2409 and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Key_Exchange
QUESTION 31
In SSL/TLS protocol, what kind of authentication is supported when you establish a secure session between a client and a server?
A. Peer-to-peer authentication
B. Only server authentication (optional)
C. Server authentication (mandatory) and client authentication (optional)
D. Role based authentication scheme
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
RESCORLA, Eric, SSL and TLS: Designing and Building Secure Systems, 2000, Addison Wesley
Professional; SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.

QUESTION 32
What kind of encryption is realized in the S/MIME-standard?
A. Asymmetric encryption scheme
B. Password based encryption scheme
C. Public key based, hybrid encryption scheme
D. Elliptic curve based encryption
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
S/MIME (for Secure MIME, or Secure Multipurpose Mail Extension) is a security process used for e-mail
exchanges that makes it possible to guarantee the confidentiality and non-repudiation of electronic
messages.
S/MIME is based on the MIME standard, the goal of which is to let users attach files other than ASCII text
files to electronic messages. The MIME standard therefore makes it possible to attach all types of files to
e-mails.
S/MIME was originally developed by the company RSA Data Security. Ratified in July 1999 by the IETF, S/
MIME has become a standard, whose specifications are contained in RFCs 2630 to 2633.
How S/MIME works
The S/MIME standard is based on the principle of public-key encryption. S/MIME therefore makes it
possible to encrypt the content of messages but does not encrypt the communication.

The various sections of an electronic message, encoded according to the MIME standard, are each
encrypted using a session key.

The session key is inserted in each section’s header, and is encrypted using the recipient’s public key.
Only the recipient can open the message’s body, using his private key, which guarantees the
confidentiality and integrity of the received message. In addition, the message’s signature is encrypted with
the sender’s private key. Anyone intercepting the communication can read the content of the message’s
signature, but this ensures the recipient of the sender’s identity, since only the sender is capable of
encrypting a message (with his private key) that can be decrypted with his public key.

Reference(s) used for this question:

http://en.kioskea.net/contents/139-cryptography-s-mime RFC 2630: Cryptographic Message Syntax;
OPPLIGER, Rolf, Secure Messaging with PGP and S/MIME, 2000, Artech House; HARRIS, Shon, All-In-
One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 2001, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, page 570;
SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.

 

cissp study guide

QUESTION 33
Which of the following is true of network security?
A. A firewall is a not a necessity in today’s connected world.
B. A firewall is a necessity in today’s connected world.
C. A whitewall is a necessity in today’s connected world.
D. A black firewall is a necessity in today’s connected world.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Commercial firewalls are a dime-a-dozen in todays world. Black firewall and whitewall are just distracters.
QUESTION 34
Which of the following best describes signature-based detection?
A. Compare source code, looking for events or sets of events that could cause damage to a system or network.
B. Compare system activity for the behaviour patterns of new attacks.
C. Compare system activity, looking for events or sets of events that match a predefined pattern of events that describe a known attack.
D. Compare network nodes looking for objects or sets of objects that match a predefined pattern of objects that may describe a known attack.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Misuse detectors compare system activity, looking for events or sets of events that match a predefined pattern of events that describe a known attack. As the patterns corresponding to known attacks are called signatures, misuse detection is sometimes called “signature-based detection.”
The most common form of misuse detection used in commercial products specifies each pattern of events
corresponding to an attack as a separate signature. However, there are more sophisticated approaches to
doing misuse detection (called “state-based” analysis techniques) that can leverage a single signature to
detect groups of attacks.

Reference:
Old Document:
BACE, Rebecca & MELL, Peter, NIST Special Publication 800-31 on Intrusion Detection Systems, Page

16.
The publication above has been replaced by 800-94 on page 2-4 The Updated URL is: http://csrc.nist.gov/
publications/nistpubs/800-94/SP800-94.pdf

QUESTION 35
Which layer deals with Media Access Control (MAC) addresses?
A. Data link layer
B. Physical layer
C. Transport layer
D. Network layer
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 (Data Link layer) transfers information to the other end of the physical link. It handles physical addressing, network topology, error notification, delivery of frames and flow control.

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Hottest Cisco 100-101 PDF Real Questions and Dumps

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Cisco has recently updated its CCDA 200-125 exam syllabus to version 3.0 . Getting Cisco CCDA 200-125 exam certification is very important for successful IT professional career, as it adds weight to professional profile. Just maeeonline has updated its practice exams questions for CCDA 200-125 exam according to the recent syllabus changes by Cisco. The practice exams are prepared by subject matter specialists and contain various self-assessment features, check out the free demo.

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In order to get certified in the CCDA V3.0, the individuals have to pass the exam 200-125. By passing the exam 200-125 the individuals will be granted the status of the Cisco Certified Network Associate V3.0 certification credential. The candidates for this certification exam can use the 200-125 exam dumps for getting a comprehensive of the exam topics.  The passing score for all these exams are subject to change as per the policy of the Cisco.

 

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The individuals can get themselves registered for this available exam by contacting the Pearson VUE testing center, the online way of registration is however a preferred one. The exam must be prepared according to the syllabus. The 200-125 question answers, exam related procedures and outline provided by the Cisco Company can be referred by visiting the official website. The detailed overview of all these exams can also be taken at the time of registration.

  • The network fundamentals. (15%)
  • The Routing technologies (23%)
  • The LAN switching technologies (21%)
  • The infrastructure services (10%)
  • The WAN technologies (10%)
  • The infrastructure security (11%)
  • Basic troubleshooting (20%)
  • The management of infrastructure (10%)

The individuals can prepare for 200-125 exam by taking the available recommended training courses offered by Cisco. The E-learning, practice exam test paper and the Cisco Learning Labs are also offered to the individuals for CCDA V3.0 exam. The Exam 200-125 PDF practice test software and other el-learning modes can be adopted for exam preparation. The training course is also offered to the candidates for the accurate preparation of all these topics. The Cisco Marketplace Bookstore or the Cisco Press resources are also suggested to the individuals for effective preparation. The 200-125 practice test software is regarded as a very effective and highly recommended way of preparing for the CCDA V3.0 certification exam. By passing this particular exam, IT professionals can get a validation to their Cisco routing and switching skills. In this way they can peruse a promising career path.

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Convergence Technologies Profession TT0-201 Exams, Pass the Convergence Technologies Profession TT0-201 Exam Questions And Answers Are The Best Materials

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QUESTION NO: 79
Consider the following IP address in CIDR notation:
142.98.8.0/26

How many addresses can theoretically be in each subnet?
A. 62
B. 254
C. 4,094
D. 1,048,574
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 80
You want to connect a PBX made by one manufacturer to another PBX made by a different manufacturer. You need to ensure that these interconnected PBXs will retain their basic and supplementary services. Which protocol was originally designed to allow this?
A. H.225
B. H.450
C. Q.932
D. QSIG
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
What is the term for assigning a unique VLAN identifier to traffic controlled according to 802.1q standards?
A. Frame tagging
B. VLAN switching
C. Packet injection
D. LAN segmentation
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following is most likely to cause packet loss and clicking during a phone call?
A. Impedance mismatch
B. Improper reference clocking
C. Improper equipment grounding
D. Packets arriving out of order
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 83
Which of the following encodes messages in ASCII, uses proxies instead of gatekeepers, and is a peer-to-peer protocol?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. The local loop
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following can cause the most significant interference with WiFi communications?
A. Ethernet hubs
B. Television equipment
C. 2.4-GHz cordless phones
D. 900-MHz cordless phones
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 85
Which device specializes in admitting calls into a network, manages session traffic, and helps traffic traverse a firewall?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
C. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
D. Session Border Controller (SBC)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 86
When data is sent down to the session layer of the OSI/RM, the PDU consists of which encapsulated components?
A. Physical header, network header, data
B. Data, application header, presentation header
C. Network header, data link header, physical header
D. Application header, presentation header, transport header
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 87
A traditional PBX generally offers all of the following features EXCEPT:
A. Voice mail
B. Call forwarding
C. Call interruption
D. Find me/follow me
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
You are implementing an IPsec VPN for voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will you implement?
A. Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol
B. Transport mode using the AH security protocol
C. Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol
D. Transport mode using the ESP security protocol
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 89
Which problem typically occurs if a jitter buffer is too small?
A. Too many delays will occur.
B. Too few packets will be re-sent.
C. Too few interfaces will be addressed.
D. Too many packets will be discarded.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 90

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Question: 26
When you move a folder, the objects within are also moved. What happens to the folder’s object rights?
A. The folder rights are set to the default View for Everyone.
B. The folder rights are set to the default Full Control for the Administrators group.
C. The folder retains the object rights of the original.
D. The folder inherits the object rights set on the new parent folder.
Answer: C

Question: 27
What is an advantage of scheduling List of Values (LOV) report objects to run on a regular basis? (Select the best option.)
A. Reduces time of retrieving records from the database when viewing a report that uses a prompt
B. Reduces load on the Input File Repository Server

Exam Name: Business Objects(TM) Enterprise Certified Professional XI 每 Level One
Exam Type: Business Objects
Exam Code: SABE201 Total Questions: 79

C. Reduces database hits by using saved values when generating prompt
D. Reduces load on the Output File Repository Server
Answer: C

Question: 28
Which two databases does the BusinessObjects Enterprise Central Management Server (CMS) maintain? (Choose two.)
A. Event
B. Config
C. Audit
D. System
Answer: C, D

Question: 29
Which two content management recommendations should you follow when designing your BusinessObjects Enterprise security model? (Choose two)
A. Assign security at the folder level to groups whenever possible to reduce complexity.
B. Grant the Everyone group No Access at the global level then grant specific rights to the desired groups.
C. Avoid Predefined Access Levels whenever possible to reduce complexity.
D. Set the Everyone group to Deny Access at the global level then grant specific rights to the desired groups at the folder levels.
Answer: A, B

Question: 30
Which BusinessObjects Enterprise component would you use to schedule List of Values (LOV) objects?
A. InfoView interface
B. Business View Manager
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: B
Question: 31
Which two statements about Object inheritance rules are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Rights set at the global level override rights set at the folder level.
B. Top-level folders inherit rights set at the global level.
C. Objects inherit rights from their parent folders.
D. Rights inherited from the parent folder override explicit rights set at the object level.
Answer: B, C
Question: 32
Which statement about Category inheritance rules is correct?
A. A category may contain subcategories that inherit the rights of their parent category.
B. Objects in categories inherit the rights set on their parent categories.

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