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QUESTION: 1 A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2 When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the fieldwork starts, the comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit

Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results

Answer: B
QUESTION: 4 Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess compliance to a specific requirement at all locations where that requirement is applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes that statistical process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations are done correctly and are regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6 When is it acceptable to grant an extension of the time frame for a corrective action?
A. When the auditor cannot perform the follow-up audit as scheduled
B. When the auditee determines that the proposed corrective action is not cost- effective
C. When the corrective action plan requires more time than originally anticipated
D. When there has been a change in operators who perform the task

Answer: C
QUESTION: 7 The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control charts?
A. p chart
B. u chart
C. np chart
D. c chart

Answer: A
QUESTION: 8 Auditors can use flowcharts in their work in order to
A. analyze the causal factors of process dispersion
B. understand the overall process or system being audited
C. distinguish variations in a process over time
D. determine process capability and uniformity

Answer: B
QUESTION: 9 An auditee responds to a corrective action request by stating that the problem has never occurred before and is “not the norm for our operation.” Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the lead auditor?
A. Note that the deficiency is the result of a random occurrence.
B. Draft a response explicitly requesting a more concise root-cause analysis.
C. Confer with the audit client to assess the appropriateness of the response.
D. Schedule a follow-up audit immediately.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 Which of the following is an audit reporting technique for prioritizing audit findings?
A. Weibull distribution
B. Risk-benefit ratio
C. Cognitive dissonance
D. Ishikawa diagram

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 Which of the following is most important for an auditor to convey at an initial audit interview?
A. A give-and-take atmosphere that focuses on compromise
B. A formal approach that is guided by specific roles for each participant
C. An interest in cooperation and open dialogue
D. A personal approach to information gathering

Answer: C
QUESTION: 12 If the audit escort for one area is repeatedly late or unavailable, what is the best option open to the auditor?
A. Notify the auditee management of the consequences created by the delays.
B. Narrow the scope of the audit to accommodate the delays.
C. Proceed without the escort.
D. Assess system effectiveness using objective evidence from other areas.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 13 Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Range
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14 During the opening meeting, it is the auditee’s responsibility to
A. prepare the meeting agenda
B. set the audit schedule
C. state the audit purpose and scope
D. identify safety requirements

Answer: D
QUESTION: 15
Auditor independence includes freedom from which of the following?

I. Bias
II. Conflict of interest
III. External influences
IV.
Previous exposure to the area

A.
I and II only

B.
II and IV only

C.
I, II, and III only

D.
II, III and IV only

Answer: C
QUESTION: 16 Which of the following requests by an auditor is likely to obtain the most objective evidence for verification?
A. “What kind of information do you receive?”
B. “Who provides the information to you?”
C. “Describe how you receive information.”
D. “Show me the information you have received.”
Answer: D
QUESTION: 17
Audits are conducted against a performance standard to ensure which of the following?
I. Meaningful measurements
II. Objectively evaluated performance
III.
Perceptive observations

A.
I only

B.
I and II only

C.
II and III only

D.
I, II, and III

Answer: B
QUESTION: 18 While performing an internal audit, an auditor notices that an operator on one shift skips part of the documented procedure. In this situation, the auditor should do which of the following?
A. Make a note on the checklist and initial it.
B. Report it to the operator’s supervisor or manager.
C. Question the operator about the observation.
D. Ask another operator to evaluate the situation.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 19 An auditor is performing an audit of a drilling machine that produces 100 pieces a day and that is showing improved quality. Which of the following rules should be used for determining the proper sample size for a fixed level of confidence?
A. The moving average should be calculated.
B. The sample size should be decreased as the quality improves.
C. The AQL of the raw material should be used.
D. A 10% sample size should be used, regardless of the change in quality.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 20
An audit report should contain which of the following?

A. Audit findings
B. Root cause analysis
C. Corrective action
D. Re-audit schedule

Answer: A
QUESTION: 21 The objective evidence supporting an audit observation must be
A. recorded on the working papers
B. verified by the escort
C. mentioned to the auditee
D. written as a nonconformance

Answer: A
QUESTION: 22 Generally, which of the following is the most meaningful way to trace a finished product?
A. Forward from starting with the acquisition of raw materials
B. Forward from the first production activity
C. Backward from the start of the assembly process
D. Backward from the end point

Answer: D
QUESTION: 23 When a proposed corrective action plan is judged unacceptable, an auditor should do which of the following?
A. Revise the submitted plan on the basis of the auditor’s knowledge and technical expertise.
B. Notify the auditee and request that a new plan be submitted by the next level of management.
C. Discuss the plan’s deficiencies with the auditee and request a revised plan.
D. Suggest that the auditee benchmark the deficient area and then rewrite the plan.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 24 Who makes the final determination regarding the distribution of the audit report?
A. The lead auditor
B. The audit group manager
C. The auditee
D. The client

Answer: D
QUESTION: 25 The confidence level in a sampling plan is defined as the
A. degree of uncertainty that the selected sample contains at leastone example of any errors thatare present
B. degree of certainty that the selected sample contains at least one example of any errors that are present
C. lowest performance level that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited
D. maximum error rate that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited

Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
Which of the following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?

A. Histograms
B. Frequency distributions
C. Pareto charts
D. Process observations

Answer: D
QUESTION: 27 An auditor finds deficiencies in the order entry, purchasing, product test, and shipping functions of a potential supplier. Which of them should have the highest priority in the audit report?
A. Order entry
B. Product test
C. Purchasing
D. Shipping

Answer: B
QUESTION: 28 After an external audit, the auditee may be asked to evaluate which of the following auditor skills or elements of the audit?
A. Interviewing, interaction, accuracy of the audit report
B. Audit scheduling, auditor training records, observing an audit
C. Communication, listening, checklist preparation
D. Clarity of past audit reports, number of findings, lack of bias

Answer: A
QUESTION: 29 To determine whether a finding is a minor, isolated incident or a serious, chronic problem, an auditor should consult with the
A. auditee’s quality assurance inspector
B. auditee’s department manager
C. audit team
D. client

Answer: C
QUESTION: 30 Which two of the following conditions must be met in order to infer statistical significance about the results of an audit sample?
I. The population must be homogeneous.
II. The sample size must be greater than 10.
III. The sample must be random.
IV.
The sample must be taken from multiple locations.

A.
I and II
B.I
and III

C.
II and III

D.
III and IV

Answer: B
QUESTION: 31 Which of the following qualifications would contribute most to an auditor being able to function effectively in various industrial or service disciplines?
A. Familiarity with technical standards and regulations
B. A college degree in a specific technical area
C. A working knowledge of typical corporate organizational structures
D. Extensive background in calibration and metrology techniques

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 A root cause analysis can best be described as a process that is used to
A. evaluate corrective action plans
B. determine the basic reason for an undesirable condition
C. identify the symptoms of an undesirable condition

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QUESTION 1
IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using 4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4GLs are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly
for graphic user interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs
have simple programming language subsets.

C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would
provide the most positive verification that updating was proper.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the
testing of software modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one
single unit/entity, consisting of numerous modules and second, with the user data that
flows across software modules. In some cases, this even drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply
closely examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software.
Hence, these cannot be referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and
this would be a cause for concern. Incorrect answers:

B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this areA.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an
ethernet and token network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device. Bridges operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the
media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:

A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses (i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN, reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled through callback systems that are available.
QUESTION 7
A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up line, then the server disconnects and:
A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and password using the sender’s database.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials again. The server cannot depend upon the sender’s database to dial back as the same could be manipulated.
QUESTION 8
Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured
programming has evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain.
Structured programming is a style of programming which restricts the kinds of control
structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program can be written with allowed
control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as go-to-less programming, since a

go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well
known restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured
programming was becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary,
except in languages where subroutines are identified by labels.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data
to ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value
substituted. This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:

A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteriA.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that they are not already in the system.
QUESTION 10
An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in
advance of the need.
Incorrect answers:

B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers
and CPUs, to operate an information processing facility. D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site
that can back up critical applications.
QUESTION 11
A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when deadlines are tight), units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test areA. This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing. Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.
QUESTION 12
In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading
partners and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:

B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner’s proprietary format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the
communications handler.
QUESTION 13
The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and
evaluation stages. It is during the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management’s commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.
QUESTION 14
Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh) Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host
machines.
Incorrect answers:

A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or
blanks.
Incorrect answers:

A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteriA.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.
QUESTION 17
A data administrator is responsible for:
A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their
relationship. Choices A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

QUESTION 18
A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database. Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.
QUESTION 19
An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schemA.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schemA. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to

the internal schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data
independence for application systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user department data model.
QUESTION 20
To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender’s private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender’s private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender’s private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the sender’s private key.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message, and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest using the sender’s private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest, only the message digest is enciphered using the sender’s private key, not the message.
QUESTION 21
A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected to the system.
QUESTION 22
A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network resources.
QUESTION 23
Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a

central computer to relieve the central computer.
QUESTION 24
The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed
checkpoints but its primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of
documentation nor will it provide direction for the post-implementation review.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so
messages can make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:

B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions, such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a higher-speed channel.

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QUESTION 1
The key factors that have contributed to the higher cost of health care include:
A. Technology, aging population, chronic disease and litigation
B. Aging population, chronic disease, performance payment and litigation
C. Technology, performance payment and litigation
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
What change the basis of payment for hospital outpatient services from a flat fee for individual services to fixed reimbursement for bundled services?
A. Cost payment system
B. Ambulatory payment classifications
C. Cost compliance and litigation
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
when providers try to get one payor to pay for costs that have not been covered by another payor, this refers to:
A. Cost Capacity
B. Cost capitalization
C. Cost-shifting
D. Prospective cost

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
The combination of age and technology has increased cost with the passage of time.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Prescription drug coverage for Medicare enrollees, which offsets some of the out-of- pocket costs for medications, this covers:
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part D
D. Medicare Part F

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
The need to abide by governmental regulations, whether they are for the provision of care, billing, privacy accounting standards, security or the like refers to:
A. Compliance
B. Chronic Medicare
C. Health proactive standards
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
that providers have to pay insurers to cover the cost of defending against the lawsuits and paying large jury awards.
A. Ambulatory payment classifications
B. Reimbursement Insurance cost plan
C. Health proactive Insurance standard act
D. Increased insurance premiums

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
A set of federal compliance regulations to ensure standardization of billing, privacy and reporting as institutions convert to electronic systems is called:
A. Health Insurance standard Act
B. Reimbursement Insurance Act
C. Medicare Reporting Act
D. Health Insurance portability and Accountability Act

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
In which act, federal legislation designed to tighten accounting standards in financial reporting and that holds top executives personally liable as to the accuracy and fairness of their financial statements?
A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
B. Insurance accountability Act
C. Financial statement Act
D. Portability and Accountability Standardized Act

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Stark law sates that:
A. Legislation enacted by HIPAA to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients directly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.
B. Legislation enacted by CMS to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients directly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.
C. Legislation enacted by CMS to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients indirectly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.
D. Legislation enacted by HIPAA to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients indirectly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which one of the following is NOT the factor of Uninsured?
A. Health insurance premiums becoming too costly
B. Requiring patients to pay for the part of their own care-up
C. Individuals being screened out of insurance policies
D. Employers feeling they cannot afford to continue to provide health insurance as a benefit

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Concurrent review states that:
A. Planning appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is in the hospital and implementing discharge planning.
B. Monitoring appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is not in the hospital and try to implement discharge planning.
C. Planning appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is not in the hospital and try to implement preadmission planning.
D. Monitoring appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is in the hospital and implementing discharge planning.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Gatekeepers requiring a patient to obtain a referral from his or her primary care physician, the gatekeeper, before assign a specialist.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
Requiring providers to have their capital expenditures preapproved by an independent state agency to avoid unnecessary duplication of services is referred to as:
A. Preapproval certifications and opinions
B. Preapproved payments
C. Certificate of need
D. State service reviews

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which one of the following systems is used to classify inpatients based o their diagnoses, used by both Medicare and private insurers?
A. Diagnosis-related groups
B. Proactive payments system
C. Payment insurance group
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
A system that pays providers a specific amount in advance to care for defined health care needs of a population over a specific period is called:
A. Health care system
B. Prospective payments system
C. Global payment system
D. Capitation

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Risk pool is:
A. A generally small population of individuals who are all uninsured under the same arrangement, regardless of working status
B. A generally large population of individuals who are all insured under the same arrangement, regardless of working status
C. A generally large population of groups who are all uninsured under the different arrangement, regardless of working status
D. A generally small population of individuals who are all insured under different arrangement, regardless of working status

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
A system to pay providers whereby the fees for all providers are included in a single negotiated amount is called:
A. Single member per month payment
B. Global payment
C. Revolutionary payment
D. Ambulatory payment

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Which organizations are the third party entities that contract with multiple hospitals to offer cost savings in the purchase of supplies and equipment by negotiating large-volume discounted contract with vendors?
A. Cost saving organizations
B. Global payment organizations
C. Group purchasing organizations
D. Cost-accounting organizations

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
An electronic health record or electronic medical record is an electronics capture of all of a patient’s encounters and heath information over a short period of time.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
A process that specifies in advance the preferred treatment regimen for patients with particular diagnoses is called:
A. Retail health care
B. Diagnosis care
C. Complementary medicine

D. Care mapping Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Medial home states that:
A. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
B. A proprietorship of primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive care over the long-term in their own variety of settings.
C. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families that do not deliver comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
D. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive care just foe a short period of time in a variety of settings.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Which of the following are the four aspects that all the businesses are required to produce financial statements at least annually?
A. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
B. Journals, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
C. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of cash flow
D. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of controlled liabilities, statement of expense

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
Balance sheet is majorly composed of:
A. heading, body and notes
B. heading, preliminary side bullets and notes
C. footers, body and notes
D. heading, body and footers

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
At the top of the balance sheet there is a three-line heading that includes name of the organization, name ff statement and
A. One date
B. Two dates
C. Three dates
D. none of the above

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following privileges do you need to activate views?
A. SELECT option on the _SYS_BIC schema
B. SELECT option on the _SYS_BI schema
C. SELECT option on the _SYS_REPO schema
D. SELECT option on the _SYS schema
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
Which security settings can you apply in analytic privileges? (Choose two)
A. Restrict access to hierarchies.
B. Restrict access within an analytic view using measure values.
C. Restrict access within an analytic view using attribute values.
D. Grant access to analytic views.
Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 3
You are designing architecture for SAP ERP Profitability Analysis with SAP HANA (COPA Accelerator).
To which network in the diagram should you connect your SAP ECC system?
A. SAP HANA Administrative Network (3)
B. SAP HANA Data Network (4)
C. SAP HANA Data Backup Network (1)
D. SAP HANA Client Network (2)
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
Which of the following is used to deploy SAP-delivered content in SAP HANA?
A. Java Support Package Management (JSPM)
B. Server-side export/import
C. SAP Transport Management System (STMS)
D. SAP NetWeaver Development Infrastructure (NWDI)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 5
In which file do you configure the maximum size of the delta storage memory?

A. preprocessor.ini
B. executer.ini
C. global.ini
D. indexserver.ini
Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
Which view in SAP HANA studio do you use to add additional users?
A. Navigator view
B. Quick Launch view
C. Properties view
D. Console view
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
Which of the following are functions of the controller on the SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT) server? (Choose two)
A. Schedule replication processes.
B. Write data to the SAP HANA system using the DB connection.
C. Create repositories in the source system.
D. Map database structures between SAP HANA and the source system.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 8
What are the recommended ways to perform a database backup? (Choose two)
A. Use the./hdbsetup command
B. Use SAP HANA Studio
C. Use SQL commands
D. Use the BRBACKUP command

Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 9
You have an SAP HANA productive system with sensitive data. How can you restrict modeling users from viewing this data? (Choose two)
A. Remove SAP_DATA_ADMIN in the SQL privileges for the modeling users.
B. Allow modeling only on the SAP HANA development system and export/import the models to the productive system.
C. Use randomized data for the development of data models.
D. Remove ALTER SYSTEM in the system privileges for the modeling users.
Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 10
What must you do in SAP LT to establish a connection between a non-SAP source system database and SAP HANA? (Choose three)
A. Create the source database connection in table DBCON.
B. Define the SAP LT RFC connection to SAP HANA.
C. Define the SAP LT database connection to SAP HANA.
D. Define an RFC connection to the source system.
E. Add a source database connection in the DBA Cockpit.
Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION: 11
What must you do to configure SAP HANA high availability?
A. Right click the Navigator panel and choose Add System…
B. Run command./hdbinst –SID=<SID> –password=<password> –autostart=off.
C. Call stored procedure SYS.UPDATE_LANDSCAPE_CONFIGURATION.
D. Run command./hdbaddhost –SID=<SID> –password=<password> –role=standby.
Answer: D QUESTION: 12

Which tasks do you have to perform if you want to use SAP BW with SAP HANA as the underlying database?
A. Do a homogeneous system copy from your current DB to SAP HANA DB.
B. Ensure that you have at least SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse 7.02 installed.
C. Do a heterogeneous system copy from your current DB to SAP HANA DB.
D. Recreate SAP BW indexes after SAP HANA database migration.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 13
Which view displays the current SAP HANA Support Package level?
A. M_LANDSCAPE_HOST_CONFIGURATION
B. M_VERSION_MEMORY
C. M_HOST_INFORMATION
D. M_DATABASE
Answer: D

QUESTION: 14
Which of the following commands stops the SAP HANA database?
A. HDB stop B. stopsap hdb C. HDB -stop D. stop HDB
Answer: A

QUESTION: 15
Which of the following configuration files contains the backup locations of log and data files?
A. attributes.ini
B. global.ini

C. indexserver.ini
D. localclient.ini
Answer: B

QUESTION: 16
Which command is recommended by SAP to install an SAP HANA database via a graphical user interface (GUI)?
A. ./hdbsetup
B. ./sapinst
C. ./hdbinst
D. ./hdbinst – install
Answer: A

QUESTION: 17
What can you use to transform data from SAP Business Warehouse (BW) into SAP HANA?
A. SAP Legacy System Migration Workbench (LSMW)
B. SAP BusinessObjects Data Services
C. SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
D. SAP BW extractors
Answer: B
QUESTION: 18
Which of the following can you use to replicate data from SAP BW to SAP HANA?
A. An RFC connection to SAP LT
B. Open hub with Data Services 4.0
C. Open hub with SAP LT
D. A database connection to Data Services 4.0
Answer: B

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QUESTION: 1
Which code calls a web form?

A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085

Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 4
You need to import string fields, such as organization names, into the CA Service Desk
database. To do this, you will need to convert them to their internal database values.
Which utility enables you to perform this task?

A. pdm_deref

B. pdm_extract
C. pdm_discimp
D. pdm_userload

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Level 3 CA Service Desk Analyst, Indira Chopra, resolves a ticket and returns it immediately to single point of contact (SPOC), Cliff Warner. Cliff needs to verify with the user that the issue is resolved and:
A. Ask the end user to close the ticket.
B. Return the ticket to Indira for closure.
C. Close the ticket, which sets it to inactive.
D. Set the ticket to pending in case there are related issues.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 Which parts comprise the Central Management Console (CMC) home page? (Choose three)
A. Define
B. Manage
C. Navigate
D. Organize
E. Users and Groups

Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 7
Which component has a Willingness Value?

A. Web engine
B. Data extractor
C. pdm_userload input file
D. Database interface (DBI)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
Which features characterize CA Workflow? (Choose three)

A. It includes inherent security.
B. It is only used for manual tasks.
C. It is external to CA Service Desk.
D. It is used for well defined processes.
E. Users need to be Analysts in CA Service Desk.

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 9
Which component connects web browsers to the CA Service Desk Object Manager?

A. domsrvr
B. Web Engine
C. Web Screen Painter (WSP)
D. WSP Schema Designer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 In a configuration with a Remote Management Database (MDB), what is the preferred requirement for the primary CA Service Desk Server?
A. Single Processor, 2 GHz; 2 GB RAM
B. Dual Processor, 2 GHz; 4 GB RAM
C. Dual Processor, 3GHz; 8 GB RAM
D. Quad Core Processor; 8 GB RAM

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
Which function can you perform with Web Intelligence?
A. Link reports with other data on the Internet.
B. Create basic reports easily without writing queries.
C. Check that your reports have the appropriate rights set.
D. Obtain greater control over reports by writing advanced queries.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 12
The CA Service Desk Universe supports: (Choose three)

A. security maintenance
B. report server setup only
C. multiple databases and multiple languages
D. data retrieval with knowledgeof the object or database layer
E. job scheduling and linkage of delivered reports to theCA Service Desk user interface

Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION: 13
When you run pdm backup:

A. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX only first.
B. It shuts down the services in Windows only first.
C. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows first.
D. It does not need to shut down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows at any stage.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 14 You need to use a third-party scheduler to archive and purge rules. Which executable do you run?
A. bop_cmd
B. domsrver
C. pdm_backup
D. pdm_discimp

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QUESTION: 1
User attribute mapping enables you to:

A. Map policies to different user attributes.
B. Map user groups to different administrator groups.
C. Map user classes to different user attribute names.
D. Map one common name to different user attribute names in different user directories.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Policies can grant access to users based on user information that exists in the user store. The BEST example of that information is:
A. User permissions
B. User profile attribute values
C. The client machine’s IP address
D. CA SiteMinder administrative rights
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
What are the default session settings in CA SiteMinder? (Choose two)
A. Idle Timeout Enabled
B. Idle Timeout Disabled
C. Max Session Timeout Enabled
D. Max Session Timeout Disabled
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 4
Which features characterize the J2EE application server agent? (Choose two)
A. Supports IBM WebSphere and BEA WebLogk
B. Protects J2EE application server-based applications
C. Moves the point of trust from the web server to the ERP/CRM server
D. Makes calls to the Event Manager when authentication credentials are provided

Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 5
Which log file holds log records for the CA SiteMinder user interface (UI)?
A. SiteMinder trace log
B. Application Server log
C. SiteMinder web agent log
D. SiteMinder Policy Server log
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
Two features of global policies are:
A. they are different for each domain and apply to users in all user directories
B. they are different for each domain and apply only to a single user directory
C. they belong to a generic global domain and apply to users in all user directories
D. they belong to a generic global domain and apply only to a single user directory
Answer: B

QUESTION: 7
You successfully install a CA SiteMindcr Web Agent. Then, if you perform the host registration process:
A. A Trusted Host Object is created.
B. A Web Agent Trace File is produced.
C. An Affiliate Agent calls the Policy Server.
D. An Agent Configuration Object (ACO) is updated.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
To turn on the tracing facility for all Policy Server actions, you: A. Configure the smtracedefault.txt file.

B. Modify the general_trace.template file.
C. Set the Enable Profiling option on the Policy Server Profiler tab.
D. Configure the Policy Server Management Console logging option.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 9
Which benefits do agent groups provide? (Choose two)
A. Defining by multiple sets of policy objects
B. Verifying tasks in the Web Agent installation more easily
C. Saving time by defining only one policy for all Web Agents
D. Providing resource access to a larger user base by duplicating the resource on many web servers and Web Agents
Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 10
Two important reasons why password policies are necessary are to:
A. Maintain use of valid passwords and disable user accounts.
B. Increase administrative involvement and disable user accounts. C. Disable user accounts and minimize administrative involvement.
D. Prevent access when passwords have expired and ensure users cannot create week passwords.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
Two benefits of password services are that they:
A. Provide an additional layer of security, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
B. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
C. Provide an additional layer of security, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.
D. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 12
In relation to Agents, what does central configuration indicate?
A. The Web Agent is configured from the Policy Server.
B. The Web Agent is configured from a local configuration file.
C. The Web Agent holds the initialization parameters for trusted hosts.
D. The Web Agent overrides the configuration parameters of trusted hosts.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
One of the three cryptographic operating modes for securing CA SiteMinder data is Federal Information Processing Standards (RPS)-compatibility. This mode:
A. Only uses FIPS 140-2 algorithms. B. Is only used for CA SiteMinder rl2.
C. Uses classic CA SiteMinder 6.x cryptography.
D. Is used where version 6.x and rl2 of CA SiteMinder co-exist.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Where are named expressions stored?
A. In cookies
B. In user classes
C. In the policy store
D. In the Administrator Group
Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
Which information can you view using the Summary View tab of the CA Introscope Transaction Tracer? (Choose three)
A. Color codes, which indicate call durations
B. The number of times a URL was accessed
C. The number of milliseconds to complete the call
D. The number of milliseconds required for the fastest call completion
E. The number of transaction components affected, shown using a hierarchical format
Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION: 2
CA Introscope holds historical data in multiple tiers. What is a characteristic of data held in Tier 1?
A. Is used in reporting
B. Is used for incident analysis
C. Is used in capacity planning
D. Is older and configured for lower resolutions
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
The CA Customer Experience Manager (CEM) Export Tool exports data in which file format?
A. .txt
B. .xls
C. .csv
D. .html
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
What is the main advantage of modifying the default metric set of a CA Introscope Agent to monitor fewer classes?

A. The Agent can report component activity at a more granular level.
B. A modified metric set creates more visibility for the classes monitored.
C. Agent performance can be improved by minimizing the Agents system overhead.
D. The Agent can report Enterprise Java Bean (EJB) activity at a more granular level.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
Which segment of this metric path is referenced by the metric expression of a Metric Grouping? H04|WAS_Node|Server 0|5ervlets|SeatServlet: Stall Count
A. H04|WAS_Node
B. H04|WAS_Node|ServerO
C. WAS_Node|Server 0|Servlets
D. Servlets|SeatServlet:Stall Count
Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
While viewing Investigator, you notice that metric values are acceptable, but you want to determine whether there are any outlying Servlet Response Times exceeding threshold limits. Which Workstation feature enables you to do this?
A. Metric data
B. Boundary Blame
C. View Historical Data
D. Minimum and Maximum Metric values
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
What is indicated by a simple alert in a yellow state?
A. The simple alert is not matching any metrics.
B. One or more metrics for this alert are beyond the danger threshold.
C. One or more metrics for this alert are beyond the caution threshold.
D. One or more metrics for this alert are within the stated threshold for this alert.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 8
Which defect type will be assigned to a transaction when the request for its HTML component results in an HTTP 500 error?
A. HTTP
B. Server
C. Response
D. Behavioral
Answer: C

QUESTION: 9
Which task can you perform using the Map tab in the Investigator?
A. View AlertMap files.
B. Configure application triage map security.
C. View a graphical depiction of the components that make up your application.
D. View the relationship of the interdependent web services within a Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) environment.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
The action which propagates definitions to all Transaction Impact Monitors (TIMs) in a domain is:
A. Configure subnets.
B. Synchronize all monitors.
C. Promote transaction definitions.
D. Configure automatic transaction recording.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 11
CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for collecting this data?

A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

QUESTION: 12
In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD files.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
Which metric type measures the number of requests completed over a period of time?
A. Errors Per Interval
B. Responses Per Interval
C. Average Response Time
D. Approximate Instance Count
Answer: B

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1.Which two components are optional add-on licenses with the IBM Case Manager core product offering? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Forms
B. IBM Case Analyzer
C. IBM FileNet eForms
D. Content Search Services
E. WebSphere Process Server Answer: A,E
2.Within the scope of ICM databases created, which statement is true.?
A. The Process Engine database can only run on DB2.
B. The Business Space database can only run on DB2.
C. The Case Analyzer database can co-exist with the CE database.
D. The Process Engine database can co-exist with the CE database. Answer: D
3.Which program is prohibited to be used with IBM Case Manager as per the licensing terms?
A. Lotus Widget Factory (of IBM Mashup Center)
B. Case Manager crawler (of IBM Content Analytics)
C. Web chat client (of IBM Lotus Sametime Proxy Server)
D. Rule Execution Server (of IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules) Answer: A
4.What is a reason to use iLog within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. To intelligently assign case workers to tasks.
B. To obtain additional Case Data from an external system.
C. To update a case property field after a step is completed.
D. To obtain a priority from a database call via a stored procedures. Answer: A
5.A
case worker would like to send an instant announcement to other case workers in the IBM Case Manager environment. How can this be done?

A.
By adding a comment to the case.

B.
By using the external email system.

C.
By using the IBM Sametime integrated feature.

D.
By creating a case with the announcement as a property. Answer: C
6.Which two items are always part of a case management solution? (Choose two.)
A. Analytics
B. Content objects
C. Database lookups D. Process fragments E. System integrations
Answer: B,D
7.What utility is used to create the run time solution in a development environment?
A. Case Manager Builder
B. FileNet Enterprise Manager
C. FileNet Deployment Manager
D. Case Manager Administrator Client Answer: A
8.A
user in the customer_interactions project area has created two solutions, Sol1 and Sol2. The user is transferred to the credit_card_investigations project area. What happens to Sol1 and Sol2?

A.
Sol1 and Sol2 are deleted.

B.
Sol1 and Sol2 remain in customer_interactions project area. C. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to orphaned_solutions project area.

D.
Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to credit_card_investigations project area. Answer: B
9.What is one reason to use IBM Forms over FileNet eForms within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. IBM Forms is more tightly integrated with ICM.
B. The ability to use JavaScript to enhance the form.
C. The ability to use multiple Digital Signature methods.
D. The ability to use EDS (Extended Data Services) within ICM. Answer: C
10.A
customer is looking for assistance in determining a backup strategy. Which statement is true regarding backup of the ICM solution?

A.
A Hot Backup can be performed if the operating system is AIX.

B.
A Hot Backup cannot be performed because Business Space prevents it.

C.
A Hot Backup cannot be performed because of the difficulties of ensuring in-flight transactions.

D.
A Hot Backup can be performed because ICM provides additional features to permit this process. Answer: C
11.For IBM Case Manager, where should the database for the content engine target object store and the process engine on DB2 be located?
A. On separate databases on the same server
B. On separate databases on different servers
C. On the same database on a server with different userids
D. On the same database on a server with same userid and password Answer: D
12.Which must be installed and configured with IBM Case Manager to enable IBM Sametime?
A. Only IBM Sametime client and Lotus Domino server
B. Only IBM Sametime proxy server and Lotus Domino server
C. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime client, and IBM Sametime proxy server D. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime community server, and IBM Sametime proxy server Answer: D
13.Business Analyst John Smith has a user ID and valid password configured with IBM Case Manager but has not been assigned to a project area. Which statement is true?
A. John Smith cannot login to Case Manager Builder.
B. John Smith can only work in the default project area.
C. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot create a solution.
D. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot deploy a solution. Answer: C
14.What tool is used to import a solution package?
A. IBM Case Manager Builder
B. IBM FileNet Process Designer
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client Answer: D
15.There are two recommended methods used to copy a solution : Case Manager Builder and what other tool?
A. IBM Content Engine API
B. IBM FileNet Workplace XT
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client Answer: D
16.Where can you find the following collection of data for each solution: solution status, description, Process Engine connection definition, and Case Manager Client URL?
A. In the IBM Case Manger Builder.
B. In the Business Space configuration setting.
C. In the IBM Case Manager Solution List page.
D. In the IBM Case Manager Administration Client. Answer: C
17.Typically, in a production environment, you do not give users permission to create and manage spaces and catalog entries in Business Space. What function is used to hide these features of the client user interface?
A. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.lockeddown to true.
B. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.manageSpaces to false.
C. Use FileNet Enterprise Manager to set LDAP security on the all users who should not have access.
D. Use the IBM Case Manager Administration Client to configure the security settings for Production groups and users. Answer: A 18.When creating a new solution from a template, how long should the new solution name be?
A. Any length
B. Less than 58 characters C. Less than 999 characters D. Greater than 8 characters Answer: B
19.Which tool is used to register External Data Services (EDS) with IBM Case Manager?
A. Workplace XT
B. Filenet Enterprise Manager
C. Filenet Deployment Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client Answer: D
20.There are three levels of security when configuring a business space page. There are View and Edit access rights. What is the third security level that gives users “special permissions” for things like assigning access rights to groups of users.
A. Owner
B. Specialist
C. Super User D. Administrator Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the minimum number of servers for a distributed configuration?
A. One server; master server
B. Two servers; master and crawler servers
C. Three servers; master, crawler, and search servers
D. Four servers; master, crawler, document processor, and search servers
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which is NOT a supported operating system?
A. AIX 5.3 (32-bit)
B. AIX 6.1 (64-bit)
C. Red Hat Enterprise Linux Advanced Server (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise (32-bit)
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
When you map the common analysis structure to the index, what are you determining?
A. which users can invoke the REST API to find documents
B. which custom annotators will run in the document processing pipeline
C. the structure of the facet tree that will show up in the text miner application
D. which analysis results are indexed to enable search and text mining on them
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 4
Which documents from the collection are used to create the clustering proposal?
A. All of the documents in the index are used.
B. A random sample of the number that you specify
C. The first 1000 documents that were added to the index.
D. A round-robin alphabetically ordered sampling from each different crawler
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
How do you find the option to enable the named entity annotations?
A. Select the ‘system’ option and then the ‘parse’ tab in edit mode.
B. Open the text miner and select the ‘named entity’ facet then click on the facet tab.
C. You do not have to enable them, they are always active for text analytics collections.
D. Edit a collection, select the Parse and Index page, and click Configure document processing pipeline.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
How can you enable duplicate document detection for web content?
A. Select duplicate detection from the edit of a collection, under the search tab.
B. Select duplicate detection from the user preference on the search application.
C. Select duplicate detection from the edit of a collection, under parse and index tab.
D. Select the link-based ranking model and disable security during collection creation.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
What does the acronym UIMA stand for?
A. Uniform IBM Marketechture Asset
B. Unstructured Industry Matrix Alliance
C. Unified Information Machine Architecture
D. Unstructured Information Management Architecture
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
What must you do after you create a list of synonyms in an XML file?
A. Convert the XML file to java.jar format.
B. Import the XML file using the administrative console.
C. Convert the XML file to a binary synonym dictionary.
D. Reimport the dictionary.dic file using the administrative console.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which statement is NOT true about synonym dictionaries?
A. Words are specific to a language with the synonym dictionary.
B. Only one synonym dictionary can be associated to a collection.
C. Synonym dictionary can be used to improve search of acronyms.
D. Add a synonym dictionary to the system, then associate it to a collection.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which languages listed are supported for text analytics collections?
A. French, Arabic, Hindi, Malay
B. German, English, Polish, Greek
C. Hebrew, Italian, English, Russian
D. English, Spanish, Arabic, German
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which cannot be configured in the search server administration?
A. The ability for users to issue wildcard queries.
B. The character which is used to indicate a wildcard query.
C. The ability for users to issue a wildcard query that returns all documents.
D. The number of potential matches the system will search for a wildcard query.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which statement is NOT true?
A. The ‘esadmin’ command can stop a crawler.
B. The ‘esadmin’ command can start a crawler.
C. The ‘esadmin’ command can create a crawler.
D. The ‘esadmin’ command can monitor a crawler.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement is NOT true?
A. Queries can be federated across multiple search collections.
B. Queries can be federated across multiple text analytics collections.
C. Faceted queries cannot be federated across multiple search collections.
D. When queries are federated across collections, the search quality is dependent on the scores that are generated by individual collections.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following is NOT a type of facet available in the search application?
A. flat facet
B. date range facet
C. hierarchical facet
D. auto-normalized facet
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which statement is true for UNIX platforms?
A. The ‘esbackup.sh’ command must be executed with ‘root’ privileges.
B. While ‘esbackup.sh’ command is executing, administrator may continue to use the administrative console.
C. If ‘esbackup.sh’ command takes too long to execute, the administrator may Ctrl-C out of it and retry at a later time.
D. After ‘esbackup.sh’ command is completed, the backed up files can be used to restore a system with a new installation.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
What is the method used to check the status of indexing on a collection?
A. Open the text miner and click on the ‘dashboard’ tab.
B. Using the administrative console, stop the indexer component and then click on the log tab.
C. In the administrative console, click on the ‘general’ tab, on the ‘edit’ icon and then on ‘view collection settings’.
D. In the administrative console, click on the ‘parse and index’ tab, on the ‘monitor’ icon and then click on ‘details’.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Only search collections can use hierarchical facets.
B. Search collections can be configured to export search results to a Cognos report.
C. Named entity annotators can be enabled in the administrative console for search collections.
D. Search collections can be configured to use multiple different document dates from the index in the search application.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
How does the IBM Classification Module annotater documents?
A. with tokens extracted from the documents
B. with entities identified and extracted from the documents
C. with relationships identified and extracted from the documents
D. with one or more known categories derived from the documents
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which date format will ICA accept as a valid date field for the date facet?

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QUESTION NO: 1
An object valued property can be used to enforce which two of the following? (choose two.)
A. Annotations.
B. Referential integrity.
C. Security inheritance.
D. Content classification.
E. Maximum content size.
Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
The Content Engine sets a newly created storage area to what resource status?
A. Open. B. Ready. C. Standby.
D. New Content.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Of the following statements about searches, which two are true? (choose two.)
A. Stored searches are versionable documents.
B. Stored searches are customizable at run time.
C. Search templates allow for searching across multiple object stores.
D. Search templates can contain only property-based search parameters.
E. Stored searches can only be created through the FileNet Enterprise Manager.

Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
Document entry templates allow the designer to force values for which of the following items?
A. Location, class, properties, and security.
B. Class, properties, security, but not location.
C. Location, class, security, but not properties.
D. Location, class, properties, but not security.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Before updating a Content Engine and process Engine with a fix pack, how will you verify the supported product versions?
A. Plan and prepare guide.
B. Fix pack compatibility matrix.
C. All fix packs are supported on any product versions.
D. No need to verify anything, always use latest version.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 7
Workplace XT hosts and manages a component that enables the Process Engine to make calls on external components. What is this component called?
A. PEOperations
B. Process Adaptor
C. Component Manager
D. Process Administrator
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following is true about the Directory configuration properties (User tab) -> User Search Filter property?
A. The search filter must contain a clause with “cn={0}”.
B. The search filter is read-only and cannot be modified.
C. The search filter must contain a clause with “objectClass=user”.
D. The attributes supplied to the search filter may be specific to the directory provider.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which one of the following Content Engine Client’s will have better performance?
A. CE Client using .NET API.
B. CE Client using COM API.
C. CE Client using Java API over EJB transport.
D. CE Client using Java API over WSI transport.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 10

How can you optimize performance for large content uploads and downloads in a Content Engine (CE) server farm?
A. Take advantage of file store replication.
B. Increase the size of your upload and download directories.
C. Specifying a server affinity setting in the CE client application.
D. Adjust your load balancer to use all the CE servers in the Farm.
Answer: C Explanation:

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