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QUESTION 1
A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value of a metric of interest.
A. NP Chart
B. Xbar-R Chart
C. I-MR Chart
D. C Chart

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of defectives of a particular sample set so she used a ___________ to display the data?
A. Individual Chart
B. C Chart
C. Xbar Chart
D. P Chart

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to enable OCAP for the process?
A. Xbar Chart
B. Time Series Chart
C. Neither
D. Both

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Control Charts were developed by Dr. Shewhart to track data over time. To detect Special Cause variation the Control Charts use which of these?
A. Data shift analysis
B. Outlier analysis methods
C. Center Line and Control Limits
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Common and ______________ Cause Variation are the focus of Statistical Process Control.
A. Uncommon
B. Ordinary
C. Special
D. Selective

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?
A. Natural & Unnatural
B. Short Term & Long Term
C. Assignable & Pattern
D. Attribute & Discreet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Range Charts are the technique used to determine if Special Causes are occurring within the subgroups of the ______________.
A. Histograms
B. SPC Charts
C. NP Charts
D. Pareto Charts

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
If the production is for higher volume and monitoring and the Mean and variability is to be monitored for four machines producing product and the characteristic to be monitored is Variable Data, which SPC Chart is best to be selected?
A. Xbar-R Chart
B. Individual-MR Chart
C. NP Chart
D. CUSUM Chart

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
When a Belt Poka-Yoke’s a defect out of the process entirely then she should track the activity with a robust SPC system on the characteristic of interest in the defect as an early warning system.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Following the completion of a LSS project the Belt not only creates a Control Plan he also develops a _____________ so those involved in the process know what to do when the critical metrics move out of spec.
A. Response Plan
B. Call List
C. Chain-of-Command
D. Defect Analysis Plan
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The Control Limits width varies if the sample size varies for which type of chart?
A. P Charts
B. NP Charts
C. Xbar-R Charts
D. Time Series Charts

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of these elements are not included in Implementation plans?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Risk management plans
C. Cost/Benefit ratios
D. Planned audits of work completion

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Upon completion and validation of an improvement to a process a Belt and the Project Team create a Control Plan that contains which of these?
A. Standard operating work description of the process change
B. Description of the monitoring system in place to assure continued compliance
C. Summary of the targeted critical metrics for process performance measurement
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What conclusion is most correct about the Experimental Design shown here with the response in the far right column?

A. No factor has enough statistical confidence greater than 95% to have an impact on the response rate
B. Constant, Adv and Bev are the only factors statistically affecting the response rate with 95% confidence or more
C. If the Adv is increased from the low level to the high level, the response rate increases
D. The response level is statistically concluded to only need the Adv and Bev factors set at the low level to get the largest response rate
E. This design does not have enough experimental runs to conclude anything as evidenced by the lack of P-values in the MINITABTM output

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which statement(s) are correct about the Factorial Plot shown here? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

A. When the cutting speed increased from low to high level, the tool age increases
B. The coefficient of the metal hardness is positively related to the output of tool age
C. The coded coefficient is lower for cutting speed than the cutting angle related to the output of tool age
D. These plots prove a statistically significance factor with 95% confidence
E. These plots are an example of interaction plots

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16
How many experimental runs exist in a Full Factorial and fully randomized design for 4 factors with 2 replicates for the Corner Points and no Center Points? The factors in the experiment are only at 2-levels.
A. 10
B. 32
C. 256
D. 64

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
If an experiment has 5 factors and no replicates for a 2-level Experimental Design with 16 experimental runs which statement is incorrect?
A. The Experimental Design is half-fractional
B. The Main Effects are confounded with only 4-way interactions
C. The Main Effects for the 5 factors are not aliased or confounded but the 2-way interactions are confounded with the 3-way interactions
D. The experiment has 8 experimental runs with the first factor at the high level

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which statement(s) are correct about the Pareto Chart shown here for the DOE analysis? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. It is unknown from this graph how many factors were in the Experimental Design
B. The factors to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal to 2.06
C. The effects to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal to 0.05
D. The factors to keep in the mathematical model with a 5% alpha risk are BE, AB, A and AD

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 19
Fractional Factorial, ____________and Response Surface Method are types of planned experiments.
A. Multi-Vari Analysis
B. Baldridge Channels
C. One Factor at a Time or OFAT
D. Factorial Design

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Relative to a Design of Experiments the term ________________ refers to variables being a linear combination of each other.
A. Mirror Image
B. Directly Parallel
C. Collinear
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which statement(s) are incorrect about Fractional Factorial Designs?
A. A Half Fractional Design for 5 factors has the same number of experimental runs as a Full Factorial Design for 4 factors assuming no repeats or replicates or Center Points
B. Quarter Fractional experiments can exist for those with 4 factors
C. Resolution V design is desired while controlling costs of experimentation
D. Half Fractional experiments do not exist for those designs with only 2 factors

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
If in an experiment all possible variable pairs sum to zero the design is Orthogonal.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Which Experimental Design typically is most associated with the fewest number of input variables or factors in the design?
A. Fractional Factorial design
B. Full Factorial design
C. Simple Linear Regression
D. Response Surface Design

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
The method of Steepest Ascent guides you toward a target inside the original inference space.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Situations where standardized work needs to be incorporated include all of these except _____________________.
A. Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
B. Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
C. Changeover instructions incomplete
D. Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Internal control systems have two components. The first is_____________ ,and the second is the __________ within an individual business application
A. Environmental Controls, Transaction Processing Controls
B. Transaction Processing Controls, Environmental Controls
C. General Control, Environmental Control
D. Environmental Control, General Control
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
The purpose of a Risk Analysis Process is to answer the question:
A. How big is the risk?
B. Is this an acceptable risk?
C. What exactly is being exposed to the risk?
D. What alternatives are there?
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
The main objectives of process mapping is / are to understand:
A. How a process contributes to meeting the organization’s mission and goals?
B. Who is responsible for the process?
C. How the process interfaces to produce the organization’s outcomes?
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Laws and regulations affecting the products produced and operated are generally addressed in which planning activity:
A. Business or Activity Planning
B. Environment Planning
C. Capabilities Planning
D. Assumptions Planning
E. Policies Planning
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Strategic planning answers which of the following questions:
A. What to do?
B. When to do it?
C. How to do it?
D. Where to do it?
E. Who does it?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6

Enforcement of standards is the responsibility of:
A. Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Auditors
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which of the following Quality Management principle(s) are incorporated into the ISO 9001 standard?
A. System approach to management
B. Process approach
C. Mutually beneficial supplier relationships
D. Factual approach decision making
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 8
The level of quality can vary significantly from project to project. These levels of quality, which can be quantified and measured, are called:
A. Defect Density
B. Quality Attributes
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Assurance

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
The primary responsibility of quality lies with:
A. Project Manager
B. Senior Management
C. Testing Team
D. Developer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
COTS software is normally developed prior to an organization selecting that software for its use.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
In the PDCA cycle, if a check detects an abnormality, then record the abnormality and continue the work per the procedure.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT a QFD Horizontal Deployment?
A. Functional Deployment
B. Information Deployment
C. Customer Deployment
D. Task Deployment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What early quality pioneer developed the “Quality Trilogy” of Quality Planning, Quality Control, and Quality Improvement?
A. William Perry
B. Joseph Juran
C. Dr. Deming
D. Philip Crosby
E. Bill Gates
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is considered a product measure?
A. Overall development time
B. Average level of experience of development staff
C. Rate time
D. Quality
E. Time spent fixing errors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Example(s) of traditional management philosophy are:
A. Fire fighting
B. Refine the process
C. Teamwork
D. A and C
E. All the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
SEI’s CMMi maturity level 5 is also known as:
A. Managed
B. Defined
C. Optimizing
D. Quantitatively Managed
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which level(s) of the organization should be involved in both establishing and using processes in their daily work?
A. Senior
B. Mid-level
C. Junior
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
It is generally agreed that people are the key to providing an adequate and appropriate level of security. One of the most effective methods for involving people in security is:
A. Write a security policy
B. Conduct security awareness training
C. Evaluate people on following security procedures
D. Write detailed security procedures
E. Develop security response programs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Process improvement activities should also be conducted as per a defined process.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
Good ideas are of little value unless they are accepted and implemented.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Which of the following defines special cause of variation?
A. Variation between the upper and lower control limits
B. Variation not present in the process
C. Conditions that regularly contribute to variability
D. Contributes a small portion to control variation of process outputs
E. Regular contributors to variability

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which of the following activities should occur before processes are defined to ensure that the most critical processes are defined first.
A. Do
B. Design
C. Implementation
D. Check
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
What should post-implementation audits NOT be used for?
A. Determine if system objectives were met
B. Determine if standards were followed
C. Determine who is to blame for project problems
D. Determine if IT quality objectives were achieved
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which of the following processes is / are within the Defect Management level for maturing the Quality Control Processes?
A. Defect Database
B. Defect Reporting
C. Defect Analysis
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
What company developed the concept known as “Six Sigma Quality”?
A. IBM
B. Microsoft
C. Infosys
D. Apple
E. Motorola
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
In critical listening, the listener is:
A. Sympathetic to the speaker’s point of view
B. Performing an analysis of what the speaker said
C. Selecting pieces of information
D. Getting a complete message with minimal distortion
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A process is a vehicle of communication, specifying the methods used to produce:
A. A Service
B. A Product
C. Both Product and Service
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28

When listening to a speaker, the speaker’s verbal, vocal, and body channels always convey the same message.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Testing to determine whether current changes have adversely affected previous functionality is called:
A. Regression Testing
B. System Testing
C. Unit Testing
D. Acceptance Testing
E. Integration Testing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Branch testing technique is included in which of the following test data categories?
A. Functional
B. Structural
C. Error Oriented

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What is the maximum amount of time that the team should spend in the daily scrum?
A. As long as it takes
B. 1 hour
C. 45 minutes
D. 15 minutes
E. 15 minutes, proportionally less for shorter Sprints

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Please select which statement is the most accurate:
A. Agile Development is an implementation of Scrum
B. Scrum is an implementation of Agile Development
C. Agile Development and Scrum are synonyms for the same methodology
D. Agile Development and Scrum are contrasting methodologies

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Running the daily scrum meeting;
B. Running the daily scrum meeting
C. Gathering requirements for Product Backlog items
D. Inspecting work at Sprint Review

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
How should items in the Product Backlog be ordered?
A. Alphabetically first and then by list order in the Product Backlog
B. Grouped by business features first and then chronologically by date of original business request
C. Prioritized by business importance first. The items that result in biggest ROI, must be priorized first;
D. Chronologically by date of original business request first and then by list order in the Product Backlog

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a role in the Scrum framework?
A. Database Admin
B. Development Team
C. QA Tester
D. Senior Developer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
The Scrum Framework encompasses rules or guidelines for documentation?
A. True B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
The individual, detailed pieces of work that are needed to convert a product backlog item into a working software component or solution are called:
A. User Stories
B. Use cases
C. Line items
D. Tasks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Why does Scrum prevent Product Owners from changing Product Backlog items that are being worked on during the Sprint?
A. The development team cannot meet their Sprint commitment to complete work if requirements are changing
B. A Sprint cycle is not enough time for senior management review and approve changes
C. This forces Product Owners to focus on what is really important for the team to develop.
D. The development team must be able to limit the Product Owner authority

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which of the following is not a Scrum artifact?
A. User Stories
B. Sprint Backlog
C. Product Backlog
D. Incremento de Software

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
You are the new Scrum Master at a company currently doing RUP in three month iterations. Your current task in switching from RUP to Scrum is to define how long the Sprint cycle should be. In what units of time should you define the sprint cycle?
A. A fixed amount of months
B. A fixed amount of weeks, excluding holidays
C. A fixed amount of days
D. A fixed amount of hours

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements best explains what the term Sprint means in Scrum?
A. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to test and resolve any issues prior to product release or shipment
B. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to work at a sustainable pace to finish select work.
C. A sprint is an agreed upon period of time for team members to select individual items from the product backlog to work on.
D. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to work as many hours as needed to finish assigned work

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
_____________ can change the priority of items in the _________ backlog at any time.
A. The Team; Product
B. The Product Owner(s); Sprint
C. The Product Owner(s); Product
D. The Scrum Master; Sprint

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a Scrum cycle activity?
A. Sprint retrospective
B. Daily scrum
C. Weekly inspection
D. Sprint planning

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements best describes Product Backlog items?
A. Undefined or poorly defined Product Backlog items should be placed on the Product Backlog with a low priority
B. All Product Backlog items are the result of a(n) analysis, requirements and/or design phase(s).
C. Undefined or poorly defined Product Backlog items should be kept out from the Product Backlog until sufficient detail is known.
D. Every Product Backlog item, whether low priority or high priority, should possess sufficient detail for the Team to complete in a Sprint.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
________________ constitute the Sprint Backlog and are often estimated in hours?
A. User Stories
B. Use Cases
C. Features
D. Tasks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an independent Product Backlog

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 20
What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a _________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections?
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum team work?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?
A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation process. The project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few administrative closure activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have wrecked the project but you and your project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the project costs or project completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have identified during the project’s monitoring and controlling process?
A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization’s lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project’s risk register already.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?
A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months and will cost $750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and stakeholders to identify risks within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why you have scheduled so many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just initially during the project planning. What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?
A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during project execution.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a rating for occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Which of the following role carriers will decide the Key Risk Indicator of the enterprise? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Business leaders
B. Senior management
C. Human resource
D. Chief financial officer

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 8
What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Determination of cause and effect
B. Determination of the value of business process at risk
C. Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss
D. Determination of the value of an asset

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 9
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?
A. Resource Management Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Stakeholder management strategy
D. Communications Management Plan

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Which of the following controls is an example of non-technical controls?
A. Access control
B. Physical security
C. Intrusion detection system
D. Encryption

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
You are the project manager of GHT project. Your project team is in the process of identifying project risks on your current project. The team has the option to use all of the following tools and techniques to diagram some of these potential risks EXCEPT for which one?
A. Process flowchart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Influence diagram
D. Decision tree diagram

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the utility of a risk?
A. The finance incentive behind the risk
B. The potential opportunity of the risk
C. The mechanics of how a risk works
D. The usefulness of the risk to individuals or groups

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Which of the following aspect of monitoring tool ensures that the monitoring tool has the ability to keep up with the growth of an enterprise?
A. Scalability
B. Customizability
C. Sustainability
D. Impact on performance

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified risk that is noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals of your enterprise. In which of the following levels do this identified risk exists?
A. Moderate risk
B. High risk
C. Extremely high risk
D. Low risk

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Courtney is the project manager for her organization. She is working with the project team to complete the qualitative risk analysis for her project. During the analysis Courtney encourages the project team to begin the grouping of identified risks by common causes. What is the primary advantage to group risks by common causes during qualitative risk analysis?
A. It helps the project team realize the areas of the project most laden with risks.
B. It assist in developing effective risk responses.
C. It saves time by collecting the related resources, such as project team members, to analyze the risk events.
D. It can lead to the creation of risk categories unique to each project.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “It is the process of exchanging information and views about risks among stakeholders, such as groups, individuals, and institutions.”
A. Risk governance
B. Risk identification
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk communication

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You are an experienced Project Manager that has been entrusted with a project to develop a machine which produces auto components. You have scheduled meetings with the project team and the key stakeholders to identify the risks for your project. Which of the following is a key output of this process?
A. Risk Register
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Risk Breakdown Structure
D. Risk Categories

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which of the following components of risk scenarios has the potential to generate internal or external threat on an enterprise?
A. Timing dimension
B. Events
C. Assets
D. Actors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have planned the risk response process and now you are about to implement various controls. What you should do before relying on any of the controls?
A. Review performance data
B. Discover risk exposure
C. Conduct pilot testing
D. Articulate risk

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 20
Which of the following is NOT true for risk management capability maturity level 1?
A. There is an understanding that risk is important and needs to be managed, but it is viewed asa technical issue and the business primarily considers the downside of IT risk
B. Decisions involving risk lack credible information
C. Risk appetite and tolerance are applied only during episodic risk assessments
D. Risk management skills exist on an ad hoc basis, but are not actively developed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
An enterprise has identified risk events in a project. While responding to these identified risk events, which among the following stakeholders is MOST important for reviewing risk response options to an IT risk.
A. Information security managers
B. Internal auditors
C. Incident response team members
D. Business managers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of unwanted occurrences in a system?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Scenario analysis
C. Fault tree analysis
D. Cause and effect analysis

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
What is the process for selecting and implementing measures to impact risk called?
A. Risk Treatment
B. Control
C. Risk Assessment
D. Risk Management

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act specifies “Periodic financial reports must be certified by CEO and CFO”?
A. Section 302
B. Section 404
C. Section 203
D. Section 409

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
What is the PRIMARY need for effectively assessing controls?
A. Control’s alignment with operating environment
B. Control’s design effectiveness
C. Control’s objective achievement
D. Control’s operating effectiveness Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decide, with your stakeholders’ approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project, what is likely to increase?
A. Human resource needs
B. Quality control concerns
C. Costs
D. Risks

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transfer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?
A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected
B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations
C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
D. Safeguarding assets

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?
A. Business Continuity Strategy
B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information
C. Disaster Invocation Guideline
D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? “Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management”
A. Level 3
B. Level 0
C. Level 5
D. Level 2
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1 A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2 When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the fieldwork starts, the comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit

Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results

Answer: B
QUESTION: 4 Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess compliance to a specific requirement at all locations where that requirement is applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes that statistical process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations are done correctly and are regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6 When is it acceptable to grant an extension of the time frame for a corrective action?
A. When the auditor cannot perform the follow-up audit as scheduled
B. When the auditee determines that the proposed corrective action is not cost- effective
C. When the corrective action plan requires more time than originally anticipated
D. When there has been a change in operators who perform the task

Answer: C
QUESTION: 7 The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control charts?
A. p chart
B. u chart
C. np chart
D. c chart

Answer: A
QUESTION: 8 Auditors can use flowcharts in their work in order to
A. analyze the causal factors of process dispersion
B. understand the overall process or system being audited
C. distinguish variations in a process over time
D. determine process capability and uniformity

Answer: B
QUESTION: 9 An auditee responds to a corrective action request by stating that the problem has never occurred before and is “not the norm for our operation.” Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the lead auditor?
A. Note that the deficiency is the result of a random occurrence.
B. Draft a response explicitly requesting a more concise root-cause analysis.
C. Confer with the audit client to assess the appropriateness of the response.
D. Schedule a follow-up audit immediately.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 Which of the following is an audit reporting technique for prioritizing audit findings?
A. Weibull distribution
B. Risk-benefit ratio
C. Cognitive dissonance
D. Ishikawa diagram

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 Which of the following is most important for an auditor to convey at an initial audit interview?
A. A give-and-take atmosphere that focuses on compromise
B. A formal approach that is guided by specific roles for each participant
C. An interest in cooperation and open dialogue
D. A personal approach to information gathering

Answer: C
QUESTION: 12 If the audit escort for one area is repeatedly late or unavailable, what is the best option open to the auditor?
A. Notify the auditee management of the consequences created by the delays.
B. Narrow the scope of the audit to accommodate the delays.
C. Proceed without the escort.
D. Assess system effectiveness using objective evidence from other areas.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 13 Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Range
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14 During the opening meeting, it is the auditee’s responsibility to
A. prepare the meeting agenda
B. set the audit schedule
C. state the audit purpose and scope
D. identify safety requirements

Answer: D
QUESTION: 15
Auditor independence includes freedom from which of the following?

I. Bias
II. Conflict of interest
III. External influences
IV.
Previous exposure to the area

A.
I and II only

B.
II and IV only

C.
I, II, and III only

D.
II, III and IV only

Answer: C
QUESTION: 16 Which of the following requests by an auditor is likely to obtain the most objective evidence for verification?
A. “What kind of information do you receive?”
B. “Who provides the information to you?”
C. “Describe how you receive information.”
D. “Show me the information you have received.”
Answer: D
QUESTION: 17
Audits are conducted against a performance standard to ensure which of the following?
I. Meaningful measurements
II. Objectively evaluated performance
III.
Perceptive observations

A.
I only

B.
I and II only

C.
II and III only

D.
I, II, and III

Answer: B
QUESTION: 18 While performing an internal audit, an auditor notices that an operator on one shift skips part of the documented procedure. In this situation, the auditor should do which of the following?
A. Make a note on the checklist and initial it.
B. Report it to the operator’s supervisor or manager.
C. Question the operator about the observation.
D. Ask another operator to evaluate the situation.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 19 An auditor is performing an audit of a drilling machine that produces 100 pieces a day and that is showing improved quality. Which of the following rules should be used for determining the proper sample size for a fixed level of confidence?
A. The moving average should be calculated.
B. The sample size should be decreased as the quality improves.
C. The AQL of the raw material should be used.
D. A 10% sample size should be used, regardless of the change in quality.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 20
An audit report should contain which of the following?

A. Audit findings
B. Root cause analysis
C. Corrective action
D. Re-audit schedule

Answer: A
QUESTION: 21 The objective evidence supporting an audit observation must be
A. recorded on the working papers
B. verified by the escort
C. mentioned to the auditee
D. written as a nonconformance

Answer: A
QUESTION: 22 Generally, which of the following is the most meaningful way to trace a finished product?
A. Forward from starting with the acquisition of raw materials
B. Forward from the first production activity
C. Backward from the start of the assembly process
D. Backward from the end point

Answer: D
QUESTION: 23 When a proposed corrective action plan is judged unacceptable, an auditor should do which of the following?
A. Revise the submitted plan on the basis of the auditor’s knowledge and technical expertise.
B. Notify the auditee and request that a new plan be submitted by the next level of management.
C. Discuss the plan’s deficiencies with the auditee and request a revised plan.
D. Suggest that the auditee benchmark the deficient area and then rewrite the plan.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 24 Who makes the final determination regarding the distribution of the audit report?
A. The lead auditor
B. The audit group manager
C. The auditee
D. The client

Answer: D
QUESTION: 25 The confidence level in a sampling plan is defined as the
A. degree of uncertainty that the selected sample contains at leastone example of any errors thatare present
B. degree of certainty that the selected sample contains at least one example of any errors that are present
C. lowest performance level that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited
D. maximum error rate that can be considered acceptable for the function being audited

Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
Which of the following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?

A. Histograms
B. Frequency distributions
C. Pareto charts
D. Process observations

Answer: D
QUESTION: 27 An auditor finds deficiencies in the order entry, purchasing, product test, and shipping functions of a potential supplier. Which of them should have the highest priority in the audit report?
A. Order entry
B. Product test
C. Purchasing
D. Shipping

Answer: B
QUESTION: 28 After an external audit, the auditee may be asked to evaluate which of the following auditor skills or elements of the audit?
A. Interviewing, interaction, accuracy of the audit report
B. Audit scheduling, auditor training records, observing an audit
C. Communication, listening, checklist preparation
D. Clarity of past audit reports, number of findings, lack of bias

Answer: A
QUESTION: 29 To determine whether a finding is a minor, isolated incident or a serious, chronic problem, an auditor should consult with the
A. auditee’s quality assurance inspector
B. auditee’s department manager
C. audit team
D. client

Answer: C
QUESTION: 30 Which two of the following conditions must be met in order to infer statistical significance about the results of an audit sample?
I. The population must be homogeneous.
II. The sample size must be greater than 10.
III. The sample must be random.
IV.
The sample must be taken from multiple locations.

A.
I and II
B.I
and III

C.
II and III

D.
III and IV

Answer: B
QUESTION: 31 Which of the following qualifications would contribute most to an auditor being able to function effectively in various industrial or service disciplines?
A. Familiarity with technical standards and regulations
B. A college degree in a specific technical area
C. A working knowledge of typical corporate organizational structures
D. Extensive background in calibration and metrology techniques

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 A root cause analysis can best be described as a process that is used to
A. evaluate corrective action plans
B. determine the basic reason for an undesirable condition
C. identify the symptoms of an undesirable condition

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QUESTION 1
IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using 4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4GLs are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly
for graphic user interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs
have simple programming language subsets.

C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would
provide the most positive verification that updating was proper.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the
testing of software modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one
single unit/entity, consisting of numerous modules and second, with the user data that
flows across software modules. In some cases, this even drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply
closely examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software.
Hence, these cannot be referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and
this would be a cause for concern. Incorrect answers:

B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this areA.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an
ethernet and token network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device. Bridges operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the
media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:

A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses (i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN, reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled through callback systems that are available.
QUESTION 7
A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up line, then the server disconnects and:
A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and password using the sender’s database.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials again. The server cannot depend upon the sender’s database to dial back as the same could be manipulated.
QUESTION 8
Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured
programming has evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain.
Structured programming is a style of programming which restricts the kinds of control
structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program can be written with allowed
control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as go-to-less programming, since a

go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well
known restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured
programming was becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary,
except in languages where subroutines are identified by labels.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data
to ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value
substituted. This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:

A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteriA.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that they are not already in the system.
QUESTION 10
An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in
advance of the need.
Incorrect answers:

B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers
and CPUs, to operate an information processing facility. D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site
that can back up critical applications.
QUESTION 11
A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when deadlines are tight), units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test areA. This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing. Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.
QUESTION 12
In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading
partners and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:

B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner’s proprietary format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the
communications handler.
QUESTION 13
The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and
evaluation stages. It is during the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management’s commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.
QUESTION 14
Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh) Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host
machines.
Incorrect answers:

A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or
blanks.
Incorrect answers:

A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteriA.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.
QUESTION 17
A data administrator is responsible for:
A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their
relationship. Choices A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

QUESTION 18
A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database. Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.
QUESTION 19
An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schemA.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schemA. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to

the internal schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data
independence for application systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user department data model.
QUESTION 20
To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender’s private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender’s private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender’s private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the sender’s private key.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message, and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest using the sender’s private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest, only the message digest is enciphered using the sender’s private key, not the message.
QUESTION 21
A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected to the system.
QUESTION 22
A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network resources.
QUESTION 23
Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a

central computer to relieve the central computer.
QUESTION 24
The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed
checkpoints but its primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of
documentation nor will it provide direction for the post-implementation review.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so
messages can make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:

B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions, such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a higher-speed channel.

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QUESTION 1
The key factors that have contributed to the higher cost of health care include:
A. Technology, aging population, chronic disease and litigation
B. Aging population, chronic disease, performance payment and litigation
C. Technology, performance payment and litigation
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
What change the basis of payment for hospital outpatient services from a flat fee for individual services to fixed reimbursement for bundled services?
A. Cost payment system
B. Ambulatory payment classifications
C. Cost compliance and litigation
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
when providers try to get one payor to pay for costs that have not been covered by another payor, this refers to:
A. Cost Capacity
B. Cost capitalization
C. Cost-shifting
D. Prospective cost

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
The combination of age and technology has increased cost with the passage of time.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Prescription drug coverage for Medicare enrollees, which offsets some of the out-of- pocket costs for medications, this covers:
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part D
D. Medicare Part F

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
The need to abide by governmental regulations, whether they are for the provision of care, billing, privacy accounting standards, security or the like refers to:
A. Compliance
B. Chronic Medicare
C. Health proactive standards
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
that providers have to pay insurers to cover the cost of defending against the lawsuits and paying large jury awards.
A. Ambulatory payment classifications
B. Reimbursement Insurance cost plan
C. Health proactive Insurance standard act
D. Increased insurance premiums

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
A set of federal compliance regulations to ensure standardization of billing, privacy and reporting as institutions convert to electronic systems is called:
A. Health Insurance standard Act
B. Reimbursement Insurance Act
C. Medicare Reporting Act
D. Health Insurance portability and Accountability Act

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
In which act, federal legislation designed to tighten accounting standards in financial reporting and that holds top executives personally liable as to the accuracy and fairness of their financial statements?
A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
B. Insurance accountability Act
C. Financial statement Act
D. Portability and Accountability Standardized Act

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Stark law sates that:
A. Legislation enacted by HIPAA to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients directly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.
B. Legislation enacted by CMS to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients directly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.
C. Legislation enacted by CMS to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients indirectly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.
D. Legislation enacted by HIPAA to guard against providers’ ordering self-referrals for Medicare or Medicaid patients indirectly to any settings in which they have a vested financial interest.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which one of the following is NOT the factor of Uninsured?
A. Health insurance premiums becoming too costly
B. Requiring patients to pay for the part of their own care-up
C. Individuals being screened out of insurance policies
D. Employers feeling they cannot afford to continue to provide health insurance as a benefit

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Concurrent review states that:
A. Planning appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is in the hospital and implementing discharge planning.
B. Monitoring appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is not in the hospital and try to implement discharge planning.
C. Planning appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is not in the hospital and try to implement preadmission planning.
D. Monitoring appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is in the hospital and implementing discharge planning.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Gatekeepers requiring a patient to obtain a referral from his or her primary care physician, the gatekeeper, before assign a specialist.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
Requiring providers to have their capital expenditures preapproved by an independent state agency to avoid unnecessary duplication of services is referred to as:
A. Preapproval certifications and opinions
B. Preapproved payments
C. Certificate of need
D. State service reviews

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which one of the following systems is used to classify inpatients based o their diagnoses, used by both Medicare and private insurers?
A. Diagnosis-related groups
B. Proactive payments system
C. Payment insurance group
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
A system that pays providers a specific amount in advance to care for defined health care needs of a population over a specific period is called:
A. Health care system
B. Prospective payments system
C. Global payment system
D. Capitation

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Risk pool is:
A. A generally small population of individuals who are all uninsured under the same arrangement, regardless of working status
B. A generally large population of individuals who are all insured under the same arrangement, regardless of working status
C. A generally large population of groups who are all uninsured under the different arrangement, regardless of working status
D. A generally small population of individuals who are all insured under different arrangement, regardless of working status

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
A system to pay providers whereby the fees for all providers are included in a single negotiated amount is called:
A. Single member per month payment
B. Global payment
C. Revolutionary payment
D. Ambulatory payment

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Which organizations are the third party entities that contract with multiple hospitals to offer cost savings in the purchase of supplies and equipment by negotiating large-volume discounted contract with vendors?
A. Cost saving organizations
B. Global payment organizations
C. Group purchasing organizations
D. Cost-accounting organizations

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
An electronic health record or electronic medical record is an electronics capture of all of a patient’s encounters and heath information over a short period of time.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
A process that specifies in advance the preferred treatment regimen for patients with particular diagnoses is called:
A. Retail health care
B. Diagnosis care
C. Complementary medicine

D. Care mapping Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Medial home states that:
A. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
B. A proprietorship of primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive care over the long-term in their own variety of settings.
C. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families that do not deliver comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
D. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive care just foe a short period of time in a variety of settings.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Which of the following are the four aspects that all the businesses are required to produce financial statements at least annually?
A. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
B. Journals, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
C. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of cash flow
D. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of controlled liabilities, statement of expense

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
Balance sheet is majorly composed of:
A. heading, body and notes
B. heading, preliminary side bullets and notes
C. footers, body and notes
D. heading, body and footers

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
At the top of the balance sheet there is a three-line heading that includes name of the organization, name ff statement and
A. One date
B. Two dates
C. Three dates
D. none of the above

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following privileges do you need to activate views?
A. SELECT option on the _SYS_BIC schema
B. SELECT option on the _SYS_BI schema
C. SELECT option on the _SYS_REPO schema
D. SELECT option on the _SYS schema
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
Which security settings can you apply in analytic privileges? (Choose two)
A. Restrict access to hierarchies.
B. Restrict access within an analytic view using measure values.
C. Restrict access within an analytic view using attribute values.
D. Grant access to analytic views.
Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 3
You are designing architecture for SAP ERP Profitability Analysis with SAP HANA (COPA Accelerator).
To which network in the diagram should you connect your SAP ECC system?
A. SAP HANA Administrative Network (3)
B. SAP HANA Data Network (4)
C. SAP HANA Data Backup Network (1)
D. SAP HANA Client Network (2)
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
Which of the following is used to deploy SAP-delivered content in SAP HANA?
A. Java Support Package Management (JSPM)
B. Server-side export/import
C. SAP Transport Management System (STMS)
D. SAP NetWeaver Development Infrastructure (NWDI)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 5
In which file do you configure the maximum size of the delta storage memory?

A. preprocessor.ini
B. executer.ini
C. global.ini
D. indexserver.ini
Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
Which view in SAP HANA studio do you use to add additional users?
A. Navigator view
B. Quick Launch view
C. Properties view
D. Console view
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
Which of the following are functions of the controller on the SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT) server? (Choose two)
A. Schedule replication processes.
B. Write data to the SAP HANA system using the DB connection.
C. Create repositories in the source system.
D. Map database structures between SAP HANA and the source system.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 8
What are the recommended ways to perform a database backup? (Choose two)
A. Use the./hdbsetup command
B. Use SAP HANA Studio
C. Use SQL commands
D. Use the BRBACKUP command

Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 9
You have an SAP HANA productive system with sensitive data. How can you restrict modeling users from viewing this data? (Choose two)
A. Remove SAP_DATA_ADMIN in the SQL privileges for the modeling users.
B. Allow modeling only on the SAP HANA development system and export/import the models to the productive system.
C. Use randomized data for the development of data models.
D. Remove ALTER SYSTEM in the system privileges for the modeling users.
Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 10
What must you do in SAP LT to establish a connection between a non-SAP source system database and SAP HANA? (Choose three)
A. Create the source database connection in table DBCON.
B. Define the SAP LT RFC connection to SAP HANA.
C. Define the SAP LT database connection to SAP HANA.
D. Define an RFC connection to the source system.
E. Add a source database connection in the DBA Cockpit.
Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION: 11
What must you do to configure SAP HANA high availability?
A. Right click the Navigator panel and choose Add System…
B. Run command./hdbinst –SID=<SID> –password=<password> –autostart=off.
C. Call stored procedure SYS.UPDATE_LANDSCAPE_CONFIGURATION.
D. Run command./hdbaddhost –SID=<SID> –password=<password> –role=standby.
Answer: D QUESTION: 12

Which tasks do you have to perform if you want to use SAP BW with SAP HANA as the underlying database?
A. Do a homogeneous system copy from your current DB to SAP HANA DB.
B. Ensure that you have at least SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse 7.02 installed.
C. Do a heterogeneous system copy from your current DB to SAP HANA DB.
D. Recreate SAP BW indexes after SAP HANA database migration.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 13
Which view displays the current SAP HANA Support Package level?
A. M_LANDSCAPE_HOST_CONFIGURATION
B. M_VERSION_MEMORY
C. M_HOST_INFORMATION
D. M_DATABASE
Answer: D

QUESTION: 14
Which of the following commands stops the SAP HANA database?
A. HDB stop B. stopsap hdb C. HDB -stop D. stop HDB
Answer: A

QUESTION: 15
Which of the following configuration files contains the backup locations of log and data files?
A. attributes.ini
B. global.ini

C. indexserver.ini
D. localclient.ini
Answer: B

QUESTION: 16
Which command is recommended by SAP to install an SAP HANA database via a graphical user interface (GUI)?
A. ./hdbsetup
B. ./sapinst
C. ./hdbinst
D. ./hdbinst – install
Answer: A

QUESTION: 17
What can you use to transform data from SAP Business Warehouse (BW) into SAP HANA?
A. SAP Legacy System Migration Workbench (LSMW)
B. SAP BusinessObjects Data Services
C. SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
D. SAP BW extractors
Answer: B
QUESTION: 18
Which of the following can you use to replicate data from SAP BW to SAP HANA?
A. An RFC connection to SAP LT
B. Open hub with Data Services 4.0
C. Open hub with SAP LT
D. A database connection to Data Services 4.0
Answer: B

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QUESTION: 1
Which code calls a web form?

A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085

Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 4
You need to import string fields, such as organization names, into the CA Service Desk
database. To do this, you will need to convert them to their internal database values.
Which utility enables you to perform this task?

A. pdm_deref

B. pdm_extract
C. pdm_discimp
D. pdm_userload

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Level 3 CA Service Desk Analyst, Indira Chopra, resolves a ticket and returns it immediately to single point of contact (SPOC), Cliff Warner. Cliff needs to verify with the user that the issue is resolved and:
A. Ask the end user to close the ticket.
B. Return the ticket to Indira for closure.
C. Close the ticket, which sets it to inactive.
D. Set the ticket to pending in case there are related issues.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 Which parts comprise the Central Management Console (CMC) home page? (Choose three)
A. Define
B. Manage
C. Navigate
D. Organize
E. Users and Groups

Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 7
Which component has a Willingness Value?

A. Web engine
B. Data extractor
C. pdm_userload input file
D. Database interface (DBI)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
Which features characterize CA Workflow? (Choose three)

A. It includes inherent security.
B. It is only used for manual tasks.
C. It is external to CA Service Desk.
D. It is used for well defined processes.
E. Users need to be Analysts in CA Service Desk.

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 9
Which component connects web browsers to the CA Service Desk Object Manager?

A. domsrvr
B. Web Engine
C. Web Screen Painter (WSP)
D. WSP Schema Designer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 In a configuration with a Remote Management Database (MDB), what is the preferred requirement for the primary CA Service Desk Server?
A. Single Processor, 2 GHz; 2 GB RAM
B. Dual Processor, 2 GHz; 4 GB RAM
C. Dual Processor, 3GHz; 8 GB RAM
D. Quad Core Processor; 8 GB RAM

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
Which function can you perform with Web Intelligence?
A. Link reports with other data on the Internet.
B. Create basic reports easily without writing queries.
C. Check that your reports have the appropriate rights set.
D. Obtain greater control over reports by writing advanced queries.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 12
The CA Service Desk Universe supports: (Choose three)

A. security maintenance
B. report server setup only
C. multiple databases and multiple languages
D. data retrieval with knowledgeof the object or database layer
E. job scheduling and linkage of delivered reports to theCA Service Desk user interface

Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION: 13
When you run pdm backup:

A. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX only first.
B. It shuts down the services in Windows only first.
C. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows first.
D. It does not need to shut down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows at any stage.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 14 You need to use a third-party scheduler to archive and purge rules. Which executable do you run?
A. bop_cmd
B. domsrver
C. pdm_backup
D. pdm_discimp

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QUESTION: 1
User attribute mapping enables you to:

A. Map policies to different user attributes.
B. Map user groups to different administrator groups.
C. Map user classes to different user attribute names.
D. Map one common name to different user attribute names in different user directories.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Policies can grant access to users based on user information that exists in the user store. The BEST example of that information is:
A. User permissions
B. User profile attribute values
C. The client machine’s IP address
D. CA SiteMinder administrative rights
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
What are the default session settings in CA SiteMinder? (Choose two)
A. Idle Timeout Enabled
B. Idle Timeout Disabled
C. Max Session Timeout Enabled
D. Max Session Timeout Disabled
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 4
Which features characterize the J2EE application server agent? (Choose two)
A. Supports IBM WebSphere and BEA WebLogk
B. Protects J2EE application server-based applications
C. Moves the point of trust from the web server to the ERP/CRM server
D. Makes calls to the Event Manager when authentication credentials are provided

Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 5
Which log file holds log records for the CA SiteMinder user interface (UI)?
A. SiteMinder trace log
B. Application Server log
C. SiteMinder web agent log
D. SiteMinder Policy Server log
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
Two features of global policies are:
A. they are different for each domain and apply to users in all user directories
B. they are different for each domain and apply only to a single user directory
C. they belong to a generic global domain and apply to users in all user directories
D. they belong to a generic global domain and apply only to a single user directory
Answer: B

QUESTION: 7
You successfully install a CA SiteMindcr Web Agent. Then, if you perform the host registration process:
A. A Trusted Host Object is created.
B. A Web Agent Trace File is produced.
C. An Affiliate Agent calls the Policy Server.
D. An Agent Configuration Object (ACO) is updated.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
To turn on the tracing facility for all Policy Server actions, you: A. Configure the smtracedefault.txt file.

B. Modify the general_trace.template file.
C. Set the Enable Profiling option on the Policy Server Profiler tab.
D. Configure the Policy Server Management Console logging option.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 9
Which benefits do agent groups provide? (Choose two)
A. Defining by multiple sets of policy objects
B. Verifying tasks in the Web Agent installation more easily
C. Saving time by defining only one policy for all Web Agents
D. Providing resource access to a larger user base by duplicating the resource on many web servers and Web Agents
Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 10
Two important reasons why password policies are necessary are to:
A. Maintain use of valid passwords and disable user accounts.
B. Increase administrative involvement and disable user accounts. C. Disable user accounts and minimize administrative involvement.
D. Prevent access when passwords have expired and ensure users cannot create week passwords.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
Two benefits of password services are that they:
A. Provide an additional layer of security, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
B. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
C. Provide an additional layer of security, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.
D. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 12
In relation to Agents, what does central configuration indicate?
A. The Web Agent is configured from the Policy Server.
B. The Web Agent is configured from a local configuration file.
C. The Web Agent holds the initialization parameters for trusted hosts.
D. The Web Agent overrides the configuration parameters of trusted hosts.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
One of the three cryptographic operating modes for securing CA SiteMinder data is Federal Information Processing Standards (RPS)-compatibility. This mode:
A. Only uses FIPS 140-2 algorithms. B. Is only used for CA SiteMinder rl2.
C. Uses classic CA SiteMinder 6.x cryptography.
D. Is used where version 6.x and rl2 of CA SiteMinder co-exist.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Where are named expressions stored?
A. In cookies
B. In user classes
C. In the policy store
D. In the Administrator Group
Answer: C

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