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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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070-489 exam Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phone. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.

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QUESTION 12
You need to implement the social features.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
dropdown list in the answer area.)

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Correct Answer:
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Testlet 1
Topic 3, Contoso Ltd
Background
Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production.
Search
The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results.
Search Engine Optimization
The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following 070-489 dumps requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true
Managed Metadata Service (MMS)
The MMS must include three term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features.
Offices Term Set
The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane.
Cities Term Set
The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical. If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices term set before it can be added to the Cities term set. If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change in the Cities term set.
Features Term Set
You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The 070-489 pdf features term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about each property, such as whether the building is a single family house or a condominium. The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the Excel file into the term store in each server environment.
Web Application
The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles folder.
Site Collections and Content
The web application includes the following three site collections.
Board Member Site Collection
The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view  private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the 070-489 vce site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board members.
Internet Site Collection
Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. The Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices. Each office must have its own page on the site. The pages for each office must have the same style and structure. Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office. The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a property. The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company. Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member. The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents, including their contact information, certifications, and picture. When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling. The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their 070-489 vce features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web form that is used specifically for data collection.
The web form must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property.
Agent Site Collection
The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The Agent site collection has the following requirements: The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the website. A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set. 
Page Layouts and Web Parts
Page Layouts
You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements: The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts. The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must display biographical information about the board of directors. You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file. 
Web Parts
The Agent Web Part has the following requirements: The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be used by the Web Part.

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Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 48

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4.What are two reasons to implement S/MIME as part of a BlackBerry Enterprise Solution? (Choose two.)
A. To increase the security of email message transmissions after they leave the organization infrastructure
B. To allow inter-connectivity of multiple BlackBerry Enterprise Servers in a single organizational infrastructure
C. To comply with security standards governed by an organization or a company
D. To improve phone call security between the BlackBerry device and the service providers?wireless towers to prevent digital scanners from picking up wireless signals

E. To allow secure Wi-Fi connections to a organization infrastructure from any hotspot by encrypting data packets
70-741 exam Answer: A,C
5.A BlackBerry device user has multiple groups in the address book of a messaging application. Each day, the user synchronizes this address book with the BlackBerry device’s Address Book. While viewing the Address Book on the BlackBerry device, the user notices that some of the contacts are missing. What should the user do to view the missing entries in the BlackBerry device’s Address Book? (Choose one.)
A. Display the menu > Select View > Select Show all Groups
B. Display the menu > Select Filter > Modify Category
C. Display the menu > Select Options > Modify Sort By
D. Display the menu > Select SIM Phone Book > Select View
E. Display the menu > Select Show All Contacts
Answer: B
6.The BlackBerry device is displaying a 517 error. What does this error indicate and what should be done to resolve the error? (Choose one.)
A. This error indicates that a BlackBerry device does not have BlackBerry Device Software installed and needs to have the software installed using the backup and restore tool.
B. This error indicates a BlackBerry device has a corrupt file system and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the application loader tool.
C. This error indicates a BlackBerry device is locked and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the backup and restore tool.
D. This error indicates a BlackBerry device has a corrupt file system and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the backup and restore tool.
E. This error indicates a BlackBerry device is locked and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the application loader tool.
70-741 dumps Answer: B
7.A BlackBerry device can connect to BlackBerry Desktop Manager using which three connection methods? (Choose three.)
A. USB port
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Infrared technology

D.COM port
E. FireWire connection
F. Parallel connection
Answer: A,B,D
8.Which two conditions must be met for a successful enterprise activation process? (Choose two.)
A. Port 4101 on the firewall must be open.
B. Email messages must go to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server adminstrator’s inbox.
C. Attachments with the .dat extension must be allowed.
D. Message delivery from BlackBerry.net must be unrestricted.

E. All PIM databases must be cleared using the backup and restore tool.
70-741 pdf Answer: C,D
9.During a clean uninstall of BlackBerry Desktop Manager, which two keys from the registry may need to be removed manually by the BlackBerry device user? (Choose two.)
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Research In Motion
B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Research In Motion
C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\BlackBerry
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\BlackBerry
E. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\RIM Device
Answer: A,B
10.Upon completion of an organizer data synchronization on the BlackBerry device, a message appears indicating that several records were skipped. What would cause this message to appear? (Choose one.)
A. One or more of the records in one of the organizer data applications is missing a piece of information that is required for synchronization to occur.
B. BlackBerry Desktop Software lacks the proper permission to access the data.
C. BlackBerry Desktop Software is unable to connect to an organizer data application and, as a result, some records were skipped.
D. A setting in the Configure Synch?options is set to skip records that are dated prior to today.
E. The BlackBerry device has reached the maximum number of entries for the application and is unable to add more entries.
70-741 vce Answer: A
11.Using BlackBerry Manager, what are two ways to navigate to the Resend IT Policy option? (Choose two.)
A. Navigate to Tools > Select Policies > Select a policy name > Select Edit > Select Users > Click Resend IT Policy
B. Right-click on the BlackBerry device user account > Click Resend IT Policy
C. Select the BlackBerry device user account > Select IT Admin in the Task pane > Click Resend IT Policy
D. Select the BlackBerry Enterprise Server name > Select IT Admin > Click Resend IT Policy
E. Right-click on the BlackBerry device user account > Select IT Admin > Click Resend IT Policy
Answer: B,C
12.When performing an enterprise activation, the following error message appears. Some databases failed to synchronize. Address Book
What are two possible causes of this error? (Choose two.)
A. Contact information required for synchronization is missing.
B. The address book is too large to synchronize.
C. Wireless PIM Sync is turned off.
D. There are invalid characters (such as #, %, $, and &) in the address book.
E. The BlackBerry Device Software installed on the BlackBerry device 
has become corrupt.
70-741 exam Answer: A,D
13.A BlackBerry device stops responding and displays the following error message. APP Error 200 Reset What troubleshooting steps should be taken to resolve this issue? (Choose one.)
A. During the application loader process, make sure the Automatically back up and clear the application database option has been selected.
B. Before performing the application loader process, verify that the Content Protection and Content Compression options on the BlackBerry device have both been turned off.
C. Before performing the application loader process, verify that the Regenerate Encryption keys manually option has been selected under Email Settings in BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. While performing the application loader process, make sure the Erase all application data and Erase all currently installed applications options are both selected under Advanced options.
E. During the application loader process, make sure the DOD Root Certificates option is selected and reset the BlackBerry device.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION: 28
Which of the following are goals of the Service Reusability design principle? Select the correct answer.
A. To support the creation of services based upon agnostic service logic.
B. To allow for service logic to be repeatedly leveraged over time so as to achieve an increasingly high return on the initial investment of delivering the service.
C. To increase organizational agility by enabling wide-scale service composition from service inventories that contains a high percentage of reusable services.
D. All of the above.
70-773 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 29
When applying the Service Autonomy principle, runtime autonomy and design-time autonomy are related through the following rule of thumb: “The the amount of design time autonomy, the correct answer.
A. lesser, lesser
B. greater, lesser
C. greater, greater
D. lesser, greater
Answer: C
the amount of attainable runtime autonomy.” Select the
QUESTION: 30
Services with answer. tend to be more . Select the correct

A. a stateful context, more stateless
B. an agnostic context, reusable
C. a non-agnostic context, reusable
D. None of the above.
70-773 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
The service-oriented architectural model is ideally designed to be neutral to vendor platforms so that organizations have the freedom to diversify by leveraging multiple vendor technology innovations over time, as required. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
A service cannot enter the role of composition sub-controller when invoked by a composition initiator. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-773 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 33
The Service Discoverability principle is supported by the Standardized Service Contract principle in which of the following ways? Select the correct answer.
A. The Standardized Service Contract principle advocates using naming conventions for ensuring that the functionality of services is consistently expressed. By making the service easier to understand, it becomes more discoverable.
B. The Standardized Service Contract principle supports a design process whereby the service contract is customized and created prior to the service logic. This allows service designers to shape the service contract content in such a manner that it can be effectively discovered.

C. The Standardized Service Contract principle requires the use of service contract design standards that can be created to establish conventions that are supportive of the Service Discoverability principle.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
Service-orientation establishes a distinct approach to carrying out a(n) .
Select the correct answer.
A. separation of concerns
B. identification of constructs
C. inheritance of contracts
D. refactoring of code
70-773 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
A(n) in the extent to which the Service Reusability principle is applied to a service can result in a(n) composed. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. decrease, decrease
B. increase, decrease
C. decrease, increase
D. increase, increase
Answer: A, D
in the potential for the service to be repeatedly
QUESTION: 36
Which of the following are not service-orientation design principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction
B. Service Reliability

C. Service Autonomy
D. All of the above are service-orientation design principles.
70-773 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
Fill in the blank for the following definition for the Standardized Service Contract design principle: “Services within the same
contract design standards.” Select the correct answer.
A. service activity
B. service inventory
C. state
D. message path
Answer: B
are in compliance with the same
QUESTION: 38
To be considered an enterprise resource a service must be non-agnostic in nature. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-773 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 39
Often it is a requirement to wrap a legacy system with a service. This is typically accomplished by encapsulating calls to the legacy system’s Application Programming Interface (API) within the core logic of the service. Care must be taken to not expose details of the underlying API through the service contract as it may unintentionally couple the service consumer to the
legacy system. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly addresses this concern? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Loose Coupling, Service Abstraction
B. Service Statelessness, Service Autonomy

C. Service Loose Coupling, Service Statelessness
D. Service Autonomy, Standardized Service Contract
Answer: A
QUESTION: 40
When a service is required to manage and hold onto an excessive quantity of state data, it can lead to a decrease in which of the following desirable service characteristics? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. maintainability
B. availability
C. scalability
D. discoverability
70-773 pdf Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 41
The composition controller role is most associated with which of the following service models? Select the correct answer.
A. task service
B. entity service
C. utility service
D. data service
Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
Which of the following is not a benefit associated with silo-based application design? Select the correct answer.
A. The emphasis on fulfilling tactical (short-term) business requirements allows for a more predictable application delivery lifecycle.
B. The analysis and design of applications are easier because strategic (long-term) business requirements don’t usually need to be taken into account.

C. The latest technology advancements can be leveraged by repeatedly building new applications from the ground up.
D. Applications are always inherently built for repeated reuse across silos.
70-773 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
When measuring coupling that exists between a service and a service consumer, you can determine the extent of dependency that exists between the service and service consumer. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
Which of the following are considered negative forms of coupling: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Logic-to-Contract
B. Contract-to-Logic
C. Contract-to-Technology
D. Contract-to-Implementation
70-773 exam Answer: B, C, D

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. The disks on Server2 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create a virtual machine on Server2 named VM1. You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for VM1.
What should you do?

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A. Convert Disk 1 to a basic disk.
B. Take Disk 1 offline.
C. Create a partition on Disk 1.
D. Convert Disk 1 to a MBR disk.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.
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You have a virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
What should you do first?
A. Add one HBA
B. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
C. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
D. Configure network adapter teaming.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6. In SAS Management Console, which components are required for promotion and replication?
A. Foundation Repository, Custom Repository and Project Repository
B. SAS Administration Server, SAS Source Server and SAS Target Server
C. SAS Replication Server, SAS Administration Server and SAS Workspace Server
D. SAS Workspace Server, SAS Stored Process Server and SAS/CONNECT Server
Answer: B
QUESTION 7. Which statement is true about the Quality Knowledge Base (QKB) in the SAS Data Quality Solution?
A. The QKB is required by dfPower Studio applications, but not by the SAS Data Quality Server.
B. The QKB facilitates the sharing of source data between dfPower Studio applications and SAS ETL
Studio.
C. The QKB is used to translate data as it is transferred between dfPower Studio applications and SAS
ETL Studio.
D. The QKB facilitates the sharing of data quality rules between dfPower Studio applications and the SAS
Data Quality Server.
70-410 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. Which statement is true about defining target table columns using the Target Designer in SAS ETL
Studio?
A. Column metadata is imported from a data dictionary columns table.
B. Column metadata is linked to columns in the table from which they are selected.
C. Column metadata is independent of columns in the table from which they are selected.
D. Column metadata is synchronized with columns in the table from which they are selected by the Impact
Analysis Wizard.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. In SAS ETL Studio, what does a Transformation Template contain?
A. sources and/or targets
B. the process flow diagram for a job
C. a transformation object and the process flow diagram for a job

D. a transformation object and one or more drop zones for tables and/or transformations
70-410 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 10. If the SAS ETL Studio Metadata Import Wizard cannot be used, how can metadata be captured from
legacy systems using the Open Metadata API?
I.use the SAS XML Mapper II.use the SAS METADATA procedure III.use the SAS METAOPERATE
procedure IV.use a customized Java plug-in to SAS ETL Studio
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
70-410 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 11. Which repository tree can be defined in SAS Management Console?
A. Two Project Repositories depend on a Custom Repository, which depends on the Foundation
Repository.
B. Two Custom Repositories depend on a Project Repository, which depends on the Foundation
Repository.
C. A Project Repository depends on two Custom Repositories, which depend on the Foundation
Repository.
D. A Custom Repository depends on two Project Repositories, which depend on the Foundation
Repository.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Q&As: 66

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70-357 dumps

QUESTION 25
If the organization has long-term working capital financing needs, it is better off financing needs with short
term financing under normal conditions.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
are variable in short-term and fixed in long-term under normal conditions for working capital.
A. Interest rates
B. Volatility risks
C. Profits
D. Interest costs

QUESTION NO: 27
You have decided to measure the organization’s recruiting effectiveness in the long term by
calculating of turnover. Which of the following reasons represents the PRIMARY purpose of this
measurement?
A. Improve quality of employee
B. Motivating employees effectively
C. Risk management
D. Assessing cost effectiveness of programs
70-357 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A company decide to purpose an international assignment program to fill a new position in its new
office Beijing, China. With the assistance of the human resources professional, the management,
team has finalized a list of selection criteria of the candidate for the role considering the entire
scope of the international assignment. During the interviewing process, they utilize various tools to
isolate out the success factors.
After deciding on the candidate and the individual accepting the offer, the human resources
professional with vendors to provide cross-cultural training prior to departure and plans all the
logistical details for the relocation. The human resources professional also assists the individual
and his family by providing contacts and setting up meetings with other expatriates in the host
country to orientate the expatriate before country, ie career deveploment, potential roles, personal
transition, etc. In this scenario, which of the following actions items were forgotten to ensure a
successful international assignment?
A. Plan for a successful repatriation
B. Provide ongoing support, while on assignment
C. Plan the international assignment as part of a process, not an activity
D. Provide appropriate training
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following stages of globalization is an organization likely in if it is pursuing a
polycentric staffing approach?
A. Domestic
B. Global
C. Multinational
D. Transnational
70-357 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following BEST identifies the stages in the strategic planning process ?
A. Mission & Vision -> Determine Strategic Issues by performing a Gap Analysis, SWOT Analysis,
& Benchmarking -> Strategy Formulation -> Strategy Implementation -> Evaluation & Control
B. Strategy Development -> Strategy Formulation -> Strategy Implementation -> Strategy
Evaluation
C. Mission & Objectives -> Strategy Formulation -> Environmental scanning -> Strategy
Implementation -> Evaluation & Control
D. Mission & Objectives -> Determine Action Plans -> Strategy Implementation -> Evaluation &
Control
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
When assessing the gaps between actual and desired organizational performance, which of
following measures would NOT considered ?
A. Benchmarked results
B. Training and development
C. Individual assessment
D. Task assessment
70-357 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following would a trainer emphasize in order to ensure that a training program
focused on developing skills for a particular job is valid ?
A. Survey comparable off-the-shelf programs
B. Interview incumbent
C. Interview managers
D. Analyze the job description and job specifications
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
You are preparing an on-assignment checklist for an individual going on an international
assignment. Which of the following items is the LEAST important to pursue ?
A. Creating avenues for communication
B. Identify school for children
C. Cross-cultural training
D. Moving/relocation services
70-357 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following is NOT likely an issue a human resources professional would help a dual
career family to work though to determine the appropriateness of an international assignment for
the family at that time ?
A. How will the host country workers respond to a same sex family?
B. Will the accompanying spouse be able to find a job easily?
C. Will the employee consider commuting instead of moving the whole family to the host country?
D. How will the loss of income from one spouse impact the family and their finances?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following is a difference between the recruitment and selection of an individual for a
position in the home country vs. For an international assignment?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Interviewing of family
C. Review of previous work samples, experience, etc.
D. Reference checking
70-357 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
The HR Manager is creating an interactive training program on recruiting for a group of 20 R&D
managers as well as one for a group of 20 production line leads. Which of the following is NOT a
factor to consider bearing in mind these target audiences ?
A. R&D managers have probably had similar training in the past
B. Production line leads are probably kinesthetic learners
C. For the production line lead group, the best media to present this information is a video
D. The facilitator for the group of R&D managers should be a subject matter expert that can
express content as “A” causes “B” incidents
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
In which of the following situations do HR managers have the greatest impact on organizations?
A. Assume management roles on cross-functional projects
B. Actively participates in the long-term organizational strategic planning process
C. Providing legal counsel to managers
D. Evaluate and implement process improvements throughout an organization
70-357 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:

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[High Quality Questions] Up To Date Microsoft Windows 70-695 Dumps Certification Exam Video Training Is Your Best Choice

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Updated: Sep 23, 2017
Q&As: 95

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  • Implement the Operating System Deployment (ODS) infrastructure – 33
  • Implement a Lite Touch deployment – 28
  • Implement a Zero Touch deployment – 31
  • Create and maintain desktop images – 33
  • Prepare and deploy the application environment – 30

70-695 dumps

 

QUESTION NO: 44
Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the
hypothesis being solely due to _________ based on the result of the P-values.
A. Human error
B. Measurement error
C. Shift differences
D. Chance
70-695 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
The Alpha level of a test (level of significance) represents the yardstick against which P-values are
measured and the Null Hypothesis is rejected if the P-value is which of these?
A. Less than the Alpha level.
B. Greater than the Alpha level.
C. Greater than the Beta and Alpha level.
D. Less than one minus Alpha.
E. Less than the power of one minus Beta.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
A 1-Sample t-test is used when you want to compare the Median of one distribution to a target
value.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
When a Belt is analyzing sample data she should keep in mind that 95% of Normally Distributed
data is within +/- 2 Standard Deviations from the Mean.
A. True
B. False
70-695 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
The Standard Deviation for the distribution of Means is called the ___________ and approaches
zero as the sample size reaches 30.
A. Standard Error
B. Mean Deviation
C. Mean Spread
D. Mean Error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public transportation
to work for its employees. According to the manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39
minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use
their personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy of not more
than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees
showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system
with a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal Distribution for the commute times
by either personal or public transportation, which of these is true?

A. The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than using
the metro public transportation system (MPTS)
B. The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their
personal vehicles
C. The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than
the other
D. We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences
E. When Standard Deviation is higher the probability goes down and so the MPTS is worse
70-695 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 50
According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard
Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work when they use their personal vehicles for
their office commute while management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily
one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34
minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of
21 minutes. For the employees choosing to increase their chances to come on time using personal
transportation their variation should be reduced to ___________?
A. 1 minute
B. 6 minutes
C. 3.5 minutes
D. Eliminate it to 0.0 minutes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard
Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles for
their office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily
one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34
minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of
21 minutes. If the Standard Deviation is uncontrollable then the other option to increase the
probability of coming in on time via personal vehicles to work could be ____________?
A. Increase the average time of commut
B. Maintain the average time of commute and change route to work
C. Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
D. Change policy at work and request for flexible times based on location
70-695 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 52
Which of the following is used to test the significance for the analysis of a Variance Table?
A. t Test
B. F Test
C. Chi Square Test
D. Acid Test
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
Non-parametric testing is done when which of these are applicable? (Note: There are 3 correct
answers).
A. When the traditional t tests don’t produce the results we need
B. A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question
C. It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
D. They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
E. When there are no parameters to measure in the process
70-695 exam 
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 54
The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55
Contingency Tables are used to perform which of these functions?
A. Illustrate one-tail proportions
B. Analyze the “what if” scenario
C. Contrast the Outliers under the tail
D. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other
70-695 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
For the data shown here a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results. Which
statement(s) are true for proper Hypothesis Testing?
A. The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
B. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene’s test
C. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood’s Median test
Answer: D

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Latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-716 dumps exam training resources which are the best for clearing MB2-716 exam test. http://www.gotocert.com/mb2-716.html dumps exam questions and answers. The best and most updated Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-716 dumps pdf training materials in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
You import a managed solution that contains a custom entity named Loan. Loan is enabled for customization.
You need to add a new field to the Loan entity.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Open the imported solution, locate the Loan entity, and then add the new field.
B. Create a new solution, add the existing Loan entity, and then add the new field.
C. Modify the Managed Properties of the Loan entity in the imported solution.
D. Open the default solution, locate the Loan entity, and then add the new field.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
You have a Dynamics CHM organization that uses folder tracking. You have a folder named Customers that is currently being tracked- Customers contains a folder for The main contact named Contact1. MB2-716 pdf
A new email message from Contact1 is delivered to your Inbox. You need to identity what will occur when you move the message to the Customer1 folder.
What should you identify?
A. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Customer1 and to Contact1
B. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Contact1 only.
C. An email activity will be created m CRM that has a connection To Customer1 only.
D. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field set to Contact1
E. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field Set to Customer1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You modify the Account form to contain the contain the tabs configured and ordered as shown in the following table.
MB2-716 dumps
You need to identify which tabs will be displayed by default on Dynamics CRM for tablets. MB2-716 dumps
Which tabs should you identify?A. only General. Address Info, and Reseller Info
B. only General, Address Info, Reseller Info, and Additional Info
C. only General, Details, Address Info, Reseller Info, and Additional Info
D. only General, Details. Address Info, and Reseller Info
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have a Dynamics CRM organization.
You have a team named Teaml. All of the members of Teaml have identical security roles. A user named User1 has a personal view to display the records owned by Teaml. You need to ensure that all the members of Teaml can use the view.
What should you do?
A. Instruct User1 to assign the personal view to the owner of Teaml.
B. Instruct the owner of Teaml to configure the filter criteria.
C. Instruct User1 to assign the personal view to Teaml.
D. Instruct User1 to configure the filter criteria.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are adding a sub-grid to the Account form that displays data from a custom entity related to the account. You need to identify which items you can use to display the data. Which two items should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a fist
B. a chart
C. a dashboard
D. an iFrame
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You have a recalled product that should no longer be sold. MB2-716 pdf
You need to remove the Product from the available list of products and to prevent any sales from being processed for the product.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Remove the product from the family hierarchy.
B. Modify the open opportunities.
C. Update the price list.
D. Retire the product.
E. Modify the validity date of the product.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
You have a Dynamics CRM organization. The organization does not use CRM for marketing. You need to prevent Marketing from displaying on the Account form navigation.
What should you do?
A. Delete all of the items in the Marketing group.
B. Hide the Marketing group.
C. Minimize the Marketing group.
D. Delete the Marketing group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a Dynamics CRM development environment and a Dynamics CRM production environment. In both environments, your account is assigned the System Customizer security role. In the development environment, you create a custom solution that contains all of the project components deployed to the production environment. The custom solution contains an entity. In the development environment, you open the project solution that you intend to deploy to the production environment. MB2-716 dumps
You see the entity, but not the field.
You need to ensure that you can modify the field in the development environment.
What should you do?
A. Ask the system administrator to assign your user the System Administrator security role, and then modify the system field.
B. In the project solution, add a field to the entity, and then make the modification.
C. In the default solution, make the modification.
D. Use the Add Sub Components action, add the field, and then make the modification.
Correct Answer: C

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Comprehensive knowledge of Microsoft 70-331 exam practice questions and answers Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
You need to import employee photos into SharePoint user profiles by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Define a mapping for the thumbnailPhoto attribute of the Picture user profile property.
B. Run the Update-SPUserSolution Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run an incremental synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
D. Run a full synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
E. Run the Update-SPProfilePhotoStore Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
F. Define a mapping for the photo attribute of the Picture user profile property.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation:
A: Step 3 below.
D: Step 5 below.
E: Step 6 below.
Note: Importing Images into SharePoint User Profiles My Sites To make the user images that we have uploaded into the thumbnail Photo attribute in Active Directory available in SharePoint we will first need to map it to the Picture property in the User Profile Service Application.
Firstly you will need to go into theUser Profile Service Application.
1. Central Admin > Application Management > Service Applications > Manage Service Applications > User Profile Service Application
2.Then you will need to go into theManage User Propertiessection and edit thePicture property.
3. Next we will map the Active Directory propertythumbnail Phototo thePictureproperty in SharePoint
4.Once the mapping has been applied theManage User Propertiespage will look like this.
5.Now we will need to run aFull User Profile Synchronizationjob so that SharePoint can import theuser images from Active Directory Synchronization > Start Profile Synchronization > Start Full Synchronization
6. Lastly we will need to force SharePoint to update the User Profile Database This will create the thumbnails that are used in My Sites and the User Profile Service. This will need to be run in the SharePoint PowerShell Console with the appropriate My Site permissions.
70-331 exam
QUESTION 2                          70-331 exam
You create a User Profile Synchronization connection.
You need to grant the necessary permissions to the synchronization account.
What should you do?
A. Grant the account Full Control on the ActiveUsers OU.
B. Grant the account Full Control on the AuthenticatedUsers AD security group.
C. Grant the account Read permission on the domain.
D. Grant the account the Replicate Directory Changes permission on the domain.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that content authors can publish the specified files.
What should you do?
A. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
B. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the authoring web application.
C. Create one authoring site collection. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
D. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You copy the content of the SharePoint installation media and software updates to your hard drive.
You need to meet the setup requirements for future SharePoint server installations.
What should you do? 70-331 exam
A. Extract the content of each file to the Updates folder by running the /extract: command.
B. Upgrade the installation media by running the /lang: command.
C. Extract the content of each file to the Setup folder by running the /extract: command.
D. Extract the content of each file to the PrerequisiteInstallerFiles folder by running the /extract: command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to implement corporate sizing and performance guidelines for general usage scenarios.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 100 milliseconds.
B. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 4 TB.
C. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 20 milliseconds.
D. Limit the number of documents in each document library to 20 million.
E. Limit the number of documents in each content database to 10 million.
F. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 200 GB.
Correct Answer: CEF

Explanation:
C: Network Attached Storage (NAS) is only supported by SharePoint 2013 with iSCSI and if TTFB is less than 20ms.
E: The largest number of items per content database that has been tested on SharePoint Server 2013 is 60 million items, including documents and list items. If you plan to store more than 60 million items in SharePoint Server 2013, you must deploy multiple content databases.
F: We strongly recommended limiting the size of content databases to 200 GB, except when the circumstances in the following rows in this table apply. If you are using Remote BLOB Storage (RBS), the 70-331 exam total volume of remote BLOB storage and metadata in the content database must not exceed this limit.
Note: The use of RBS-enabled content databases larger than 4TB with collaboration sites is not supported.

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Pass 70-413 Exam With Latest Micosoft 70-413 Exam Questions And Answers

QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and Micosoft 70-413 exam AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.
70-413
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the 70-413 pdf GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.

QUESTION 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the 70-413 vce research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the 70-413 dumps current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations.
Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the 70-413 VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

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Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-413.aspx

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QUESTION NO: 1
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
A receivables cash receipt in the Dynamics GP 2013 system needs to be voided. An accounts assistant named Gina calls Clive to say that she is unable to void the receipt.
Clive informs Gina that a receivables cash receipt cannot be voided under certain circumstances.
Which of the following would prevent Gina voiding the receivables cash receipt?
A. The cash receipt cannot be voided if it is not on hold.
B. A cash receipt that is not applied or is only partially applied to an invoice cannot be voided.
C. The cash receipt cannot be voided if it is not in the open file.
D. A posted cash receipt cannot be voided.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Clive asks an accounts assistant named Gina to create a refund check in the Dynamics GP system.
What needs to be configured before Gina is able to create the refund check?
A. A temporary vendor must be manually created for the customer.
B. A customer/vendor relationship must be configured.
C. EFT (Electronic Funds Transfer) information in the Customer Card must be configured.
D. All sales documents that are to be refunded must be placed on hold.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Jane works in the Accounts Department at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
A customer is consistently late in paying their invoices. Due to another outstanding invoice, Jane puts the record for the customer on hold.
What effect will this have?
A. New sales transactions cannot be posted for the customer.
B. No transactions of any type can be posted for the customer.
C. Entering a sales transaction for the customer will result in a warning message being displayed.
D. Entering a sales transaction for the customer will result in a new customer record being created.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
Jane works in the Accounts Department at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Jane needs to transfer paid transactions to history and to consolidate balance forward accounts.
Which window in Dynamics GP 2013 would Jane use to perform the required actions?
A. Transfer Sales Commissions
B. Paid Sales Transaction Removal
C. Fiscal Periods Setup
D. Customer Summary
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Gina works with Clive in the Accounts department as an Accounts Assistant.
The company Finance Director has issued an instruction that states that customers must be charged for finance.
Clive asks Jane to ensure that customer statements include the finance charges.
What should Jane do before running the receivables finance charge batch?
A. She should perform the Assess Finance Charges process.
B. She should perform the AR Aging for Customer Accounts process.
C. She should enter the Customer Credit Summary history.
D. She should delete unposted payment schedules.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Clive has configured some customer cards in Dynamics GP 2013. He now creates a National Account.
Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. A customer can be part of multiple national accounts, as a parent or as a child.
B. To become a member of a national account, a customer must be an open item customer.
C. Child customers are deleted when a parent customer is deleted.
D. You can pay the parent customer of a national account when creating a refund check for the child customer.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 7
Gina works in the Accounts Department at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Gina has the Receivables Transaction Entry window open. She wants to apply a transaction but the Apply button is grayed out.
Which of the following would cause the Apply button to be grayed out?
A. Gina is working on a Debit document type.
B. Gina is working on a Credit document type.
C. Gina is working on a Payment document type.
D. Gina is working on a Return document type.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Clive needs to configure salesperson records in Dynamics GP 2013 to track commissions and to keep historical information for each salesperson who has worked for the company.
What does Clive need to configure before salesperson records can be created?
A. He needs to configure at least one Employee card.
B. He needs to configure at least one Vendor card.
C. He needs to configure at least one Customer card.
D. He needs to configure at least one Sales Territory.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Clive needs to depreciate an asset.
In Dynamics GP 2013, Clive selects: Financial >> Routines >> Fixed Assets.
He can select the “Depreciate One Asset” option or the “Depreciate” option.
Which of the following describe the differences between the two options? (Choose all that apply).
A. In the Depreciate One Asset window, Clive can select multiple books.
B. In the Depreciate window, Clive can select can select only one book.
C. In the Depreciate One Asset window, Clive can select an Asset Group ID.
D. In the Depreciate window, Clive can select an Asset Group ID.
E. In the Depreciate One Asset window, Clive can select an Asset ID.
F. In the Depreciate window, Clive can select an Asset ID
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 10
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Clive wants to use mid-quarter averaging for calculating depreciation of assets.
Which two of the following does Clive need to configure? (Choose two).
A. A Fixed Assets Calendar
B. Quarter Records
C. Book Records
D. Class Records
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 11
Jane works in the Accounts Department at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Jane is configuring entries in the Asset Book window.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The Place in Service Date for an asset is used to calculate the Averaging Convention.
B. An asset begins depreciating on the Place in Service Date.
C. The Averaging Convention can change the date an asset is placed in service.
D. The Averaging Convention can change the date an asset is retired.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Clive works as the Accounts Manager at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
An accounts assistant named Gina uses the Select Assets window to build a new asset group.
Clive needs to modify the assets contained in the asset group that Gina created. However Clive is unable to see the asset group in Fixed Asset Management.
Why does Clive not see the asset group in Fixed Asset Management?
A. Clive needs to log out of Dynamics GP and log back in to view the asset group.
B. There are no assets in the asset group.
C. Gina needs to modify the permissions on the asset group to give Clive access.
D. Asset groups are saved on a user-by-user basis.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You work for a company named ABC.com. You are configuring a recently installed Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013 system. Clive works as the Accounts Manager.
Clive informs you that he will need to add many fixed assets to the Dynamics GP 2013 system. Clive wants to be able to assign a default posting account to assets according to their type.
In the Fixed Asset Setup, which optional setup procedure should you configure?
A. Location Records.
B. Lease Company Records.
C. Insurance Classes.
D. Account Groups.
E. Purchasing Posting Accounts.
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 14

You work for a company named ABC.com. You are configuring a recently installed Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013 system. Clive works as the Accounts Manager.
Clive is in the process of adding assets in the Dynamics GP 2013 system.
A company asset contains multiple components. Clive configures asset records for the components with the same Master Asset ID.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. All the asset components can be retired at the same time using the Master Asset ID.
B. A component that is removed from the asset can have its Master Asset ID changed.
C. If a Master Asset ID is used, a Class ID must also be used.
D. Changing the Master Asset ID of an asset component changes the Master Asset ID of the remaining components by default.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Jane works in the Accounts Department at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Jane is configuring entries in the Payables Manual Payment Entry window. There are four payment methods that Jane can select in the Payables Manual Payment Entry window.
Which of the following is not one of the four payment methods that Jane can select?
A. Check
B. Credit Card
C. Prepayment
D. Cash
E. EFT
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Jane works in the Accounts Department at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
Jane is configuring entries in the Payables Transaction Entry window.
Which of the following statements regarding account distributions is true?
A. Amounts are distributed to the accounts set up for the Vendor Account Maintenance record. If accounts aren’t set up on a vendor record basis, the accounts assigned in the Posting Accounts Setup window are used.
B. Amounts are distributed to the accounts set up for the Vendor Account Maintenance record. If accounts aren’t set up on a vendor record basis, the accounts assigned in the General Ledger setup window are used.
C. Amounts are distributed to the accounts set up for the Vendor Class record. If accounts aren’t set up on a vendor record basis, the accounts assigned in the Posting Accounts Setup window are used.
D. Amounts are distributed to the accounts set up for the Vendor Class record. If accounts aren’t set up on a vendor record basis, the accounts assigned in the General Ledger setup window are used.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
Jane works in the Accounts Department at a company named ABC.com. The company uses Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013.
A vendor is consistently late in dispatching their goods. Due to another late delivery, Jane puts the record for the vendor on hold.
What effect will this have?
A. No transactions of any type can be posted for the vendor.
B. Details in the Vendor Maintenance records cannot be edited.
C. Invoices for the vendor cannot be voided.

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