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Question No : 30  Which three configuration sections are required on service provider PE routers to enable IPv4 Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three.)
A. Configure route distinguishers that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes.
B. Configure at least one interface that is assigned to a customer link asa member of the VRF.
C. Configure the VPNv4 address-family under the MP-BGP configurationmode on the PE routers that participate in the customer VRF routing.
D. Configure route targets that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes
E. Advertise customer routes to all PE routers by configuring the IPv4address-family under the MP-BGP configuration mode.
F. Implement MPLS for all customer-facing links.
400-201 exam 
Answer: B,C,D

Question No : 31  When IPv6 is enabled on an interface, which three multicast addresses does the configured interface automatically join? (Choose three.)
A. FF01::2
B. FEC0::1
C. FF02:0:0:0:0:1:FF00::/104
D. FF02::1
E. FF01::1
F. FF02::2
G. FF02::D
H. FF02::5
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 32  An engineer is deploying SSHv2 only in band access. Which three options reflect the minimum configuration to enable the SSHv2 services on Cisco routers? (Choose three)
A. Add router hostname on DNS services.
B. Define a hostname for the device.
C. Define a domain name for the device.
D. Create an access list that defines authorized hosts for SSH.
E. Create crypto keys by using the crypto key generate dsa command.
F. Configure a key modulus in the global configuration.
400-201 dumps 
Answer: B,C,E

Question No : 33  A service provider is running a single area OSPFv2 instance in the MPLS network. The OSPF re-convergence time is becoming excessively slow as the service provider MPLS network grows. Which two action can improve network performance without implementing a multi area design? (Choose two).
A. Configure incremental SFP
B. Reduce type 5 LSAs
C. Implement Partial Route Computation
D. Limit number of TVLs
E. Enable LSA group pacing
Answer: A,E

Question No : 34
For MPLS inter-AS Option B, how many labels are associated with packet forwarding between the VPNv4 ASBR neighbors?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
400-201 pdf 
Answer: D
LSAs and network LSAs.

Question No : 35  Which information is carried in the OSPFv3 intra-area Prefix LSA?
A. All link-local addresses
B. All IPv6 prefix and topology information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
C. List of options associated with the link to all other routers attached to the link
D. All prefix-specific information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA
Answer: D
Explanation:
OSPFv3’s new LSA, the Intra-area Prefix LSA (type 9), handles intra-area network information that was previously included in OSPFv2 type 2 LSAs. It is used in order to advertise one or more IPv6 prefixes. The prefixes are associated with router segment, stub network segment or transit network segment. Intra-area prefix LSAs (type 9) & Inter-Area Prefix-LSA (type 3) carry all IPv6 prefix information, which, in IPv4, is included in router

Question No : 36
A SP engineering team must design a solution that support end-to-end LSP according to RFC 3107, which solution achieve this
A. LDPandBGP
B. BGP and send Label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
400-201 vce 
Answer: B

Question No : 37 An engineer is implementing an MPLS within the core of the Service Provider network.What two components are required to build the control and data plane for MPLS Label  Switched Paths? (Choose two.)
A. FIB
B. CEF
C. LDP
D. LFIB
E. OSPF
Answer: B,C

Question No : 38
  Which two statements about the bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are true? (Choose two)
A. The bgp deterministic-med command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path length
B. The bgp always-compare command is used to influence the BGP route selection process to cause the MED attribute to have higher precedence over the AS path system.
C. Enabling the bgp deterministic-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable when choosing routes advertised by different peers in the same autonomous system.
D. Enabling the bgp always-compare-med command ensures the comparison of the MED variable for paths from neighbors in different autonomous systems.
E. The bgp deterministic-med and bgp always-compare-med commands are enabled by defult.
400-201 exam 
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 39
Given the following data at WORK DEMO:
Which SAS program prints only the first 5 males in this order from the data set?
A.
proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
B.
proc print data=WORK.DEMO(obs=5);
where Sex=’M’;
run;
C.
proc print data=WORK.DEMO(where=(sex=’M’));
where obs<=5;
run;
D.
proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex descending;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 40
Which SAS program will apply the data set label ‘Demographics’ to the data set named DEMO?
A.
data demo (label=’Demographics’);
set demo;
run;
B.
data demo;
set demo
(label=’Demographics’); run;
C.
data demo (label ‘Demographics’);
set demo;
run;
D.
data demo;
set demo;
label demo= ‘Demographics’;
run;
400-201 dumps 
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 41
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sort data=SASUSER.VISIT out=PSORT; by code descending date cost;
run; Which statement is true regarding the submitted program?
A. The descending option applies to the variable CODE.
B. The variable CODE is sorted by ascending order.
C. The PSORT data set is stored in the SASUSER library.
D. The descending option applies to the DATE and COST variables.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 42
What information can be found in the SAS Dictionary tables? (Choose two.)
A. datasets contained within a specified library
B. values contained within a specified format
C. variables contained within a specified dataset
D. values contained within a specified variable
400-201 pdf 
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 43
This question will ask you to provide a line of missing code.
The following SAS program is submitted:

Which statement is required to produce this output?
A. TABLES site*group /nocol;
B. TABLES site*group /norow;
C. TABLES site*group;
D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 44
Which statement correctly adds a label to the data set?
A.
DATA two Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; set one;
run;

B.
DATA two;
Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; set one;
run;
C.
DATA two;
set one;
Label dataset=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”; run;
D.
DATA two(Label=”Subjects having duplicate
observations”); set one;
run;
400-201 vce Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 45
Which program will report all created output objects in the log?
A.
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1 ods=trace;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
B.
ods trace on;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;

run;
C.
ods trace=log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
D.
ods trace log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 46
You want to calculate the p-value of Fisher’s exact test for a 3×3 table. Which option must you add to the TABLES statement of PROC FREQ?
A. CHISQ
B. CMH
C. EXACT
D. EXPECTED
400-201 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 48
Which option for PROC COMPARE will list all observations and variables found in only one of the two data sets being compared?
A. LISTALL
B. OUTALL
C. ALLOBS
D. OUTDIFF
400-201 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 49
Which validation technique involves two programmers writing separate programs to produce the same output, then comparing the result?
A. Independent Programming
B. Peer Matching
C. Identical Programming
D. Peer Review
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 50
A SAS program is submitted and the following log is written. What is the cause of this error message?
A. The ARRAY declaration is syntactically incorrect.
B. The IF statement is syntactically incorrect.
C. The DO loop tries to get a value from a variable which does not exist.
D. The IF statement tries to get ARRAY elements which are not declared.
400-201 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 51
The following SAS program is submitted: If the value for the variable Subjcode is “WGT2”, what is the value of the variable Description?
A. missing character value
B. Unknown
C. Over
D. Wgt2
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52
Given two data sets with the following variables: Why is the blue note showing in the log?
A. The variable VISIT occurs in both data sets but is not included in the BY statement.
B. There are no observations with matching values for SUBJID in either data set.
C. There are multiple observations with the same value for SUBJID in both data sets.
D. One of the two data sets has multiple observations with the same value for SUBJID.
400-201 vce Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 53
The following SAS program is submitted, but fails due to syntax errors. What is the cause of the syntax errors?
A. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthExp*).
B. An array can only be referenced in a KEEP statement and not within a keep= data set option.
C. An array cannot be referenced on a keep= data set option.
D. The keep= data set option should be (keep=MonthExp).
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 54
Given the following data set DEMOG:
Which selection below would be considered hard-coding?
A.
if sexcd eq 1 then sex = “Male” ;
else if sexcd eq 2 then sex = “Female” ;
B.
if site eq 1 then sexcd = 2 ; else
if site eq 2 then sexcd = 1 ;
C.
if site eq 1 and sexcd ne 2 then check = 1 ; else
if site eq 2 and sexcd ne 1 then check = 2 ;
D.
birthdt = input(dob, mmddyy10.) ;
400-201 exam Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 55
Given the file sites.csv: Which option would you need to add to the INFILE statement to clear the notes from this log?
A. firstobs=2
B. missover
C. lrecl=2
D. start=2
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 56
Given the following entry in the SAS log: Which alternate method could you use to?
• Transpose all data
• Not produce a warning message in the log
A. Use PROC TRANSPOSE with a WHERE clause to omit records with missing VISIT values
B. Use PROC COPY with SELECT statements
C. Use PROC DATASETS with SELECT and MODIFY statements
D. Use a DATA step with conditional OUTPUT statements
400-201 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 57
Given the following partial output data set: Which code was used to create AGECAT?
A.
if age <18 then AGECAT=1;
if 18<=AGE<=40 then
AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;
B.
if age <=18 then do AGECAT=1;
else if 18<AGE<=40 then do
AGECAT=2; else do AGECAT=3;
C.
if age <18 then AGECAT=1;
else if 18<=AGE<=40 then
AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;
D.
if age <=18 then AGECAT=1;
else if 18<AGE<=40 then AGECAT=2; else AGECAT=3;

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 58 Given the following data set (AE): Data will be reported by onset week. Day 1 ?7 is Week 1, Day 8 ?14 is Week 2. Events beyond Day 14 are assigned Week 3 and will be reported as Follow-up events. Which statements properly assign WEEK to each event?
A. if day > 14 then week = 3 ;
else if day > 7 then week = 2
; else if day > 0 then week =
1 ;
B.
if day > 0 then week = 1 ;
else if day > 7 then week = 2 ;
else if day > 14 then week = 3 ;
C.
select ;
when (day > 0) week = 1 ;
when (day > 7) week = 2 ;
otherwise week = 3 ;
end ; D.
select ;
when (day > 14) week = 3 ;
when (day > 7) week = 2 ;
otherwise week = 1 ;
end ;
400-201 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 59
Study day is defined as DCMDATE minus RFSTDTC +1 Which statement will compute the study day correctly without producing notes for missing values in the log?
A. STUDYDAY=DCMDATE-RFSTDTC+1;
B. STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,yymmdd8.)-input(RFSTDTC,date9.)+1;
C. If RFSTDTC^=” and length(DCMDATE)=8 then STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,yymmdd8.)- input(RFSTDTC,date9.)+1;
D. If RFSTDTC^=” and length(DCMDATE)=8 then STUDYDAY=input(DCMDATE,date9.)- input(RFSTDTC,yymmdd8.)+1;
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 60
A Treatment-Emergent Adverse Event (TEAE) is commonly defined as any event that occurs on or after the date and time of:
A. informed consent
B. baseline assessment
C. study enrollment
D. first dose of study drug
400-201 vce Answer: D
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400-351 dumps

Question No : 22 What are the three possible BGP failure states? Choose all that apply.
A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle

E. Established
F. Open Sent
G. Open Confirm
400-351 exam Answer: BCD
Question No : 23 What port does BGP communicates on?
A. 161
B. 110
C. 80
D. 179
Answer: D
Question No : 24 What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface? What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 15
D. 0
400-351 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 25 It can be necessary to distribute client certificates to tablets and handhelds in order to connect to:
A. the Internet.
B. cellular networks.
C. encrypted hard drives.
D. Enterprise Wi-Fi or VPN Networks.
Answer: D
Question No : 26 When using the accessibility feature “Magnify Mode “, what action can be taken to quickly remove the magnification?
A. Go to Option -> Accessibility and disable Magnify Mode
B. Pinch with two fingers on the screen to zoom out.
C. Swipe down from the top of the screen with two fingers.
D. Click the center button between the volume keys.
400-351 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 27 What are the categories of files that are available to be synchronized automatically between a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) smartphone and the user’s computer using BlackBerry Link?
A. Music, pictures, Videos
B. Work. Personal
C. Work. Personal, Encrypted
D. Music, pictures, Videos, Documents
Answer: D
Question No : 28 What are the encryption options available when adding an IMAP email account?
A. S/MIME, PGP,TrueCrypt
B. AES,3DES
C. SSL,StartTLS.Off
D. 128-Bit TKIP
400-351 vce Answer: C
Question No : 29  Which of the following BlackBerry Applications enables users to easily migrate to a new BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. BlackBerry Link
B. BlackBerry Desktop software
C. BlackBerry Protect
D. BlackBerry Balance
Answer: A
Question No : 30 What is the share address of the BlackBerry Smartphone internal device storage?
A. //IP Address OfDevice\media
B. //Device Name\storage
C. http://IP Address Of Device:3101
D. smb://lP Address Of Device/shared
400-351 exam Answer: A
Question No : 31 Which of the following is needed to be able to add any new accounts from settings options on a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. NFC radio should be on
B. Battery should be more than 20%
C. Server needs to only have Activesync enabled
D. Wi-Fi should be turned on with access to the host server for which the account is to be added
Answer: D
Question No : 32 All users are no longer able to activate using their Username. Activation Password and SRP. However they are able to use a Fully Qualified Domain Name of the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS). What setting in BlackBerry Administration Service (BAS) would be the most likely cause of this issue?
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher is configured with an Enterprise Proxy
B. Allow activation over BlackBerry infrastructure set to yes
C. Allow activation information to be emailed is set to no
D. Proxy profile is configured to use VPN incorrectly
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Question No : 33 Which password will be required when logging into BlackBerry World for the first time?
A. Perimeter Password
B. BlackBerry ID Password
C. Corporate Password
D. Device Password
Answer: B
Question No : 34 Which of the following is required in order to process an NFC transaction?
A. Both devices should be at least 20cm apart.
B. A valid Wi-Fi connection is necessary.
C. The battery of the BlackBerry 10 device should be 5% or more.
D. Very close proximity or tap of the communicating devices is necessary.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 35 Where on the BlackBerry should an end user be directed to learn the different swipe gestures?
A. About Menu in Device Settings
B. Learn How Menu items in Setup
C. Language and Input in Device Settings
D. The Hub
Answer: B
Question No : 36  What server setting can prevent a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) user from using data services when the smartphone/tablet is using network roaming?
A. Multiple Smartphones/Tablets enabled
B. The Roaming IT policy rule
C. No payment information listed on the server
D. Going over the data usage quota
400-351 vce Answer: B
Question No : 37  Which of the following will allow a BlackBerry end user to set an Activation password or reactivate a BlackBerry device?
A. BlackBerry® Web Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Administration
C. BlackBerry Resource Kit
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A
Question No : 38 Which of the following is NOT a capability of BlackBerry Link?
A. Backup device data
B. Bluetooth Media Sync
C. Software updates
D. NFC Media Sync
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
A customer implements SAP Financials with multiple company codes. They want to manage credit limits for each customer across all company codes collectively. Which master data setup allows this?
A. Create a single credit control area and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
B. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
C. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign a total limit for customers across all company codes.
D. Create a single credit control area and assign a total limit for all customers across all company codes.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
In the evaluation phase, you assess the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution. The leading role here belongs to the virtual account team. This team usually consists of a sales executive, the consulting engagement manager, and the project manager. As well as assessing the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution, what else is the responsibility of the virtual account team in the evaluation phase?
A. To start data migration
B. To check if the customer project resources are trained
C. To submit the preliminary proposal
D. To check if the system is ready to start development
400-351 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
When you activate an SAP Best Practices package in the Solution Builder, BC Sets and eCATTs are run. What is the purpose of using BC Sets and eCATTs in the SAP Best Practices packages?
A. BC Sets and eCATTs are used to import data into each client in the system with a single execution.
B. BC Sets are activated directly to import Customizing contained in the txt files and eCATTs are run to import sample master data.
C. BC Sets and eCATTs are used in the SAP Solution Builder to import transactional data.
D. BC Sets are used to change productive systems and eCATTs are used to change test systems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
What are the SAP-relevant phases for an asset under construction (AuC)? (Choose two)
A. The useful life phase
B. The setup phase
C. The under construction phase
D. The budget phase
E. The planning phase
400-351 pdf Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO:43 A company has been using a Cascade Express-300 Profiler for some time, but has recently started dropping flows as they are overrunning their licensed limit. What is the best course of action if they are considering an upgrade to the next tier of Cascade Profiler? (Select 2)
A. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and stop using their Express.
B. The company can continue to use their Express but must buy a new Cascade Profiler.
C. The Express can be further licensed to capture the currently dropped flows.
D. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler but can use the Express functioning as a remote Cascade Sensor.
E. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and can continue to use their Express but the two Cascade Profilers must be used independent of one another.
F. The company can try to reduce the number of flows being seen by the Express.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
In the traffic reporting tabs on Cascade Profiler, each report-by option has a default template that controls content and formatting of the resulting report. Which of the following is controlled by the default template?
A. Inclusion of a pie chart
B. Inclusion of a flow list
C. Data resolution (1 min, 15 min, 1 hr, etc.)
D. Columns that are included in the summary table
E. Sort order of the summary table
F. All of the above
400-351 vce Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What is one key benefit Cascade provides for Data Center Consolidation Projects?
A. Ability to understand the response time of the Data Center as a whole.
B. Ability to map out the inter-server dependencies between applications in the data center.
C. Ability to map out the intra-server application/process dependencies on a server.
D. Ability to compare WAN Optimization benefits for different versions of Windows Server software
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Under Layer 4 Mappings, the available Application List settings arE. (Select 3)
A. Application Name
B. IP Address
C. Host or Groups
D. Ports
400-351 exam Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
For sampled data in a chart in Cascade Pilot, you can: (Select 2)
A. Change the sampling time to process data after applying a View.
B. See the granularity of a chart after applying a View.
C. Define the sampling time before applying a View, and it will be the only one used to represent data.
D. Increase the data granularity by reducing the size of the selected time window.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what best describes a Dashboard?
A. A set of graphs showing top interfaces, top hosts, top users, and top protocols from which you can run reports.
B. A configurable set of content blocks for watched and top items (items including hosts, network  interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
C. A configurable set of connection graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports
D. A configurable set of fixed logarithmic graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the maximum number of 10G ports that a Cascade Sensor can support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. Unlimited
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
If there are multiple network devices reporting flow data to Cascade and two devices report flow records for the same TCP connection, what will Cascade report?
A. The traffic will be double counted.
B. Cascade will discard one of the flow records.
C. If both flows types are the same (e.g. NetFlow) Cascade will de-duplicate the records but if they are of different flow types, one record will be discarded.
D. Cascade will de-duplicate and consolidate the flow records regardless of source and flow type.
E. This is not possible.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which component of Cascade can be used with a Cascade Express Profiler?
A. Standard or Enterprise Profiler
B. Gateways
C. Sensor
D. Shark
E. Sensor-VE
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
How do you set the time zone of a Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the Basic Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
B. From the Advanced Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
C. With the CLI command “set timezone”.
D. From the Settings menu of Cascade Pilot.
400-351 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
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200-355 Dumps

QUESTION 100
200-355 dumps

200-355 exam Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

QUESTION 101
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

QUESTION NO: 102
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET] Framework 3.5. You need to represent a strongly typed lambda expression as a data structure in the form of an expression tree. Which of the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MethodCallExpression
B. Expression(TDelegate)
C. Expression
D. LambdaExpression
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 103
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You create an assembly. You place the assembly in a specific folder. Which of the following classes can you use to determine whether the assembly was located in a specific folder? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. UrlMembershipCondition
B. ApplicationDirectoryMembershipCondition
C. GacMembershipCondition
D. SiteMembershipCondition
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 104
John works as a Software Developer for CyberTech Inc. He creates an ASP .NET page named BookItemList.aspx, which displays a price list of computer books. Registered users have to first log on to the company’s Web site in order to view the current price list of different computer books available on the Web site. Users want to maintain the page requests as long as they are accessing the Web page. John wants to ensure that whenever the Web page BookItemList.aspx is posted back to the server, the price list should not be changed on the registered user’s computer. He also wants to validate the page sent back to the server. Which of the following actions will John take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to false.
B. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to true.
C. Set the EnableViewState attribute to true.
D. Set the EnableViewState attribute to false.
200-355 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 105
Patrick works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. He implements security using the security classes of the .NET Framework. He defines the following statements in the application: PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm1 = new PrincipalPermission(“Nick”, “General Manager”);
PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm2 = new PrincipalPermission(“Jack”, “Accountant”);
Patrick wants to check whether all demands that succeed for Principal_Perm1 also succeed for Principal_Perm2. Which of the following methods of the PrincipalPermission class will he use to accomplish this?
A. Intersect
B. IsSubSetOf
C. IsUnrestricted
D. Union
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application named App1 using Visual Basic .NET. App1 uses a non-COM DLL named Value1.dll, which contains unmanaged code. Sam writes a method named Method1 in Value1.dll as follows: Method1 Lib “Value1.dll”(ByVal InputVar As String, ByRef WordsVar As String, ByRef NumbersVar As Integer) As Integer Sam wants to use Method1 for parsing a string into an array of string values and an array of integers. Sam wants to enable App1 to call this function. Which of the following statements about the method are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The value of the first parameter cannot be changed by a procedure or a function.
B. The second parameter will contain all string values found in the first parameter.
C. The third parameter will contain all integer values found in the second parameter.
D. The third parameter will contain all string values found in the second parameter.
200-355 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 107
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You need to write a code segment that transfers the contents of a byte array named ToSend by using a NetworkStream object named NetStr. You want to use a cache of size only 8,192 bytes. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); NetStr.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) MStream.Length);
B. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, 8192);
C. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr, 8192); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, ToSend.Length);
D. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); MStream.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) NetStr.Length);
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 108
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95’. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
200-355 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 110
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 111
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert(); A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
200-355 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 113
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application uses serialization to allow users to take an instance of an object and convert it into a format that can be easily transmittable over the network or even stored in a database. You want to provide the base functionality for the common language runtime serialization formatters. Which of
the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. SoapFormatter
B. FormatterConverter
C. Formatter
D. BinaryFormatter
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 114
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates an ASP.NET page, named Page1, for a college Web site. Page1 is used to enroll new applicants to a certification course offered by the college. In order to get admission to the course, an applicant’s age must between eighteen and twenty-five. The page contains several TextBox controls that are used by
applicants to feed their personal details. The data entered by each applicant is then used to check the eligibility of the applicant. One of the TextBox controls on the page is named txtDateofBirth. Sam wants to verify that the applicants meet the age requirement. He wants to perform validation both on the server-side and on the client-side. In order to validate the age, he adds a CustomValidator control, named CValidator, to the page and sets its ControlToValidate property to txtDateofBirth. Which of the following will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ClientValidationFunction event
B. ServerValidate property
C. ServerValidate event
D. ClientValidationFunction property
200-355 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 115
You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework. The application is installed in a Network Load Balancing cluster. You are evaluating a bug statement. When a failure takes place in the Web application, the client occasionally gets an error page as anticipated. At other times, the client gets an exception stack with the error message, which is not anticipated. You are required to find out the configuration setting that causes the unanticipated error. Which of the following configuration settings causes the unanticipated error?
A. <customErrors mode=”Off” />
B. <compilation debug=”false” />
C. <compilation debug=”true” />
D. <customErrors mode=”On” />
Answer: A
 

 

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Question No : 1 Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
648-244 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Question No : 2 Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Question No : 3 What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
648-244 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 4  Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 5 What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
648-244 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 6  How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 7 Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
648-244 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 8 Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 9 Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server?(Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
648-244 exam Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 10 Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Question No : 11 How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
648-244 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 12 When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 13 Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
648-244 pdf Answer: C,E
Question No : 14 What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 15 What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based
servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
648-244 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 16 Which two statements would lead you to use a mixed Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with physical and virtual machines instead of a fully virtualized deployment? (Choose two.)
A. when migrating from a physical to a virtual deployment
B. when inter virtual machine traffic should be switched with Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. when using MOH audio live-stream devices
D. when you want to use direct-attached Fibre Channel SAN devices
E. when you need remote access to the BIOS setup
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Question No : 17 Why should you use the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in addition to your design solution that you did manually?
A. this is not necessary if the DocWiki guidelines for virtualized Cisco Unified Communications are followed
B. to distribute and place the virtual machines automatically in the optimized way
C. to calculate CPU and memory utilization
D. to select the optimized OVA template for the deployment
648-244 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 18  When designing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how many MOH Unicast streams are supported per server when streaming is colocated?
A. 48
B. 128
C. 250
D. 256
E. 500
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 19 When designing a virtualized Cisco Unity Connection deployment, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. configure CPU affinity for Cisco Unity Connection
B. reserve an unused core per Cisco Unity Connection virtual machine
C. reserve an unused core per host server
D. iLBC codec selection reduces the number of ports by 75 percent
E. a Cisco Unity Connection cluster supports up to 40,000 users
648-244 dumps Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Question No : 20 How many coresident applications can be hosted on a Cisco UCS C200 M2 server when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 28
The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A parent exception can provide the default values for a child exception.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What is returned to the HTTP request” GET / HTTP/ 1.1 “?
A. The listing of the webroot directory of the Web server
B. The file index.html
C. A file that is configured as a default/welcome file for that Web server
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
What is true immediately after the initial setup of ProxySG?
A. None of the content filtering databases is set up
B. Only the default Blue Coat WebFilter database is set up and available
C. Blue Coat WebFilter database and 3rd party databases are set up and available
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following policies can be applied to Instant Messaging traffic? (Choose all that apply) (a) A
policy to deny the transfer of specific file types or file sizes (b) A policy to deny a specific IM request
method
(c) A policy to deny a key word or words using a regular expression (d) A policy to deny a specific IM
buddy or IM chat room
A. a, b & c only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. All of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which best describes the role of a proxy server?
A. A device that inspects Layer 2 – Layer 4 traffic running through it and denies or permits based on a set
of policies.
B. An intermediary program, which acts as both a server and a client for the purpose of making requests

on behalf of other clients.
C. An intermediary program that protects the resources of a private network from users on other networks.
D. A device that extracts the destination address of a packet, selects ten best path for the packet and
forwards the packet the next device in the path.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
After the initial boot-up. Blue Coat SGOS will automatically boot into a trial license. What is the duration of
that period?
A. 30 days – trial can be prolonged by CLI command reset-trial
B. 60 days-trial can be prolonged by CU command reset-trial
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
200-155 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What happens to ProxySG logging, when uploading them to a remote FTP server becomes impossible?
A. When there is no more space for logging, ProxySG switches on dynamic bypass forTCP connections — stops intercepting traffic
B. When there is no more space for logging, ProxySG will process policy, but will ignore any logging relatedpolicies or configuration settings
C. ProxySG erases old logs but continues writing the more recent ones
D. Either logging stops or older log files are erased — depending on the ProxySG configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which protocol and port is used by Blue Coat Reporter service to display results?
A. HTTP port 8987
B. HTTP port 8443
C. FTP port 8021
D. SNMP port 161
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
What is the default time to cache authentication credentials in ProxySG for an authentication realm?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 90 minutes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
What is in NTLM Type 2 Message?
A. Domain + Workstation Name
B. Challenge for the Client
C. Usemame and Password
D. Client Response for the challenge

200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following console services are enabled by default? (Choose all that apply)
(a) HTTP port 8081
(b) HTTPS port 8082
(c) HTTPS port 8083
(d) SSH port 22
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. c & d only
D. a & b only
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier icap_error?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
To implement ProxySG as a default gateway, which of the following options has to be enabled?
A. Early intercept
B. Reflect Client IP
C. IP Forwarding
D. Detect Protocol
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
When the DRTR successfully categorizes a site, the site is_________ (Choose all that apply)
(a) Added to the static BCWF database on the ProxySG
(b) Added to the local database on the ProxySG
(c) Added to the DRTR database on the ProxySG
(d) Added to a DRTR cache that resides on the ProxySG
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. d only
D. None of the above
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is a free software based Blue Coat product for home users?
A. Web Filter
B. k9

C. SiteAdvisot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
When virus scanning functionality is enabled, ProxySG acts as an ICAP server, and ProxyAV as an ICAP
client.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 12
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
210-260 exam Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 13
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied
to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to
the destination
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how
will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Your Hadoop cluster has 25 nodes with a total of 100 TB (4 TB per node) of raw disk space
allocated HDFS storage. Assuming Hadoop’s default configuration, how much data will you be
able to store?
A. Approximately 100TB
B. Approximately 25TB
C. Approximately 10TB
D. Approximately 33 TB
210-260 pdf Answer: D
In default configuration there are total 3 copies of a datablock on HDFS, 2 copies
are stored on datanodes on same rack and 3rd copy on a different rack.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How the
HDFS Blocks are replicated?
QUESTION NO: 17
You set up the Hadoop cluster using NameNode Federation. One NameNode manages the/users
namespace and one NameNode manages the/data namespace. What happens when client tries
to write a file to/reports/myreport.txt?
A. The file successfully writes to /users/reports/myreports/myreport.txt.
B. The client throws an exception.
C. The file successfully writes to /report/myreport.txt. The metadata for the file is managed by the
first NameNode to which the client connects.
D. The file writes fails silently; no file is written, no error is reported.
Answer: C
Note:
* The current HDFS architecture allows only a single namespace for the entire cluster. A single
Namenode manages this namespace. HDFS Federation addresses limitation of current
architecture by adding support multiple Namenodes/namespaces to HDFS file system.
* HDFS Federation enables multiple NameNodes in a cluster for horizontal scalability of
NameNode. All these NameNodes work independently and don’t require any co-ordination. A
DataNode can register with multiple NameNodes in the cluster and can store the data blocks for
multiple NameNodes.

QUESTION NO: 18
Identify two features/issues that MapReduce v2 (MRv2/YARN) is designed to address:
A. Resource pressure on the JobTrackr
B. HDFS latency.
C. Ability to run frameworks other than MapReduce, such as MPI.
D. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs.
E. Single point of failure in the NameNode.
F. Standardize on a single MapReduce API.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
A:MapReduce has undergone a complete overhaul in hadoop-0.23 and we now
have, what we call, MapReduce 2.0 (MRv2) or YARN.
The fundamental idea of MRv2 is to split up the two major functionalities of the JobTracker,
resource management and job scheduling/monitoring, into separate daemons. The idea is to have
a global ResourceManager (RM) and per-application ApplicationMaster (AM). An application is
either a single job in the classical sense of Map-Reduce jobs or a DAG of jobs.
The ResourceManager and per-node slave, the NodeManager (NM), form the data-computation
framework. The ResourceManager is the ultimate authority that arbitrates resources among all the
applications in the system.
The per-application ApplicationMaster is, in effect, a framework specific library and is tasked with
negotiating resources from the ResourceManager and working with the NodeManager(s) to

execute and monitor the tasks.
C: YARN, as an aspect of Hadoop, has two major kinds of benefits:
The ability to use programmingframeworks other than MapReduce
Scalability, no matter what programming framework you use.
QUESTION NO: 19
The most important consideration for slave nodes in a Hadoop cluster running production jobs that
require short turnaround times is:
A. The ratio between the amount of memory and the number of disk drives.
B. The ratio between the amount of memory and the total storage capacity.
C. The ratio between the number of processor cores and the amount of memory.
D. The ratio between the number of processor cores and total storage capacity.
E. The ratio between the number of processor cores and number of disk drives.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
The failure of which daemon makes HDFS unavailable on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)?
A. Node Manager
B. Application Manager
C. Resource Manager
D. Secondary NameNode
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
Answer: E
The NameNode is the centerpiece of an HDFS file system. It keeps the directory
tree of all files in the file system, and tracks where across the cluster the file data is kept. It does
not store the data of these files itself. There is only One NameNode process run on any hadoop
cluster. NameNode runs on its own JVM process. In a typical production cluster its run on a
separate machine. The NameNode is a Single Point of Failure for the HDFS Cluster. When the

NameNode goes down, the file system goes offline.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is a
NameNode? How many instances of NameNode run on a Hadoop Cluster?

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 2
Scenario:
You have been brought in to troubleshoot 300-135 exam an EIGRP network. You have resolved the initial issue between routers R2 and R4, but another issue remains. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue. The customer has disabled access to the show running-config command

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The network segment between R2 and R4 has become disconnected from the remainder of the network. How should this issue be resolved?
A. Change the autonomous system number in the remainder of the network to be consistent with R2 and R4.
B. Move the 192.168.24.0 network to the EIGRP 1 routing process in R2 and R4.
C. Enable the R2 and R4 router interfaces connected to the 192.168.24.0 network.
D. Remove the distribute-list command from the EIGRP 200 routing process in R2.
E. Remove the distribute-list command from the EIGRP 100 routing process in R2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When issuing the “show ip eigrp neighbor” command (which is about the only command that it lets you do in this question) you will see that all other routers are
configured for EIGRP AS 1. However, the 192.16824.0 network between R2 and R4 is incorrectly configured for EIGRP AS 100:

300-135 dumps
QUESTION 3
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
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You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the 300-135 dumps issue.
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When looking at the HSRP configuration of R1, we see that tracking has been enabled, but that it is not tracking the link to R5, only the link to R2:

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QUESTION 4.Which attribute applies to the Days to (from) threshold column in the Situations to watch chart?
A. A number in parentheses indicates the number of days until the threshold is reached.
B. A number indicates the number of days the predicted values has exceeded the threshold.
C. Increasing means that the predicted value is more than 365 days from reaching the threshold.
D. Chronic means that the predicted value has exceeded the threshold for 3 times the baseline period.
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 5.What is the purpose of the Health Index Leaders chart?
A. Shows the elements with better than average performance
B. Shows a table listing the ten best performing health indices
C. Shows the optimum thresholds against which all report data is measured
D. Shows a table listing the elements with the highest Health Index numbers
Answer: D
QUESTION 6.Which basic properties make a Trend report a useful troubleshooting tool? (Choose three)
A. Reveals patterns over time
B. Reveals relationships between variables
C. Reveals relationships between elements
D. Reveals elements that exceed or fall below thresholds
300-135  vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 7.By clicking an element name from a web-based Top N report, you can drill down to which type of report?
A. Top
B. Trend
C. What-if
D. At-a-Glance
Answer: D
QUESTION 8. You try to run a deployment from the TeamSite server to a target Web server and OpenDeploy is
unable to connect. Nothing appears in the target Web server’s OpenDeploy log; however, you are able to
deploy to a server on the same subnet as the TeamSite server. What is the cause of the problem
described above?
A. A valid encryption key file has not been specified.
B. The OpenDeploy port is blocked at the firewall.
C. The target Web server is running a different operating system than the TeamSite server.
D. TeamSite is not installed on the target Web server.
E. The target Web server is running a different version of OpenDeploy than the TeamSite server.
300-135  exam Answer: B
QUESTION 9. In a Windows 2000 environment, how do you limit the number of domains available to your TeamSite
server?
A. Put the TeamSite server in a different domain.
B. Ensure the limit_domains tag is in the iw.local.cfg file.
C. Make the TeamSite server the Primary Domain Controller.
D. Use the domain_list tag in iw.cfg.
E. Make the TeamSite server a stand alone server.
Answer: D
QUESTION 10. How does a TeamSite user change her TeamSite password?
A. The TeamSite user can use the Change Password menu item in ContentCenter to change her
TeamSite password.
B. The TeamSite user can use the Preferences option on the VisualPreview tool bar to change her
TeamSite password.
C. The TeamSite user can use the command-line tool (CLT) iwpasswd to change her TeamSite
password.
D. The TeamSite user can change the operating systempassword, which changes her TeamSite
password.
E. A TeamSite administrator must change the password for a TeamSite user.
300-135  dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 11. During a Windows TeamSite installation, which user is automatically added to the master.uid file?
A. The TeamSite Administrator
B. SYSTEM
C. The local user logged on to TeamSite
D. The Domain Administrator
E. TSIMP_TEAMSITE
Answer: B
QUESTION 12. Where can you find TeamSite release notes?
A. Interwoven’s documentation page (http://www.interwoven.com/documentation/)
B. In a file on the TeamSite CD-ROM
C. Inside the installation package (tarball or InstallShield package)
D. Interwoven does not produce product release notes.
E. Interwoven’s support site (http://support.interwoven.com/)
300-135  pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 13. A customer wants to make sure it can do an emergency roll back of its production Web site if it is
attacked by hackers. The customer wants to use OpenDeploy to re-deploy directly from TeamSite to
perform the emergency rollback. It does not want to have to re-create or re-build any assets as part of this
type of emergency rollback. The emergency rollback deployment must deploy exactly the same assets
that were on the Web server before the attack. To insure the above requirement is satisfied, which one of
the following types of assets must be versioned in TeamSite?
A. Compressed asset
B. Deployed asset
C. content store asset
D. Image asset
E. Derived asset
300-135  exam Answer: B
QUESTION 14. You just installed TeamSite on a Windows 2000 server. When rebooting, the tspostreboot.pl script
executes and you receive a message that states that TeamSite was successfully installed; however, you
are unable to get the initial login screen at http://localhost/iw. What is the cause of the problem described
above?
A. You are not authorized to use TeamSite.
B. The iwwebd port was not set correctly during installation.
C. The TeamSite users did not install certificates in their browsers.
D. You did not call Interwoven and get a client license key before proceeding.
E. You do not have a secure channel between the TeamSite server and your workstation.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 476

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QUESTION 14
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network
engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause
the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose
three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30

C. 70
D. 20
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE
to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the
next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being
sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
300-101 vce Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
300-101 exam Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
300-101 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
300-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 208

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QUESTION 1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
640-911 exam Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding
based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
640-911 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
640-911 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer?
(Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the
information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet
frame?
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 14
Which network device is used to identify and protect against unauthorized traffic and control access to
legitimate business-critical data?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Stateless firewall
C. Router
D. Gateway
E. Switch
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
640-911 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q
trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
HOTSPOT

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QUESTION 1
Which results happens when a non-trunking port that is configured with BPDU guard is connected to a device that is transmitting?
A. The port is moved into the spanning-tree blocking state.
B. There port is error-disabled.
C. A routing loop can occur on the network.
D. The port transitions to the connected state.
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN. 210-260 pdf
Which configuration must be configured before the VLAN is configured?
A. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
B. Configure VTP Transparent mode.
C. Enable VTP version 3.
D. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANS.
Answer: B
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which two limitations of LOCAL SPAN are true? 210-260 dumps (Choose Two)
A. The source and destination ports must reside in the same switch or switch stack
B. It can monitor only traffic that ingresses or egresses on the source interface or VLAN.
C. A SPAN session can support multiple destination ports only if they are on the same VLAN.
D. EACH SPAN session supports only one source VLAN or interface.
E. A switch can support only one local SPAN session at a time.
Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which Statement about the default SWITCH Database Management Template is true?
A. Template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses
B. Template maximizes system resources for access control lists.
C. Template maximizes system resources for unicast routing.
D. Template gives balance to all functions
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two prerequisites for HSRP to become active on an interface are true? 210-260 pdf (Choose 2)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled globally.
B. The VIP must be in the same subnet as the primary IP address.
C. A Virtual-MAC address must be configured on the interface.
D. An IP address must be configured on the interface.
E. PIM routing must be disabled on the interface.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol? 210-260 dumps
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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