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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 28
The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A parent exception can provide the default values for a child exception.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What is returned to the HTTP request” GET / HTTP/ 1.1 “?
A. The listing of the webroot directory of the Web server
B. The file index.html
C. A file that is configured as a default/welcome file for that Web server
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
What is true immediately after the initial setup of ProxySG?
A. None of the content filtering databases is set up
B. Only the default Blue Coat WebFilter database is set up and available
C. Blue Coat WebFilter database and 3rd party databases are set up and available
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following policies can be applied to Instant Messaging traffic? (Choose all that apply) (a) A
policy to deny the transfer of specific file types or file sizes (b) A policy to deny a specific IM request
method
(c) A policy to deny a key word or words using a regular expression (d) A policy to deny a specific IM
buddy or IM chat room
A. a, b & c only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. All of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which best describes the role of a proxy server?
A. A device that inspects Layer 2 – Layer 4 traffic running through it and denies or permits based on a set
of policies.
B. An intermediary program, which acts as both a server and a client for the purpose of making requests

on behalf of other clients.
C. An intermediary program that protects the resources of a private network from users on other networks.
D. A device that extracts the destination address of a packet, selects ten best path for the packet and
forwards the packet the next device in the path.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
After the initial boot-up. Blue Coat SGOS will automatically boot into a trial license. What is the duration of
that period?
A. 30 days – trial can be prolonged by CLI command reset-trial
B. 60 days-trial can be prolonged by CU command reset-trial
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
200-155 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What happens to ProxySG logging, when uploading them to a remote FTP server becomes impossible?
A. When there is no more space for logging, ProxySG switches on dynamic bypass forTCP connections — stops intercepting traffic
B. When there is no more space for logging, ProxySG will process policy, but will ignore any logging relatedpolicies or configuration settings
C. ProxySG erases old logs but continues writing the more recent ones
D. Either logging stops or older log files are erased — depending on the ProxySG configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which protocol and port is used by Blue Coat Reporter service to display results?
A. HTTP port 8987
B. HTTP port 8443
C. FTP port 8021
D. SNMP port 161
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
What is the default time to cache authentication credentials in ProxySG for an authentication realm?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 90 minutes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
What is in NTLM Type 2 Message?
A. Domain + Workstation Name
B. Challenge for the Client
C. Usemame and Password
D. Client Response for the challenge

200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following console services are enabled by default? (Choose all that apply)
(a) HTTP port 8081
(b) HTTPS port 8082
(c) HTTPS port 8083
(d) SSH port 22
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. c & d only
D. a & b only
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier icap_error?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
To implement ProxySG as a default gateway, which of the following options has to be enabled?
A. Early intercept
B. Reflect Client IP
C. IP Forwarding
D. Detect Protocol
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
When the DRTR successfully categorizes a site, the site is_________ (Choose all that apply)
(a) Added to the static BCWF database on the ProxySG
(b) Added to the local database on the ProxySG
(c) Added to the DRTR database on the ProxySG
(d) Added to a DRTR cache that resides on the ProxySG
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. d only
D. None of the above
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is a free software based Blue Coat product for home users?
A. Web Filter
B. k9

C. SiteAdvisot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
When virus scanning functionality is enabled, ProxySG acts as an ICAP server, and ProxyAV as an ICAP
client.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 12
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
210-260 exam Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 13
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied
to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to
the destination
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how
will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Your Hadoop cluster has 25 nodes with a total of 100 TB (4 TB per node) of raw disk space
allocated HDFS storage. Assuming Hadoop’s default configuration, how much data will you be
able to store?
A. Approximately 100TB
B. Approximately 25TB
C. Approximately 10TB
D. Approximately 33 TB
210-260 pdf Answer: D
In default configuration there are total 3 copies of a datablock on HDFS, 2 copies
are stored on datanodes on same rack and 3rd copy on a different rack.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How the
HDFS Blocks are replicated?
QUESTION NO: 17
You set up the Hadoop cluster using NameNode Federation. One NameNode manages the/users
namespace and one NameNode manages the/data namespace. What happens when client tries
to write a file to/reports/myreport.txt?
A. The file successfully writes to /users/reports/myreports/myreport.txt.
B. The client throws an exception.
C. The file successfully writes to /report/myreport.txt. The metadata for the file is managed by the
first NameNode to which the client connects.
D. The file writes fails silently; no file is written, no error is reported.
Answer: C
Note:
* The current HDFS architecture allows only a single namespace for the entire cluster. A single
Namenode manages this namespace. HDFS Federation addresses limitation of current
architecture by adding support multiple Namenodes/namespaces to HDFS file system.
* HDFS Federation enables multiple NameNodes in a cluster for horizontal scalability of
NameNode. All these NameNodes work independently and don’t require any co-ordination. A
DataNode can register with multiple NameNodes in the cluster and can store the data blocks for
multiple NameNodes.

QUESTION NO: 18
Identify two features/issues that MapReduce v2 (MRv2/YARN) is designed to address:
A. Resource pressure on the JobTrackr
B. HDFS latency.
C. Ability to run frameworks other than MapReduce, such as MPI.
D. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs.
E. Single point of failure in the NameNode.
F. Standardize on a single MapReduce API.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
A:MapReduce has undergone a complete overhaul in hadoop-0.23 and we now
have, what we call, MapReduce 2.0 (MRv2) or YARN.
The fundamental idea of MRv2 is to split up the two major functionalities of the JobTracker,
resource management and job scheduling/monitoring, into separate daemons. The idea is to have
a global ResourceManager (RM) and per-application ApplicationMaster (AM). An application is
either a single job in the classical sense of Map-Reduce jobs or a DAG of jobs.
The ResourceManager and per-node slave, the NodeManager (NM), form the data-computation
framework. The ResourceManager is the ultimate authority that arbitrates resources among all the
applications in the system.
The per-application ApplicationMaster is, in effect, a framework specific library and is tasked with
negotiating resources from the ResourceManager and working with the NodeManager(s) to

execute and monitor the tasks.
C: YARN, as an aspect of Hadoop, has two major kinds of benefits:
The ability to use programmingframeworks other than MapReduce
Scalability, no matter what programming framework you use.
QUESTION NO: 19
The most important consideration for slave nodes in a Hadoop cluster running production jobs that
require short turnaround times is:
A. The ratio between the amount of memory and the number of disk drives.
B. The ratio between the amount of memory and the total storage capacity.
C. The ratio between the number of processor cores and the amount of memory.
D. The ratio between the number of processor cores and total storage capacity.
E. The ratio between the number of processor cores and number of disk drives.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
The failure of which daemon makes HDFS unavailable on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)?
A. Node Manager
B. Application Manager
C. Resource Manager
D. Secondary NameNode
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
Answer: E
The NameNode is the centerpiece of an HDFS file system. It keeps the directory
tree of all files in the file system, and tracks where across the cluster the file data is kept. It does
not store the data of these files itself. There is only One NameNode process run on any hadoop
cluster. NameNode runs on its own JVM process. In a typical production cluster its run on a
separate machine. The NameNode is a Single Point of Failure for the HDFS Cluster. When the

NameNode goes down, the file system goes offline.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is a
NameNode? How many instances of NameNode run on a Hadoop Cluster?

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 2
Scenario:
You have been brought in to troubleshoot 300-135 exam an EIGRP network. You have resolved the initial issue between routers R2 and R4, but another issue remains. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue. The customer has disabled access to the show running-config command

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300-135 dumps

The network segment between R2 and R4 has become disconnected from the remainder of the network. How should this issue be resolved?
A. Change the autonomous system number in the remainder of the network to be consistent with R2 and R4.
B. Move the 192.168.24.0 network to the EIGRP 1 routing process in R2 and R4.
C. Enable the R2 and R4 router interfaces connected to the 192.168.24.0 network.
D. Remove the distribute-list command from the EIGRP 200 routing process in R2.
E. Remove the distribute-list command from the EIGRP 100 routing process in R2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When issuing the “show ip eigrp neighbor” command (which is about the only command that it lets you do in this question) you will see that all other routers are
configured for EIGRP AS 1. However, the 192.16824.0 network between R2 and R4 is incorrectly configured for EIGRP AS 100:

300-135 dumps
QUESTION 3
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
300-135 dumps

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You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the 300-135 dumps issue.
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When looking at the HSRP configuration of R1, we see that tracking has been enabled, but that it is not tracking the link to R5, only the link to R2:

300-135 dumps

R1 should be tracking the Eth 0/1 link, not 0/0 to achieve the desired affect/

QUESTION 4.Which attribute applies to the Days to (from) threshold column in the Situations to watch chart?
A. A number in parentheses indicates the number of days until the threshold is reached.
B. A number indicates the number of days the predicted values has exceeded the threshold.
C. Increasing means that the predicted value is more than 365 days from reaching the threshold.
D. Chronic means that the predicted value has exceeded the threshold for 3 times the baseline period.
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 5.What is the purpose of the Health Index Leaders chart?
A. Shows the elements with better than average performance
B. Shows a table listing the ten best performing health indices
C. Shows the optimum thresholds against which all report data is measured
D. Shows a table listing the elements with the highest Health Index numbers
Answer: D
QUESTION 6.Which basic properties make a Trend report a useful troubleshooting tool? (Choose three)
A. Reveals patterns over time
B. Reveals relationships between variables
C. Reveals relationships between elements
D. Reveals elements that exceed or fall below thresholds
300-135  vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 7.By clicking an element name from a web-based Top N report, you can drill down to which type of report?
A. Top
B. Trend
C. What-if
D. At-a-Glance
Answer: D
QUESTION 8. You try to run a deployment from the TeamSite server to a target Web server and OpenDeploy is
unable to connect. Nothing appears in the target Web server’s OpenDeploy log; however, you are able to
deploy to a server on the same subnet as the TeamSite server. What is the cause of the problem
described above?
A. A valid encryption key file has not been specified.
B. The OpenDeploy port is blocked at the firewall.
C. The target Web server is running a different operating system than the TeamSite server.
D. TeamSite is not installed on the target Web server.
E. The target Web server is running a different version of OpenDeploy than the TeamSite server.
300-135  exam Answer: B
QUESTION 9. In a Windows 2000 environment, how do you limit the number of domains available to your TeamSite
server?
A. Put the TeamSite server in a different domain.
B. Ensure the limit_domains tag is in the iw.local.cfg file.
C. Make the TeamSite server the Primary Domain Controller.
D. Use the domain_list tag in iw.cfg.
E. Make the TeamSite server a stand alone server.
Answer: D
QUESTION 10. How does a TeamSite user change her TeamSite password?
A. The TeamSite user can use the Change Password menu item in ContentCenter to change her
TeamSite password.
B. The TeamSite user can use the Preferences option on the VisualPreview tool bar to change her
TeamSite password.
C. The TeamSite user can use the command-line tool (CLT) iwpasswd to change her TeamSite
password.
D. The TeamSite user can change the operating systempassword, which changes her TeamSite
password.
E. A TeamSite administrator must change the password for a TeamSite user.
300-135  dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 11. During a Windows TeamSite installation, which user is automatically added to the master.uid file?
A. The TeamSite Administrator
B. SYSTEM
C. The local user logged on to TeamSite
D. The Domain Administrator
E. TSIMP_TEAMSITE
Answer: B
QUESTION 12. Where can you find TeamSite release notes?
A. Interwoven’s documentation page (http://www.interwoven.com/documentation/)
B. In a file on the TeamSite CD-ROM
C. Inside the installation package (tarball or InstallShield package)
D. Interwoven does not produce product release notes.
E. Interwoven’s support site (http://support.interwoven.com/)
300-135  pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 13. A customer wants to make sure it can do an emergency roll back of its production Web site if it is
attacked by hackers. The customer wants to use OpenDeploy to re-deploy directly from TeamSite to
perform the emergency rollback. It does not want to have to re-create or re-build any assets as part of this
type of emergency rollback. The emergency rollback deployment must deploy exactly the same assets
that were on the Web server before the attack. To insure the above requirement is satisfied, which one of
the following types of assets must be versioned in TeamSite?
A. Compressed asset
B. Deployed asset
C. content store asset
D. Image asset
E. Derived asset
300-135  exam Answer: B
QUESTION 14. You just installed TeamSite on a Windows 2000 server. When rebooting, the tspostreboot.pl script
executes and you receive a message that states that TeamSite was successfully installed; however, you
are unable to get the initial login screen at http://localhost/iw. What is the cause of the problem described
above?
A. You are not authorized to use TeamSite.
B. The iwwebd port was not set correctly during installation.
C. The TeamSite users did not install certificates in their browsers.
D. You did not call Interwoven and get a client license key before proceeding.
E. You do not have a secure channel between the TeamSite server and your workstation.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 476

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QUESTION 14
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network
engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause
the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose
three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30

C. 70
D. 20
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE
to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the
next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being
sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
300-101 vce Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
300-101 exam Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
300-101 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
300-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 640-911
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 208

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QUESTION 1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
640-911 exam Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding
based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
640-911 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
640-911 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer?
(Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the
information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet
frame?
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 14
Which network device is used to identify and protect against unauthorized traffic and control access to
legitimate business-critical data?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Stateless firewall
C. Router
D. Gateway
E. Switch
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
640-911 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q
trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
HOTSPOT

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QUESTION 1
Which results happens when a non-trunking port that is configured with BPDU guard is connected to a device that is transmitting?
A. The port is moved into the spanning-tree blocking state.
B. There port is error-disabled.
C. A routing loop can occur on the network.
D. The port transitions to the connected state.
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN. 210-260 pdf
Which configuration must be configured before the VLAN is configured?
A. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
B. Configure VTP Transparent mode.
C. Enable VTP version 3.
D. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANS.
Answer: B
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which two limitations of LOCAL SPAN are true? 210-260 dumps (Choose Two)
A. The source and destination ports must reside in the same switch or switch stack
B. It can monitor only traffic that ingresses or egresses on the source interface or VLAN.
C. A SPAN session can support multiple destination ports only if they are on the same VLAN.
D. EACH SPAN session supports only one source VLAN or interface.
E. A switch can support only one local SPAN session at a time.
Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which Statement about the default SWITCH Database Management Template is true?
A. Template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses
B. Template maximizes system resources for access control lists.
C. Template maximizes system resources for unicast routing.
D. Template gives balance to all functions
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two prerequisites for HSRP to become active on an interface are true? 210-260 pdf (Choose 2)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled globally.
B. The VIP must be in the same subnet as the primary IP address.
C. A Virtual-MAC address must be configured on the interface.
D. An IP address must be configured on the interface.
E. PIM routing must be disabled on the interface.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol? 210-260 dumps
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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[High Quality Cisco Questions] 2017 Latest Cisco 600-510 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube

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QUESTION 1
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment, operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scoresE. QoS
Correct Answer: AD
600-510
QUESTION 3               600-510
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric?
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.) 600-510
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices
Correct Answer: ACD

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2017 Real Cisco 210-260 Vce is What You Need To Know about 210-260 Vce Video Study

The Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) exam 210-260 vce is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions. This 210-260 vce tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 186 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 17, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html

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210-260 vce 

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QUESTION 11
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

 


QUESTION 12
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has
been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 13
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 14
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 15
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
Correct Answer: A  210-260 vce

 


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 vce

What is the effect of the given command?
A. It merges authentication and encryption methods to protect traffic that matches an ACL.
B. It configures the network to use a different transform set between peers.
C. It configures encryption for MD5 HMAC.
D. It configures authentication as AES 256.
Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 17
Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types? (Choose two.)
A. stop
B. none
C. error
D. all
Correct Answer: CD

 


QUESTION 18
Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentication attempt record to a AAA server?
(Choose two.)
A. start-stop
B. stop-record
C. stop-only
D. stop
Correct Answer: AC

 

 

QUESTION 19
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public
address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority

Correct Answer: A

210-260 vce

This exam validates skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices. This 210-260 vce also shows competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) course.

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QUESTION: 1
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?
A. overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
B. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
C. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
D. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which three areas is the engineer most likely expect to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose three.)
A. emergency room
B. magnetic resonance imaging
C. laboratory
D. X-ray radiography
E. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
F. kitchen
Answer: A, C, F
300-360
QUESTION: 3                                            300-360 dumps
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Answer: A, E

QUESTION: 4
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space.
How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
Answer: D

Explanation:
The rule of thumb coverage plan is 1 AP per 5,000 square feet for data and 1 per 3,000 square feet for voice and location services.

QUESTION: 5
A customer has dual-band devices that they want to use 40 MHz channels. If the customer is using Cisco 3600 Series access points with a 5508 controller. Which setting assists with this change?
A. Enable band select globally.
B. Enable aggressive load balancing.
C. Disable lower data rates on 802 .11G GHz radios.
D. Disable overlapping 802.11G channels.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
An engineer is deploying centralized wireless solution with a 5508 controller. What is the most AP licenses that can be supported?
A. 100
B. 250
C. 1000
D. 500
Answer: D

Explanation:
You can order Cisco 300-360 dumps 5500 Series Controllers with support for 12, 25, 50, 100, 250 or 500 APs as the controller’s base capacity. You can add additional AP capacity through capacity adder licenses available at 25, 50, 100 and 250 AP capacities. You can add the capacity adder licenses to any base license in any combination to arrive at the maximum capacity of 500 APs.

QUESTION: 7
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building. Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Answer: C, D

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA? Cisco 642-887 dumps
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC
642-887
QUESTION 4
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress,classify based on the qos group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two features are used to provide Cisco 642-887 dumps MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
Cisco 642-887 dumps MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

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