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QUESTION: 1
Which code calls a web form?

A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085

Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 4
You need to import string fields, such as organization names, into the CA Service Desk
database. To do this, you will need to convert them to their internal database values.
Which utility enables you to perform this task?

A. pdm_deref

B. pdm_extract
C. pdm_discimp
D. pdm_userload

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Level 3 CA Service Desk Analyst, Indira Chopra, resolves a ticket and returns it immediately to single point of contact (SPOC), Cliff Warner. Cliff needs to verify with the user that the issue is resolved and:
A. Ask the end user to close the ticket.
B. Return the ticket to Indira for closure.
C. Close the ticket, which sets it to inactive.
D. Set the ticket to pending in case there are related issues.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 Which parts comprise the Central Management Console (CMC) home page? (Choose three)
A. Define
B. Manage
C. Navigate
D. Organize
E. Users and Groups

Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 7
Which component has a Willingness Value?

A. Web engine
B. Data extractor
C. pdm_userload input file
D. Database interface (DBI)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
Which features characterize CA Workflow? (Choose three)

A. It includes inherent security.
B. It is only used for manual tasks.
C. It is external to CA Service Desk.
D. It is used for well defined processes.
E. Users need to be Analysts in CA Service Desk.

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 9
Which component connects web browsers to the CA Service Desk Object Manager?

A. domsrvr
B. Web Engine
C. Web Screen Painter (WSP)
D. WSP Schema Designer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 In a configuration with a Remote Management Database (MDB), what is the preferred requirement for the primary CA Service Desk Server?
A. Single Processor, 2 GHz; 2 GB RAM
B. Dual Processor, 2 GHz; 4 GB RAM
C. Dual Processor, 3GHz; 8 GB RAM
D. Quad Core Processor; 8 GB RAM

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
Which function can you perform with Web Intelligence?
A. Link reports with other data on the Internet.
B. Create basic reports easily without writing queries.
C. Check that your reports have the appropriate rights set.
D. Obtain greater control over reports by writing advanced queries.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 12
The CA Service Desk Universe supports: (Choose three)

A. security maintenance
B. report server setup only
C. multiple databases and multiple languages
D. data retrieval with knowledgeof the object or database layer
E. job scheduling and linkage of delivered reports to theCA Service Desk user interface

Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION: 13
When you run pdm backup:

A. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX only first.
B. It shuts down the services in Windows only first.
C. It shuts down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows first.
D. It does not need to shut down the daemons in UNIX or the services in Windows at any stage.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 14 You need to use a third-party scheduler to archive and purge rules. Which executable do you run?
A. bop_cmd
B. domsrver
C. pdm_backup
D. pdm_discimp

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QUESTION: 1
User attribute mapping enables you to:

A. Map policies to different user attributes.
B. Map user groups to different administrator groups.
C. Map user classes to different user attribute names.
D. Map one common name to different user attribute names in different user directories.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Policies can grant access to users based on user information that exists in the user store. The BEST example of that information is:
A. User permissions
B. User profile attribute values
C. The client machine’s IP address
D. CA SiteMinder administrative rights
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
What are the default session settings in CA SiteMinder? (Choose two)
A. Idle Timeout Enabled
B. Idle Timeout Disabled
C. Max Session Timeout Enabled
D. Max Session Timeout Disabled
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 4
Which features characterize the J2EE application server agent? (Choose two)
A. Supports IBM WebSphere and BEA WebLogk
B. Protects J2EE application server-based applications
C. Moves the point of trust from the web server to the ERP/CRM server
D. Makes calls to the Event Manager when authentication credentials are provided

Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 5
Which log file holds log records for the CA SiteMinder user interface (UI)?
A. SiteMinder trace log
B. Application Server log
C. SiteMinder web agent log
D. SiteMinder Policy Server log
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
Two features of global policies are:
A. they are different for each domain and apply to users in all user directories
B. they are different for each domain and apply only to a single user directory
C. they belong to a generic global domain and apply to users in all user directories
D. they belong to a generic global domain and apply only to a single user directory
Answer: B

QUESTION: 7
You successfully install a CA SiteMindcr Web Agent. Then, if you perform the host registration process:
A. A Trusted Host Object is created.
B. A Web Agent Trace File is produced.
C. An Affiliate Agent calls the Policy Server.
D. An Agent Configuration Object (ACO) is updated.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
To turn on the tracing facility for all Policy Server actions, you: A. Configure the smtracedefault.txt file.

B. Modify the general_trace.template file.
C. Set the Enable Profiling option on the Policy Server Profiler tab.
D. Configure the Policy Server Management Console logging option.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 9
Which benefits do agent groups provide? (Choose two)
A. Defining by multiple sets of policy objects
B. Verifying tasks in the Web Agent installation more easily
C. Saving time by defining only one policy for all Web Agents
D. Providing resource access to a larger user base by duplicating the resource on many web servers and Web Agents
Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 10
Two important reasons why password policies are necessary are to:
A. Maintain use of valid passwords and disable user accounts.
B. Increase administrative involvement and disable user accounts. C. Disable user accounts and minimize administrative involvement.
D. Prevent access when passwords have expired and ensure users cannot create week passwords.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
Two benefits of password services are that they:
A. Provide an additional layer of security, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
B. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and provide administrators with access to user passwords.
C. Provide an additional layer of security, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.
D. Prevent users from selecting their own passwords, and prevent unauthorized access to resources by disabling accounts that exceed permitted authentication attempts.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 12
In relation to Agents, what does central configuration indicate?
A. The Web Agent is configured from the Policy Server.
B. The Web Agent is configured from a local configuration file.
C. The Web Agent holds the initialization parameters for trusted hosts.
D. The Web Agent overrides the configuration parameters of trusted hosts.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
One of the three cryptographic operating modes for securing CA SiteMinder data is Federal Information Processing Standards (RPS)-compatibility. This mode:
A. Only uses FIPS 140-2 algorithms. B. Is only used for CA SiteMinder rl2.
C. Uses classic CA SiteMinder 6.x cryptography.
D. Is used where version 6.x and rl2 of CA SiteMinder co-exist.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Where are named expressions stored?
A. In cookies
B. In user classes
C. In the policy store
D. In the Administrator Group
Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
Which information can you view using the Summary View tab of the CA Introscope Transaction Tracer? (Choose three)
A. Color codes, which indicate call durations
B. The number of times a URL was accessed
C. The number of milliseconds to complete the call
D. The number of milliseconds required for the fastest call completion
E. The number of transaction components affected, shown using a hierarchical format
Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION: 2
CA Introscope holds historical data in multiple tiers. What is a characteristic of data held in Tier 1?
A. Is used in reporting
B. Is used for incident analysis
C. Is used in capacity planning
D. Is older and configured for lower resolutions
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
The CA Customer Experience Manager (CEM) Export Tool exports data in which file format?
A. .txt
B. .xls
C. .csv
D. .html
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
What is the main advantage of modifying the default metric set of a CA Introscope Agent to monitor fewer classes?

A. The Agent can report component activity at a more granular level.
B. A modified metric set creates more visibility for the classes monitored.
C. Agent performance can be improved by minimizing the Agents system overhead.
D. The Agent can report Enterprise Java Bean (EJB) activity at a more granular level.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
Which segment of this metric path is referenced by the metric expression of a Metric Grouping? H04|WAS_Node|Server 0|5ervlets|SeatServlet: Stall Count
A. H04|WAS_Node
B. H04|WAS_Node|ServerO
C. WAS_Node|Server 0|Servlets
D. Servlets|SeatServlet:Stall Count
Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
While viewing Investigator, you notice that metric values are acceptable, but you want to determine whether there are any outlying Servlet Response Times exceeding threshold limits. Which Workstation feature enables you to do this?
A. Metric data
B. Boundary Blame
C. View Historical Data
D. Minimum and Maximum Metric values
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
What is indicated by a simple alert in a yellow state?
A. The simple alert is not matching any metrics.
B. One or more metrics for this alert are beyond the danger threshold.
C. One or more metrics for this alert are beyond the caution threshold.
D. One or more metrics for this alert are within the stated threshold for this alert.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 8
Which defect type will be assigned to a transaction when the request for its HTML component results in an HTTP 500 error?
A. HTTP
B. Server
C. Response
D. Behavioral
Answer: C

QUESTION: 9
Which task can you perform using the Map tab in the Investigator?
A. View AlertMap files.
B. Configure application triage map security.
C. View a graphical depiction of the components that make up your application.
D. View the relationship of the interdependent web services within a Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) environment.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
The action which propagates definitions to all Transaction Impact Monitors (TIMs) in a domain is:
A. Configure subnets.
B. Synchronize all monitors.
C. Promote transaction definitions.
D. Configure automatic transaction recording.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 11
CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for collecting this data?

A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

QUESTION: 12
In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD files.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
Which metric type measures the number of requests completed over a period of time?
A. Errors Per Interval
B. Responses Per Interval
C. Average Response Time
D. Approximate Instance Count
Answer: B

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