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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 2
Scenario:
You have been brought in to troubleshoot 300-135 exam an EIGRP network. You have resolved the initial issue between routers R2 and R4, but another issue remains. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue. The customer has disabled access to the show running-config command

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300-135 dumps

300-135 dumps

The network segment between R2 and R4 has become disconnected from the remainder of the network. How should this issue be resolved?
A. Change the autonomous system number in the remainder of the network to be consistent with R2 and R4.
B. Move the 192.168.24.0 network to the EIGRP 1 routing process in R2 and R4.
C. Enable the R2 and R4 router interfaces connected to the 192.168.24.0 network.
D. Remove the distribute-list command from the EIGRP 200 routing process in R2.
E. Remove the distribute-list command from the EIGRP 100 routing process in R2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When issuing the “show ip eigrp neighbor” command (which is about the only command that it lets you do in this question) you will see that all other routers are
configured for EIGRP AS 1. However, the 192.16824.0 network between R2 and R4 is incorrectly configured for EIGRP AS 100:

300-135 dumps
QUESTION 3
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
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You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the 300-135 dumps issue.
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When looking at the HSRP configuration of R1, we see that tracking has been enabled, but that it is not tracking the link to R5, only the link to R2:

300-135 dumps

R1 should be tracking the Eth 0/1 link, not 0/0 to achieve the desired affect/

QUESTION 4.Which attribute applies to the Days to (from) threshold column in the Situations to watch chart?
A. A number in parentheses indicates the number of days until the threshold is reached.
B. A number indicates the number of days the predicted values has exceeded the threshold.
C. Increasing means that the predicted value is more than 365 days from reaching the threshold.
D. Chronic means that the predicted value has exceeded the threshold for 3 times the baseline period.
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 5.What is the purpose of the Health Index Leaders chart?
A. Shows the elements with better than average performance
B. Shows a table listing the ten best performing health indices
C. Shows the optimum thresholds against which all report data is measured
D. Shows a table listing the elements with the highest Health Index numbers
Answer: D
QUESTION 6.Which basic properties make a Trend report a useful troubleshooting tool? (Choose three)
A. Reveals patterns over time
B. Reveals relationships between variables
C. Reveals relationships between elements
D. Reveals elements that exceed or fall below thresholds
300-135  vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 7.By clicking an element name from a web-based Top N report, you can drill down to which type of report?
A. Top
B. Trend
C. What-if
D. At-a-Glance
Answer: D
QUESTION 8. You try to run a deployment from the TeamSite server to a target Web server and OpenDeploy is
unable to connect. Nothing appears in the target Web server’s OpenDeploy log; however, you are able to
deploy to a server on the same subnet as the TeamSite server. What is the cause of the problem
described above?
A. A valid encryption key file has not been specified.
B. The OpenDeploy port is blocked at the firewall.
C. The target Web server is running a different operating system than the TeamSite server.
D. TeamSite is not installed on the target Web server.
E. The target Web server is running a different version of OpenDeploy than the TeamSite server.
300-135  exam Answer: B
QUESTION 9. In a Windows 2000 environment, how do you limit the number of domains available to your TeamSite
server?
A. Put the TeamSite server in a different domain.
B. Ensure the limit_domains tag is in the iw.local.cfg file.
C. Make the TeamSite server the Primary Domain Controller.
D. Use the domain_list tag in iw.cfg.
E. Make the TeamSite server a stand alone server.
Answer: D
QUESTION 10. How does a TeamSite user change her TeamSite password?
A. The TeamSite user can use the Change Password menu item in ContentCenter to change her
TeamSite password.
B. The TeamSite user can use the Preferences option on the VisualPreview tool bar to change her
TeamSite password.
C. The TeamSite user can use the command-line tool (CLT) iwpasswd to change her TeamSite
password.
D. The TeamSite user can change the operating systempassword, which changes her TeamSite
password.
E. A TeamSite administrator must change the password for a TeamSite user.
300-135  dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 11. During a Windows TeamSite installation, which user is automatically added to the master.uid file?
A. The TeamSite Administrator
B. SYSTEM
C. The local user logged on to TeamSite
D. The Domain Administrator
E. TSIMP_TEAMSITE
Answer: B
QUESTION 12. Where can you find TeamSite release notes?
A. Interwoven’s documentation page (http://www.interwoven.com/documentation/)
B. In a file on the TeamSite CD-ROM
C. Inside the installation package (tarball or InstallShield package)
D. Interwoven does not produce product release notes.
E. Interwoven’s support site (http://support.interwoven.com/)
300-135  pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 13. A customer wants to make sure it can do an emergency roll back of its production Web site if it is
attacked by hackers. The customer wants to use OpenDeploy to re-deploy directly from TeamSite to
perform the emergency rollback. It does not want to have to re-create or re-build any assets as part of this
type of emergency rollback. The emergency rollback deployment must deploy exactly the same assets
that were on the Web server before the attack. To insure the above requirement is satisfied, which one of
the following types of assets must be versioned in TeamSite?
A. Compressed asset
B. Deployed asset
C. content store asset
D. Image asset
E. Derived asset
300-135  exam Answer: B
QUESTION 14. You just installed TeamSite on a Windows 2000 server. When rebooting, the tspostreboot.pl script
executes and you receive a message that states that TeamSite was successfully installed; however, you
are unable to get the initial login screen at http://localhost/iw. What is the cause of the problem described
above?
A. You are not authorized to use TeamSite.
B. The iwwebd port was not set correctly during installation.
C. The TeamSite users did not install certificates in their browsers.
D. You did not call Interwoven and get a client license key before proceeding.
E. You do not have a secure channel between the TeamSite server and your workstation.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 476

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QUESTION 14
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network
engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause
the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose
three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30

C. 70
D. 20
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE
to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the
next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being
sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
300-101 vce Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
300-101 exam Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
300-101 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
300-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Fortinet Troubleshooting Professional
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 30

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QUESTION 26
The PRINCE2 principle ‘focus on NSE7 dumps products’ states that a successful project is which one of the following?
A. Output oriented
B. Activity oriented
C. Benefits oriented
D. Resource oriented
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Effective risk management is a pre-requisite to which of the following principles?
A. Continued business justification

B. Manage by exception
C. Focus on products
D. Tailor to suit the project environment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
In respect of the project’s organization structure, one of the seven principles of PRINCE2 is that every
project must have which one of the following?
A. Defined and agreed roles and responsibilities with an organization structure that engages the business,
user and supplier primary stakeholder interests
B. People allocated to clearly defined management jobs, assigned to them on a one-to-one basis
C. As many stakeholders as possible from the customer environment involved in key decision- making
throughout the project life cycle
D. Stakeholders who are responsible, accountable, consulted and informed throughout every stage of the
project
NSE7 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 Principle?
A. Continued business justification
B. Project manage by process
C. Manage by stages
D. Tailor to suit the project environment
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Which of the following best defines an output?
A. The information required for decision-making purposes
B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome
C. The result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs
D. Any one of the project’s specialist products
NSE7 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which of the following best defines a dis-benefit?
A. A risk which occurs and subsequently impacts a stakeholder
B. An outcome perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders which may occur during the project
C. An outcome perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders which has actual consequences
D. Any one of the project’s issues which directly affects a stakeholder
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which statement regarding a project’s outputs, outcomes and benefits is correct?
A. All outputs have tangible benefits
B. Outcomes are the long term results of business benefits
C. Outputs are changes in the way the project’s products are used
D. Benefits are measurable improvements resulting from project outcomes

NSE7 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which best describes the purpose of a Business Case?
A. Used to define how and when a measurement of the project’s benefits can be made
B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project, based on estimated costs, the benefits to be
gained and offset by any associated risks
C. Allows the Project Board to manage by exception throughout the project through providing continuous
justification
D. Describes the specific risk management techniques and standards to be applied throughout the project
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which best describes the purpose of a NSE7 dumps Benefits Review Plan?
A. Used to define how and when a measurement of the project’s benefits can be made
B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project, based on estimated costs, the benefits to be
gained and offset by any associated risks
C. Provides all the right infiormation for decisions to be made regarding continued business justification
D. Describes only those benefits to be delivered during the project
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which best describes a purpose of the Business Case theme?
A. Provides full details of any risks related to the project
B. Provide a forecast for the project objectives and the project’s continued viability
C. Establish ways of judging whether the project is, and remains viable, desirable and achievable to assist
with decision making
D. Specifies the ways in which the project will deliver the chosen business solution
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Any project outcomes perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders would be documented in which
product?
A. Risk Management Strategy
B. Issue Register
C. Business Case
D. Project Product Description
NSE7 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What purpose does the Benefits Review Plan fulfill after the project has closed?
1. Defines how a measurement of the achievement of the project’s benefits can be made
2. Defines what benefits assessments need to be undertaken
3. Records the results of all benefit measurements
4. Identifies the activities required to measure the expected project’s benefits
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
What is a purpose of the Business Case theme?
A. Ensures the establishment of procedures to monitor and evaluate actual achievements versus those
planned
B. Establishes methods to judge whether the ongoing project is justified, in order to support decision
making
C. Improves the potential for project success through assessment and control of uncertain events or
situations
D. Describes how, when and at what cost products can be delivered so facilitating communication and
control
NSE7 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
If, for whatever reason, the business justification disappears once the project is underway, what does
PRINCE2 suggest should happen?
A. The project should continue until the next end stage assessment
B. A benefits review should be undertaken
C. The project should be stopped or changed
D. An exception assessment should be held to approve an Exception Plan to recover from the situation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
What is a purpose of the Business Case?
A. To enable identification of risks and their impact
B. To identify the quality expectations of the customer
C. Used to document details of how and when benefit reviews will be undertaken
D. Used to document the justification for undertaking the project
NSE7 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Identify the missing words in the following sentence… A Benefits Review Plan is used to show how and
when a measurement of the achievement of the can be made.
A. Project’s objectives
B. Project’s benefits
C. Project’s costs, benefits and risks
D. Project’s outputs and outcomes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which of the following would be carried out as part of a NSE7 dumps post-project benefits review?
A. An assessment of whether the project fulfilled its original objectives
B. A review of the performance of the project’s products in operational use and identification of whether
there have been any side-effects
C. An assessment of the project’s risk management procedure

D. A review of the performance of the project management method and the project management team
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Identify the missing words from the following sentence… It is a PRINCE2 principle that a project must have
justification?
A. Senior manager
B. Continued business
C. Consistent user
D. Business operational
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Which product provides the answer to the question, is the investment in this project still worthwhile?
A. Business Case
B. Risk Management Strategy
C. Issue Register
D. Benefits Review Plan
NSE7 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Which of the following products would be at the centre of any impact assessments of risks, issues and
changes?
A. Highlight Report
B. Business Case
C. Lessons Log
D. Risk Management Strategy
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 208

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QUESTION 1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
640-911 exam Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding
based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
640-911 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
640-911 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer?
(Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the
information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet
frame?
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 14
Which network device is used to identify and protect against unauthorized traffic and control access to
legitimate business-critical data?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Stateless firewall
C. Router
D. Gateway
E. Switch
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
640-911 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q
trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
HOTSPOT

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High quality Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free update, get the best Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps vce and pdf practice materials from lead4pass. https://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html dumps pdf practice files. Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps exam questions and answers download free try, pass Cisco 210-260 exam test easily.

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QUESTION 1
Which results happens when a non-trunking port that is configured with BPDU guard is connected to a device that is transmitting?
A. The port is moved into the spanning-tree blocking state.
B. There port is error-disabled.
C. A routing loop can occur on the network.
D. The port transitions to the connected state.
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN. 210-260 pdf
Which configuration must be configured before the VLAN is configured?
A. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
B. Configure VTP Transparent mode.
C. Enable VTP version 3.
D. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANS.
Answer: B
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which two limitations of LOCAL SPAN are true? 210-260 dumps (Choose Two)
A. The source and destination ports must reside in the same switch or switch stack
B. It can monitor only traffic that ingresses or egresses on the source interface or VLAN.
C. A SPAN session can support multiple destination ports only if they are on the same VLAN.
D. EACH SPAN session supports only one source VLAN or interface.
E. A switch can support only one local SPAN session at a time.
Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which Statement about the default SWITCH Database Management Template is true?
A. Template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses
B. Template maximizes system resources for access control lists.
C. Template maximizes system resources for unicast routing.
D. Template gives balance to all functions
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two prerequisites for HSRP to become active on an interface are true? 210-260 pdf (Choose 2)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled globally.
B. The VIP must be in the same subnet as the primary IP address.
C. A Virtual-MAC address must be configured on the interface.
D. An IP address must be configured on the interface.
E. PIM routing must be disabled on the interface.
Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol? 210-260 dumps
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You import a managed solution that contains a custom entity named Loan. Loan is enabled for customization.
You need to add a new field to the Loan entity.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Open the imported solution, locate the Loan entity, and then add the new field.
B. Create a new solution, add the existing Loan entity, and then add the new field.
C. Modify the Managed Properties of the Loan entity in the imported solution.
D. Open the default solution, locate the Loan entity, and then add the new field.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
You have a Dynamics CHM organization that uses folder tracking. You have a folder named Customers that is currently being tracked- Customers contains a folder for The main contact named Contact1. MB2-716 pdf
A new email message from Contact1 is delivered to your Inbox. You need to identity what will occur when you move the message to the Customer1 folder.
What should you identify?
A. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Customer1 and to Contact1
B. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Contact1 only.
C. An email activity will be created m CRM that has a connection To Customer1 only.
D. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field set to Contact1
E. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field Set to Customer1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You modify the Account form to contain the contain the tabs configured and ordered as shown in the following table.
MB2-716 dumps
You need to identify which tabs will be displayed by default on Dynamics CRM for tablets. MB2-716 dumps
Which tabs should you identify?A. only General. Address Info, and Reseller Info
B. only General, Address Info, Reseller Info, and Additional Info
C. only General, Details, Address Info, Reseller Info, and Additional Info
D. only General, Details. Address Info, and Reseller Info
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have a Dynamics CRM organization.
You have a team named Teaml. All of the members of Teaml have identical security roles. A user named User1 has a personal view to display the records owned by Teaml. You need to ensure that all the members of Teaml can use the view.
What should you do?
A. Instruct User1 to assign the personal view to the owner of Teaml.
B. Instruct the owner of Teaml to configure the filter criteria.
C. Instruct User1 to assign the personal view to Teaml.
D. Instruct User1 to configure the filter criteria.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are adding a sub-grid to the Account form that displays data from a custom entity related to the account. You need to identify which items you can use to display the data. Which two items should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a fist
B. a chart
C. a dashboard
D. an iFrame
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You have a recalled product that should no longer be sold. MB2-716 pdf
You need to remove the Product from the available list of products and to prevent any sales from being processed for the product.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Remove the product from the family hierarchy.
B. Modify the open opportunities.
C. Update the price list.
D. Retire the product.
E. Modify the validity date of the product.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
You have a Dynamics CRM organization. The organization does not use CRM for marketing. You need to prevent Marketing from displaying on the Account form navigation.
What should you do?
A. Delete all of the items in the Marketing group.
B. Hide the Marketing group.
C. Minimize the Marketing group.
D. Delete the Marketing group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a Dynamics CRM development environment and a Dynamics CRM production environment. In both environments, your account is assigned the System Customizer security role. In the development environment, you create a custom solution that contains all of the project components deployed to the production environment. The custom solution contains an entity. In the development environment, you open the project solution that you intend to deploy to the production environment. MB2-716 dumps
You see the entity, but not the field.
You need to ensure that you can modify the field in the development environment.
What should you do?
A. Ask the system administrator to assign your user the System Administrator security role, and then modify the system field.
B. In the project solution, add a field to the entity, and then make the modification.
C. In the default solution, make the modification.
D. Use the Add Sub Components action, add the field, and then make the modification.
Correct Answer: C

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[High Quality Cisco Questions] 2017 Latest Cisco 600-510 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube

Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist 600-510 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 600-510 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist. http://www.lead4pass.com/600-510.html Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist 600-510 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

QUESTION 1
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment, operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scoresE. QoS
Correct Answer: AD
600-510
QUESTION 3               600-510
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric?
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.) 600-510
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices
Correct Answer: ACD

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[High Quality Microsoft Questions] Latest Microsoft 70-331 Exam Practice Materials And Youtube

Comprehensive knowledge of Microsoft 70-331 exam practice questions and answers Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
You need to import employee photos into SharePoint user profiles by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Define a mapping for the thumbnailPhoto attribute of the Picture user profile property.
B. Run the Update-SPUserSolution Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run an incremental synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
D. Run a full synchronization of the User Profile Synchronization service.
E. Run the Update-SPProfilePhotoStore Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
F. Define a mapping for the photo attribute of the Picture user profile property.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation:
A: Step 3 below.
D: Step 5 below.
E: Step 6 below.
Note: Importing Images into SharePoint User Profiles My Sites To make the user images that we have uploaded into the thumbnail Photo attribute in Active Directory available in SharePoint we will first need to map it to the Picture property in the User Profile Service Application.
Firstly you will need to go into theUser Profile Service Application.
1. Central Admin > Application Management > Service Applications > Manage Service Applications > User Profile Service Application
2.Then you will need to go into theManage User Propertiessection and edit thePicture property.
3. Next we will map the Active Directory propertythumbnail Phototo thePictureproperty in SharePoint
4.Once the mapping has been applied theManage User Propertiespage will look like this.
5.Now we will need to run aFull User Profile Synchronizationjob so that SharePoint can import theuser images from Active Directory Synchronization > Start Profile Synchronization > Start Full Synchronization
6. Lastly we will need to force SharePoint to update the User Profile Database This will create the thumbnails that are used in My Sites and the User Profile Service. This will need to be run in the SharePoint PowerShell Console with the appropriate My Site permissions.
70-331 exam
QUESTION 2                          70-331 exam
You create a User Profile Synchronization connection.
You need to grant the necessary permissions to the synchronization account.
What should you do?
A. Grant the account Full Control on the ActiveUsers OU.
B. Grant the account Full Control on the AuthenticatedUsers AD security group.
C. Grant the account Read permission on the domain.
D. Grant the account the Replicate Directory Changes permission on the domain.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that content authors can publish the specified files.
What should you do?
A. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
B. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the authoring web application.
C. Create one authoring site collection. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
D. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You copy the content of the SharePoint installation media and software updates to your hard drive.
You need to meet the setup requirements for future SharePoint server installations.
What should you do? 70-331 exam
A. Extract the content of each file to the Updates folder by running the /extract: command.
B. Upgrade the installation media by running the /lang: command.
C. Extract the content of each file to the Setup folder by running the /extract: command.
D. Extract the content of each file to the PrerequisiteInstallerFiles folder by running the /extract: command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to implement corporate sizing and performance guidelines for general usage scenarios.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 100 milliseconds.
B. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 4 TB.
C. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 20 milliseconds.
D. Limit the number of documents in each document library to 20 million.
E. Limit the number of documents in each content database to 10 million.
F. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 200 GB.
Correct Answer: CEF

Explanation:
C: Network Attached Storage (NAS) is only supported by SharePoint 2013 with iSCSI and if TTFB is less than 20ms.
E: The largest number of items per content database that has been tested on SharePoint Server 2013 is 60 million items, including documents and list items. If you plan to store more than 60 million items in SharePoint Server 2013, you must deploy multiple content databases.
F: We strongly recommended limiting the size of content databases to 200 GB, except when the circumstances in the following rows in this table apply. If you are using Remote BLOB Storage (RBS), the 70-331 exam total volume of remote BLOB storage and metadata in the content database must not exceed this limit.
Note: The use of RBS-enabled content databases larger than 4TB with collaboration sites is not supported.

Reference: http://www.microsoft-technet.com/category/hp-atp-server-solutions-v2

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2017 Real Cisco 210-260 Vce is What You Need To Know about 210-260 Vce Video Study

The Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) exam 210-260 vce is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions. This 210-260 vce tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 186 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 17, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html

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210-260 vce 

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QUESTION 11
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

 


QUESTION 12
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has
been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 13
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 14
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 15
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
Correct Answer: A  210-260 vce

 


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 vce

What is the effect of the given command?
A. It merges authentication and encryption methods to protect traffic that matches an ACL.
B. It configures the network to use a different transform set between peers.
C. It configures encryption for MD5 HMAC.
D. It configures authentication as AES 256.
Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 17
Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types? (Choose two.)
A. stop
B. none
C. error
D. all
Correct Answer: CD

 


QUESTION 18
Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentication attempt record to a AAA server?
(Choose two.)
A. start-stop
B. stop-record
C. stop-only
D. stop
Correct Answer: AC

 

 

QUESTION 19
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public
address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority

Correct Answer: A

210-260 vce

This exam validates skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices. This 210-260 vce also shows competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) course.

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QUESTION: 1
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?
A. overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
B. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
C. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
D. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which three areas is the engineer most likely expect to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose three.)
A. emergency room
B. magnetic resonance imaging
C. laboratory
D. X-ray radiography
E. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
F. kitchen
Answer: A, C, F
300-360
QUESTION: 3                                            300-360 dumps
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Answer: A, E

QUESTION: 4
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space.
How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
Answer: D

Explanation:
The rule of thumb coverage plan is 1 AP per 5,000 square feet for data and 1 per 3,000 square feet for voice and location services.

QUESTION: 5
A customer has dual-band devices that they want to use 40 MHz channels. If the customer is using Cisco 3600 Series access points with a 5508 controller. Which setting assists with this change?
A. Enable band select globally.
B. Enable aggressive load balancing.
C. Disable lower data rates on 802 .11G GHz radios.
D. Disable overlapping 802.11G channels.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
An engineer is deploying centralized wireless solution with a 5508 controller. What is the most AP licenses that can be supported?
A. 100
B. 250
C. 1000
D. 500
Answer: D

Explanation:
You can order Cisco 300-360 dumps 5500 Series Controllers with support for 12, 25, 50, 100, 250 or 500 APs as the controller’s base capacity. You can add additional AP capacity through capacity adder licenses available at 25, 50, 100 and 250 AP capacities. You can add the capacity adder licenses to any base license in any combination to arrive at the maximum capacity of 500 APs.

QUESTION: 7
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building. Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Answer: C, D

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