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400-351 dumps

Question No : 22 What are the three possible BGP failure states? Choose all that apply.
A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle

E. Established
F. Open Sent
G. Open Confirm
400-351 exam Answer: BCD
Question No : 23 What port does BGP communicates on?
A. 161
B. 110
C. 80
D. 179
Answer: D
Question No : 24 What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface? What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 15
D. 0
400-351 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 25 It can be necessary to distribute client certificates to tablets and handhelds in order to connect to:
A. the Internet.
B. cellular networks.
C. encrypted hard drives.
D. Enterprise Wi-Fi or VPN Networks.
Answer: D
Question No : 26 When using the accessibility feature “Magnify Mode “, what action can be taken to quickly remove the magnification?
A. Go to Option -> Accessibility and disable Magnify Mode
B. Pinch with two fingers on the screen to zoom out.
C. Swipe down from the top of the screen with two fingers.
D. Click the center button between the volume keys.
400-351 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 27 What are the categories of files that are available to be synchronized automatically between a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) smartphone and the user’s computer using BlackBerry Link?
A. Music, pictures, Videos
B. Work. Personal
C. Work. Personal, Encrypted
D. Music, pictures, Videos, Documents
Answer: D
Question No : 28 What are the encryption options available when adding an IMAP email account?
A. S/MIME, PGP,TrueCrypt
B. AES,3DES
C. SSL,StartTLS.Off
D. 128-Bit TKIP
400-351 vce Answer: C
Question No : 29  Which of the following BlackBerry Applications enables users to easily migrate to a new BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. BlackBerry Link
B. BlackBerry Desktop software
C. BlackBerry Protect
D. BlackBerry Balance
Answer: A
Question No : 30 What is the share address of the BlackBerry Smartphone internal device storage?
A. //IP Address OfDevice\media
B. //Device Name\storage
C. http://IP Address Of Device:3101
D. smb://lP Address Of Device/shared
400-351 exam Answer: A
Question No : 31 Which of the following is needed to be able to add any new accounts from settings options on a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device?
A. NFC radio should be on
B. Battery should be more than 20%
C. Server needs to only have Activesync enabled
D. Wi-Fi should be turned on with access to the host server for which the account is to be added
Answer: D
Question No : 32 All users are no longer able to activate using their Username. Activation Password and SRP. However they are able to use a Fully Qualified Domain Name of the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS). What setting in BlackBerry Administration Service (BAS) would be the most likely cause of this issue?
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher is configured with an Enterprise Proxy
B. Allow activation over BlackBerry infrastructure set to yes
C. Allow activation information to be emailed is set to no
D. Proxy profile is configured to use VPN incorrectly
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Question No : 33 Which password will be required when logging into BlackBerry World for the first time?
A. Perimeter Password
B. BlackBerry ID Password
C. Corporate Password
D. Device Password
Answer: B
Question No : 34 Which of the following is required in order to process an NFC transaction?
A. Both devices should be at least 20cm apart.
B. A valid Wi-Fi connection is necessary.
C. The battery of the BlackBerry 10 device should be 5% or more.
D. Very close proximity or tap of the communicating devices is necessary.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 35 Where on the BlackBerry should an end user be directed to learn the different swipe gestures?
A. About Menu in Device Settings
B. Learn How Menu items in Setup
C. Language and Input in Device Settings
D. The Hub
Answer: B
Question No : 36  What server setting can prevent a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) user from using data services when the smartphone/tablet is using network roaming?
A. Multiple Smartphones/Tablets enabled
B. The Roaming IT policy rule
C. No payment information listed on the server
D. Going over the data usage quota
400-351 vce Answer: B
Question No : 37  Which of the following will allow a BlackBerry end user to set an Activation password or reactivate a BlackBerry device?
A. BlackBerry® Web Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Administration
C. BlackBerry Resource Kit
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A
Question No : 38 Which of the following is NOT a capability of BlackBerry Link?
A. Backup device data
B. Bluetooth Media Sync
C. Software updates
D. NFC Media Sync
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
A customer implements SAP Financials with multiple company codes. They want to manage credit limits for each customer across all company codes collectively. Which master data setup allows this?
A. Create a single credit control area and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
B. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign individual limits to each customer at company code level.
C. Create a credit control area for each company code and assign a total limit for customers across all company codes.
D. Create a single credit control area and assign a total limit for all customers across all company codes.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
In the evaluation phase, you assess the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution. The leading role here belongs to the virtual account team. This team usually consists of a sales executive, the consulting engagement manager, and the project manager. As well as assessing the prospect against the SAP Business All-in-One solution, what else is the responsibility of the virtual account team in the evaluation phase?
A. To start data migration
B. To check if the customer project resources are trained
C. To submit the preliminary proposal
D. To check if the system is ready to start development
400-351 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
When you activate an SAP Best Practices package in the Solution Builder, BC Sets and eCATTs are run. What is the purpose of using BC Sets and eCATTs in the SAP Best Practices packages?
A. BC Sets and eCATTs are used to import data into each client in the system with a single execution.
B. BC Sets are activated directly to import Customizing contained in the txt files and eCATTs are run to import sample master data.
C. BC Sets and eCATTs are used in the SAP Solution Builder to import transactional data.
D. BC Sets are used to change productive systems and eCATTs are used to change test systems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
What are the SAP-relevant phases for an asset under construction (AuC)? (Choose two)
A. The useful life phase
B. The setup phase
C. The under construction phase
D. The budget phase
E. The planning phase
400-351 pdf Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO:43 A company has been using a Cascade Express-300 Profiler for some time, but has recently started dropping flows as they are overrunning their licensed limit. What is the best course of action if they are considering an upgrade to the next tier of Cascade Profiler? (Select 2)
A. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and stop using their Express.
B. The company can continue to use their Express but must buy a new Cascade Profiler.
C. The Express can be further licensed to capture the currently dropped flows.
D. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler but can use the Express functioning as a remote Cascade Sensor.
E. The company must buy a new Standard Cascade Profiler and can continue to use their Express but the two Cascade Profilers must be used independent of one another.
F. The company can try to reduce the number of flows being seen by the Express.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
In the traffic reporting tabs on Cascade Profiler, each report-by option has a default template that controls content and formatting of the resulting report. Which of the following is controlled by the default template?
A. Inclusion of a pie chart
B. Inclusion of a flow list
C. Data resolution (1 min, 15 min, 1 hr, etc.)
D. Columns that are included in the summary table
E. Sort order of the summary table
F. All of the above
400-351 vce Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What is one key benefit Cascade provides for Data Center Consolidation Projects?
A. Ability to understand the response time of the Data Center as a whole.
B. Ability to map out the inter-server dependencies between applications in the data center.
C. Ability to map out the intra-server application/process dependencies on a server.
D. Ability to compare WAN Optimization benefits for different versions of Windows Server software
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Under Layer 4 Mappings, the available Application List settings arE. (Select 3)
A. Application Name
B. IP Address
C. Host or Groups
D. Ports
400-351 exam Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
For sampled data in a chart in Cascade Pilot, you can: (Select 2)
A. Change the sampling time to process data after applying a View.
B. See the granularity of a chart after applying a View.
C. Define the sampling time before applying a View, and it will be the only one used to represent data.
D. Increase the data granularity by reducing the size of the selected time window.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what best describes a Dashboard?
A. A set of graphs showing top interfaces, top hosts, top users, and top protocols from which you can run reports.
B. A configurable set of content blocks for watched and top items (items including hosts, network  interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
C. A configurable set of connection graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports
D. A configurable set of fixed logarithmic graphs for watched and top items (items including hosts, network interfaces, ports, protocols, and applications), which are updated with current information and from which you can run reports.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the maximum number of 10G ports that a Cascade Sensor can support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. Unlimited
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
If there are multiple network devices reporting flow data to Cascade and two devices report flow records for the same TCP connection, what will Cascade report?
A. The traffic will be double counted.
B. Cascade will discard one of the flow records.
C. If both flows types are the same (e.g. NetFlow) Cascade will de-duplicate the records but if they are of different flow types, one record will be discarded.
D. Cascade will de-duplicate and consolidate the flow records regardless of source and flow type.
E. This is not possible.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which component of Cascade can be used with a Cascade Express Profiler?
A. Standard or Enterprise Profiler
B. Gateways
C. Sensor
D. Shark
E. Sensor-VE
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
How do you set the time zone of a Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the Basic Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
B. From the Advanced Settings page of the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface.
C. With the CLI command “set timezone”.
D. From the Settings menu of Cascade Pilot.
400-351 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION 100
200-355 dumps

200-355 exam Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

QUESTION 101
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

QUESTION NO: 102
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET] Framework 3.5. You need to represent a strongly typed lambda expression as a data structure in the form of an expression tree. Which of the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MethodCallExpression
B. Expression(TDelegate)
C. Expression
D. LambdaExpression
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 103
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You create an assembly. You place the assembly in a specific folder. Which of the following classes can you use to determine whether the assembly was located in a specific folder? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. UrlMembershipCondition
B. ApplicationDirectoryMembershipCondition
C. GacMembershipCondition
D. SiteMembershipCondition
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 104
John works as a Software Developer for CyberTech Inc. He creates an ASP .NET page named BookItemList.aspx, which displays a price list of computer books. Registered users have to first log on to the company’s Web site in order to view the current price list of different computer books available on the Web site. Users want to maintain the page requests as long as they are accessing the Web page. John wants to ensure that whenever the Web page BookItemList.aspx is posted back to the server, the price list should not be changed on the registered user’s computer. He also wants to validate the page sent back to the server. Which of the following actions will John take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to false.
B. Set the EnableEventValidation attribute to true.
C. Set the EnableViewState attribute to true.
D. Set the EnableViewState attribute to false.
200-355 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 105
Patrick works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. He implements security using the security classes of the .NET Framework. He defines the following statements in the application: PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm1 = new PrincipalPermission(“Nick”, “General Manager”);
PrincipalPermission Principal_Perm2 = new PrincipalPermission(“Jack”, “Accountant”);
Patrick wants to check whether all demands that succeed for Principal_Perm1 also succeed for Principal_Perm2. Which of the following methods of the PrincipalPermission class will he use to accomplish this?
A. Intersect
B. IsSubSetOf
C. IsUnrestricted
D. Union
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He develops an application named App1 using Visual Basic .NET. App1 uses a non-COM DLL named Value1.dll, which contains unmanaged code. Sam writes a method named Method1 in Value1.dll as follows: Method1 Lib “Value1.dll”(ByVal InputVar As String, ByRef WordsVar As String, ByRef NumbersVar As Integer) As Integer Sam wants to use Method1 for parsing a string into an array of string values and an array of integers. Sam wants to enable App1 to call this function. Which of the following statements about the method are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The value of the first parameter cannot be changed by a procedure or a function.
B. The second parameter will contain all string values found in the first parameter.
C. The third parameter will contain all integer values found in the second parameter.
D. The third parameter will contain all string values found in the second parameter.
200-355 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 107
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You need to write a code segment that transfers the contents of a byte array named ToSend by using a NetworkStream object named NetStr. You want to use a cache of size only 8,192 bytes. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); NetStr.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) MStream.Length);
B. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, 8192);
C. BufferedStream BStream = new BufferedStream(NetStr, 8192); BStream.Write(ToSend, 0, ToSend.Length);
D. MemoryStream MStream = new MemoryStream(8192); MStream.Write(ToSend, 0, (int) NetStr.Length);
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 108
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95’. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
200-355 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 110
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 111
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert(); A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
200-355 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 113
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application uses serialization to allow users to take an instance of an object and convert it into a format that can be easily transmittable over the network or even stored in a database. You want to provide the base functionality for the common language runtime serialization formatters. Which of
the following classes will you use to accomplish the task?
A. SoapFormatter
B. FormatterConverter
C. Formatter
D. BinaryFormatter
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 114
Sam works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates an ASP.NET page, named Page1, for a college Web site. Page1 is used to enroll new applicants to a certification course offered by the college. In order to get admission to the course, an applicant’s age must between eighteen and twenty-five. The page contains several TextBox controls that are used by
applicants to feed their personal details. The data entered by each applicant is then used to check the eligibility of the applicant. One of the TextBox controls on the page is named txtDateofBirth. Sam wants to verify that the applicants meet the age requirement. He wants to perform validation both on the server-side and on the client-side. In order to validate the age, he adds a CustomValidator control, named CValidator, to the page and sets its ControlToValidate property to txtDateofBirth. Which of the following will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ClientValidationFunction event
B. ServerValidate property
C. ServerValidate event
D. ClientValidationFunction property
200-355 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 115
You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework. The application is installed in a Network Load Balancing cluster. You are evaluating a bug statement. When a failure takes place in the Web application, the client occasionally gets an error page as anticipated. At other times, the client gets an exception stack with the error message, which is not anticipated. You are required to find out the configuration setting that causes the unanticipated error. Which of the following configuration settings causes the unanticipated error?
A. <customErrors mode=”Off” />
B. <compilation debug=”false” />
C. <compilation debug=”true” />
D. <customErrors mode=”On” />
Answer: A
 

 

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Question No : 1 Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
648-244 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Question No : 2 Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Question No : 3 What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
648-244 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 4  Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 5 What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
648-244 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 6  How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 7 Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
648-244 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 8 Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 9 Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server?(Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
648-244 exam Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 10 Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Question No : 11 How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
648-244 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 12 When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 13 Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
648-244 pdf Answer: C,E
Question No : 14 What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 15 What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based
servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
648-244 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 16 Which two statements would lead you to use a mixed Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with physical and virtual machines instead of a fully virtualized deployment? (Choose two.)
A. when migrating from a physical to a virtual deployment
B. when inter virtual machine traffic should be switched with Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. when using MOH audio live-stream devices
D. when you want to use direct-attached Fibre Channel SAN devices
E. when you need remote access to the BIOS setup
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Question No : 17 Why should you use the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in addition to your design solution that you did manually?
A. this is not necessary if the DocWiki guidelines for virtualized Cisco Unified Communications are followed
B. to distribute and place the virtual machines automatically in the optimized way
C. to calculate CPU and memory utilization
D. to select the optimized OVA template for the deployment
648-244 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 18  When designing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how many MOH Unicast streams are supported per server when streaming is colocated?
A. 48
B. 128
C. 250
D. 256
E. 500
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 19 When designing a virtualized Cisco Unity Connection deployment, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. configure CPU affinity for Cisco Unity Connection
B. reserve an unused core per Cisco Unity Connection virtual machine
C. reserve an unused core per host server
D. iLBC codec selection reduces the number of ports by 75 percent
E. a Cisco Unity Connection cluster supports up to 40,000 users
648-244 dumps Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Question No : 20 How many coresident applications can be hosted on a Cisco UCS C200 M2 server when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps

070-489 exam Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phone. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.

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QUESTION 12
You need to implement the social features.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
dropdown list in the answer area.)

070-489 dumps

070-489 dumps

Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Contoso Ltd
Background
Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production.
Search
The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results.
Search Engine Optimization
The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following 070-489 dumps requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true
Managed Metadata Service (MMS)
The MMS must include three term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features.
Offices Term Set
The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane.
Cities Term Set
The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical. If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices term set before it can be added to the Cities term set. If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change in the Cities term set.
Features Term Set
You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The 070-489 pdf features term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about each property, such as whether the building is a single family house or a condominium. The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the Excel file into the term store in each server environment.
Web Application
The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles folder.
Site Collections and Content
The web application includes the following three site collections.
Board Member Site Collection
The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view  private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the 070-489 vce site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board members.
Internet Site Collection
Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. The Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices. Each office must have its own page on the site. The pages for each office must have the same style and structure. Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office. The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a property. The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company. Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member. The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents, including their contact information, certifications, and picture. When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling. The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their 070-489 vce features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web form that is used specifically for data collection.
The web form must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property.
Agent Site Collection
The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The Agent site collection has the following requirements: The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the website. A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set. 
Page Layouts and Web Parts
Page Layouts
You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements: The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts. The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must display biographical information about the board of directors. You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file. 
Web Parts
The Agent Web Part has the following requirements: The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be used by the Web Part.

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Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 48

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4.What are two reasons to implement S/MIME as part of a BlackBerry Enterprise Solution? (Choose two.)
A. To increase the security of email message transmissions after they leave the organization infrastructure
B. To allow inter-connectivity of multiple BlackBerry Enterprise Servers in a single organizational infrastructure
C. To comply with security standards governed by an organization or a company
D. To improve phone call security between the BlackBerry device and the service providers?wireless towers to prevent digital scanners from picking up wireless signals

E. To allow secure Wi-Fi connections to a organization infrastructure from any hotspot by encrypting data packets
70-741 exam Answer: A,C
5.A BlackBerry device user has multiple groups in the address book of a messaging application. Each day, the user synchronizes this address book with the BlackBerry device’s Address Book. While viewing the Address Book on the BlackBerry device, the user notices that some of the contacts are missing. What should the user do to view the missing entries in the BlackBerry device’s Address Book? (Choose one.)
A. Display the menu > Select View > Select Show all Groups
B. Display the menu > Select Filter > Modify Category
C. Display the menu > Select Options > Modify Sort By
D. Display the menu > Select SIM Phone Book > Select View
E. Display the menu > Select Show All Contacts
Answer: B
6.The BlackBerry device is displaying a 517 error. What does this error indicate and what should be done to resolve the error? (Choose one.)
A. This error indicates that a BlackBerry device does not have BlackBerry Device Software installed and needs to have the software installed using the backup and restore tool.
B. This error indicates a BlackBerry device has a corrupt file system and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the application loader tool.
C. This error indicates a BlackBerry device is locked and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the backup and restore tool.
D. This error indicates a BlackBerry device has a corrupt file system and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the backup and restore tool.
E. This error indicates a BlackBerry device is locked and needs to have BlackBerry Device Software installed using the application loader tool.
70-741 dumps Answer: B
7.A BlackBerry device can connect to BlackBerry Desktop Manager using which three connection methods? (Choose three.)
A. USB port
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Infrared technology

D.COM port
E. FireWire connection
F. Parallel connection
Answer: A,B,D
8.Which two conditions must be met for a successful enterprise activation process? (Choose two.)
A. Port 4101 on the firewall must be open.
B. Email messages must go to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server adminstrator’s inbox.
C. Attachments with the .dat extension must be allowed.
D. Message delivery from BlackBerry.net must be unrestricted.

E. All PIM databases must be cleared using the backup and restore tool.
70-741 pdf Answer: C,D
9.During a clean uninstall of BlackBerry Desktop Manager, which two keys from the registry may need to be removed manually by the BlackBerry device user? (Choose two.)
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Research In Motion
B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Research In Motion
C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\BlackBerry
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\BlackBerry
E. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\RIM Device
Answer: A,B
10.Upon completion of an organizer data synchronization on the BlackBerry device, a message appears indicating that several records were skipped. What would cause this message to appear? (Choose one.)
A. One or more of the records in one of the organizer data applications is missing a piece of information that is required for synchronization to occur.
B. BlackBerry Desktop Software lacks the proper permission to access the data.
C. BlackBerry Desktop Software is unable to connect to an organizer data application and, as a result, some records were skipped.
D. A setting in the Configure Synch?options is set to skip records that are dated prior to today.
E. The BlackBerry device has reached the maximum number of entries for the application and is unable to add more entries.
70-741 vce Answer: A
11.Using BlackBerry Manager, what are two ways to navigate to the Resend IT Policy option? (Choose two.)
A. Navigate to Tools > Select Policies > Select a policy name > Select Edit > Select Users > Click Resend IT Policy
B. Right-click on the BlackBerry device user account > Click Resend IT Policy
C. Select the BlackBerry device user account > Select IT Admin in the Task pane > Click Resend IT Policy
D. Select the BlackBerry Enterprise Server name > Select IT Admin > Click Resend IT Policy
E. Right-click on the BlackBerry device user account > Select IT Admin > Click Resend IT Policy
Answer: B,C
12.When performing an enterprise activation, the following error message appears. Some databases failed to synchronize. Address Book
What are two possible causes of this error? (Choose two.)
A. Contact information required for synchronization is missing.
B. The address book is too large to synchronize.
C. Wireless PIM Sync is turned off.
D. There are invalid characters (such as #, %, $, and &) in the address book.
E. The BlackBerry Device Software installed on the BlackBerry device 
has become corrupt.
70-741 exam Answer: A,D
13.A BlackBerry device stops responding and displays the following error message. APP Error 200 Reset What troubleshooting steps should be taken to resolve this issue? (Choose one.)
A. During the application loader process, make sure the Automatically back up and clear the application database option has been selected.
B. Before performing the application loader process, verify that the Content Protection and Content Compression options on the BlackBerry device have both been turned off.
C. Before performing the application loader process, verify that the Regenerate Encryption keys manually option has been selected under Email Settings in BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. While performing the application loader process, make sure the Erase all application data and Erase all currently installed applications options are both selected under Advanced options.
E. During the application loader process, make sure the DOD Root Certificates option is selected and reset the BlackBerry device.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION: 28
Which of the following are goals of the Service Reusability design principle? Select the correct answer.
A. To support the creation of services based upon agnostic service logic.
B. To allow for service logic to be repeatedly leveraged over time so as to achieve an increasingly high return on the initial investment of delivering the service.
C. To increase organizational agility by enabling wide-scale service composition from service inventories that contains a high percentage of reusable services.
D. All of the above.
70-773 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 29
When applying the Service Autonomy principle, runtime autonomy and design-time autonomy are related through the following rule of thumb: “The the amount of design time autonomy, the correct answer.
A. lesser, lesser
B. greater, lesser
C. greater, greater
D. lesser, greater
Answer: C
the amount of attainable runtime autonomy.” Select the
QUESTION: 30
Services with answer. tend to be more . Select the correct

A. a stateful context, more stateless
B. an agnostic context, reusable
C. a non-agnostic context, reusable
D. None of the above.
70-773 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
The service-oriented architectural model is ideally designed to be neutral to vendor platforms so that organizations have the freedom to diversify by leveraging multiple vendor technology innovations over time, as required. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
A service cannot enter the role of composition sub-controller when invoked by a composition initiator. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-773 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 33
The Service Discoverability principle is supported by the Standardized Service Contract principle in which of the following ways? Select the correct answer.
A. The Standardized Service Contract principle advocates using naming conventions for ensuring that the functionality of services is consistently expressed. By making the service easier to understand, it becomes more discoverable.
B. The Standardized Service Contract principle supports a design process whereby the service contract is customized and created prior to the service logic. This allows service designers to shape the service contract content in such a manner that it can be effectively discovered.

C. The Standardized Service Contract principle requires the use of service contract design standards that can be created to establish conventions that are supportive of the Service Discoverability principle.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
Service-orientation establishes a distinct approach to carrying out a(n) .
Select the correct answer.
A. separation of concerns
B. identification of constructs
C. inheritance of contracts
D. refactoring of code
70-773 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
A(n) in the extent to which the Service Reusability principle is applied to a service can result in a(n) composed. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. decrease, decrease
B. increase, decrease
C. decrease, increase
D. increase, increase
Answer: A, D
in the potential for the service to be repeatedly
QUESTION: 36
Which of the following are not service-orientation design principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction
B. Service Reliability

C. Service Autonomy
D. All of the above are service-orientation design principles.
70-773 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
Fill in the blank for the following definition for the Standardized Service Contract design principle: “Services within the same
contract design standards.” Select the correct answer.
A. service activity
B. service inventory
C. state
D. message path
Answer: B
are in compliance with the same
QUESTION: 38
To be considered an enterprise resource a service must be non-agnostic in nature. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-773 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 39
Often it is a requirement to wrap a legacy system with a service. This is typically accomplished by encapsulating calls to the legacy system’s Application Programming Interface (API) within the core logic of the service. Care must be taken to not expose details of the underlying API through the service contract as it may unintentionally couple the service consumer to the
legacy system. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly addresses this concern? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Loose Coupling, Service Abstraction
B. Service Statelessness, Service Autonomy

C. Service Loose Coupling, Service Statelessness
D. Service Autonomy, Standardized Service Contract
Answer: A
QUESTION: 40
When a service is required to manage and hold onto an excessive quantity of state data, it can lead to a decrease in which of the following desirable service characteristics? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. maintainability
B. availability
C. scalability
D. discoverability
70-773 pdf Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 41
The composition controller role is most associated with which of the following service models? Select the correct answer.
A. task service
B. entity service
C. utility service
D. data service
Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
Which of the following is not a benefit associated with silo-based application design? Select the correct answer.
A. The emphasis on fulfilling tactical (short-term) business requirements allows for a more predictable application delivery lifecycle.
B. The analysis and design of applications are easier because strategic (long-term) business requirements don’t usually need to be taken into account.

C. The latest technology advancements can be leveraged by repeatedly building new applications from the ground up.
D. Applications are always inherently built for repeated reuse across silos.
70-773 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
When measuring coupling that exists between a service and a service consumer, you can determine the extent of dependency that exists between the service and service consumer. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
Which of the following are considered negative forms of coupling: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Logic-to-Contract
B. Contract-to-Logic
C. Contract-to-Technology
D. Contract-to-Implementation
70-773 exam Answer: B, C, D

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 28
The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A parent exception can provide the default values for a child exception.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What is returned to the HTTP request” GET / HTTP/ 1.1 “?
A. The listing of the webroot directory of the Web server
B. The file index.html
C. A file that is configured as a default/welcome file for that Web server
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
What is true immediately after the initial setup of ProxySG?
A. None of the content filtering databases is set up
B. Only the default Blue Coat WebFilter database is set up and available
C. Blue Coat WebFilter database and 3rd party databases are set up and available
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following policies can be applied to Instant Messaging traffic? (Choose all that apply) (a) A
policy to deny the transfer of specific file types or file sizes (b) A policy to deny a specific IM request
method
(c) A policy to deny a key word or words using a regular expression (d) A policy to deny a specific IM
buddy or IM chat room
A. a, b & c only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. All of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which best describes the role of a proxy server?
A. A device that inspects Layer 2 – Layer 4 traffic running through it and denies or permits based on a set
of policies.
B. An intermediary program, which acts as both a server and a client for the purpose of making requests

on behalf of other clients.
C. An intermediary program that protects the resources of a private network from users on other networks.
D. A device that extracts the destination address of a packet, selects ten best path for the packet and
forwards the packet the next device in the path.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
After the initial boot-up. Blue Coat SGOS will automatically boot into a trial license. What is the duration of
that period?
A. 30 days – trial can be prolonged by CLI command reset-trial
B. 60 days-trial can be prolonged by CU command reset-trial
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
200-155 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What happens to ProxySG logging, when uploading them to a remote FTP server becomes impossible?
A. When there is no more space for logging, ProxySG switches on dynamic bypass forTCP connections — stops intercepting traffic
B. When there is no more space for logging, ProxySG will process policy, but will ignore any logging relatedpolicies or configuration settings
C. ProxySG erases old logs but continues writing the more recent ones
D. Either logging stops or older log files are erased — depending on the ProxySG configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which protocol and port is used by Blue Coat Reporter service to display results?
A. HTTP port 8987
B. HTTP port 8443
C. FTP port 8021
D. SNMP port 161
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
What is the default time to cache authentication credentials in ProxySG for an authentication realm?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 90 minutes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
What is in NTLM Type 2 Message?
A. Domain + Workstation Name
B. Challenge for the Client
C. Usemame and Password
D. Client Response for the challenge

200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following console services are enabled by default? (Choose all that apply)
(a) HTTP port 8081
(b) HTTPS port 8082
(c) HTTPS port 8083
(d) SSH port 22
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. c & d only
D. a & b only
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier icap_error?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
To implement ProxySG as a default gateway, which of the following options has to be enabled?
A. Early intercept
B. Reflect Client IP
C. IP Forwarding
D. Detect Protocol
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
When the DRTR successfully categorizes a site, the site is_________ (Choose all that apply)
(a) Added to the static BCWF database on the ProxySG
(b) Added to the local database on the ProxySG
(c) Added to the DRTR database on the ProxySG
(d) Added to a DRTR cache that resides on the ProxySG
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. d only
D. None of the above
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is a free software based Blue Coat product for home users?
A. Web Filter
B. k9

C. SiteAdvisot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
When virus scanning functionality is enabled, ProxySG acts as an ICAP server, and ProxyAV as an ICAP
client.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 12
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
210-260 exam Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 13
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied
to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to
the destination
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how
will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Your Hadoop cluster has 25 nodes with a total of 100 TB (4 TB per node) of raw disk space
allocated HDFS storage. Assuming Hadoop’s default configuration, how much data will you be
able to store?
A. Approximately 100TB
B. Approximately 25TB
C. Approximately 10TB
D. Approximately 33 TB
210-260 pdf Answer: D
In default configuration there are total 3 copies of a datablock on HDFS, 2 copies
are stored on datanodes on same rack and 3rd copy on a different rack.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How the
HDFS Blocks are replicated?
QUESTION NO: 17
You set up the Hadoop cluster using NameNode Federation. One NameNode manages the/users
namespace and one NameNode manages the/data namespace. What happens when client tries
to write a file to/reports/myreport.txt?
A. The file successfully writes to /users/reports/myreports/myreport.txt.
B. The client throws an exception.
C. The file successfully writes to /report/myreport.txt. The metadata for the file is managed by the
first NameNode to which the client connects.
D. The file writes fails silently; no file is written, no error is reported.
Answer: C
Note:
* The current HDFS architecture allows only a single namespace for the entire cluster. A single
Namenode manages this namespace. HDFS Federation addresses limitation of current
architecture by adding support multiple Namenodes/namespaces to HDFS file system.
* HDFS Federation enables multiple NameNodes in a cluster for horizontal scalability of
NameNode. All these NameNodes work independently and don’t require any co-ordination. A
DataNode can register with multiple NameNodes in the cluster and can store the data blocks for
multiple NameNodes.

QUESTION NO: 18
Identify two features/issues that MapReduce v2 (MRv2/YARN) is designed to address:
A. Resource pressure on the JobTrackr
B. HDFS latency.
C. Ability to run frameworks other than MapReduce, such as MPI.
D. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs.
E. Single point of failure in the NameNode.
F. Standardize on a single MapReduce API.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
A:MapReduce has undergone a complete overhaul in hadoop-0.23 and we now
have, what we call, MapReduce 2.0 (MRv2) or YARN.
The fundamental idea of MRv2 is to split up the two major functionalities of the JobTracker,
resource management and job scheduling/monitoring, into separate daemons. The idea is to have
a global ResourceManager (RM) and per-application ApplicationMaster (AM). An application is
either a single job in the classical sense of Map-Reduce jobs or a DAG of jobs.
The ResourceManager and per-node slave, the NodeManager (NM), form the data-computation
framework. The ResourceManager is the ultimate authority that arbitrates resources among all the
applications in the system.
The per-application ApplicationMaster is, in effect, a framework specific library and is tasked with
negotiating resources from the ResourceManager and working with the NodeManager(s) to

execute and monitor the tasks.
C: YARN, as an aspect of Hadoop, has two major kinds of benefits:
The ability to use programmingframeworks other than MapReduce
Scalability, no matter what programming framework you use.
QUESTION NO: 19
The most important consideration for slave nodes in a Hadoop cluster running production jobs that
require short turnaround times is:
A. The ratio between the amount of memory and the number of disk drives.
B. The ratio between the amount of memory and the total storage capacity.
C. The ratio between the number of processor cores and the amount of memory.
D. The ratio between the number of processor cores and total storage capacity.
E. The ratio between the number of processor cores and number of disk drives.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
The failure of which daemon makes HDFS unavailable on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)?
A. Node Manager
B. Application Manager
C. Resource Manager
D. Secondary NameNode
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
Answer: E
The NameNode is the centerpiece of an HDFS file system. It keeps the directory
tree of all files in the file system, and tracks where across the cluster the file data is kept. It does
not store the data of these files itself. There is only One NameNode process run on any hadoop
cluster. NameNode runs on its own JVM process. In a typical production cluster its run on a
separate machine. The NameNode is a Single Point of Failure for the HDFS Cluster. When the

NameNode goes down, the file system goes offline.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is a
NameNode? How many instances of NameNode run on a Hadoop Cluster?

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. The disks on Server2 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create a virtual machine on Server2 named VM1. You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for VM1.
What should you do?

70-410 dumps

A. Convert Disk 1 to a basic disk.
B. Take Disk 1 offline.
C. Create a partition on Disk 1.
D. Convert Disk 1 to a MBR disk.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps

You have a virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
What should you do first?
A. Add one HBA
B. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
C. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
D. Configure network adapter teaming.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6. In SAS Management Console, which components are required for promotion and replication?
A. Foundation Repository, Custom Repository and Project Repository
B. SAS Administration Server, SAS Source Server and SAS Target Server
C. SAS Replication Server, SAS Administration Server and SAS Workspace Server
D. SAS Workspace Server, SAS Stored Process Server and SAS/CONNECT Server
Answer: B
QUESTION 7. Which statement is true about the Quality Knowledge Base (QKB) in the SAS Data Quality Solution?
A. The QKB is required by dfPower Studio applications, but not by the SAS Data Quality Server.
B. The QKB facilitates the sharing of source data between dfPower Studio applications and SAS ETL
Studio.
C. The QKB is used to translate data as it is transferred between dfPower Studio applications and SAS
ETL Studio.
D. The QKB facilitates the sharing of data quality rules between dfPower Studio applications and the SAS
Data Quality Server.
70-410 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. Which statement is true about defining target table columns using the Target Designer in SAS ETL
Studio?
A. Column metadata is imported from a data dictionary columns table.
B. Column metadata is linked to columns in the table from which they are selected.
C. Column metadata is independent of columns in the table from which they are selected.
D. Column metadata is synchronized with columns in the table from which they are selected by the Impact
Analysis Wizard.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. In SAS ETL Studio, what does a Transformation Template contain?
A. sources and/or targets
B. the process flow diagram for a job
C. a transformation object and the process flow diagram for a job

D. a transformation object and one or more drop zones for tables and/or transformations
70-410 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 10. If the SAS ETL Studio Metadata Import Wizard cannot be used, how can metadata be captured from
legacy systems using the Open Metadata API?
I.use the SAS XML Mapper II.use the SAS METADATA procedure III.use the SAS METAOPERATE
procedure IV.use a customized Java plug-in to SAS ETL Studio
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
70-410 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 11. Which repository tree can be defined in SAS Management Console?
A. Two Project Repositories depend on a Custom Repository, which depends on the Foundation
Repository.
B. Two Custom Repositories depend on a Project Repository, which depends on the Foundation
Repository.
C. A Project Repository depends on two Custom Repositories, which depend on the Foundation
Repository.
D. A Custom Repository depends on two Project Repositories, which depend on the Foundation
Repository.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 25
If the organization has long-term working capital financing needs, it is better off financing needs with short
term financing under normal conditions.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
are variable in short-term and fixed in long-term under normal conditions for working capital.
A. Interest rates
B. Volatility risks
C. Profits
D. Interest costs

QUESTION NO: 27
You have decided to measure the organization’s recruiting effectiveness in the long term by
calculating of turnover. Which of the following reasons represents the PRIMARY purpose of this
measurement?
A. Improve quality of employee
B. Motivating employees effectively
C. Risk management
D. Assessing cost effectiveness of programs
70-357 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A company decide to purpose an international assignment program to fill a new position in its new
office Beijing, China. With the assistance of the human resources professional, the management,
team has finalized a list of selection criteria of the candidate for the role considering the entire
scope of the international assignment. During the interviewing process, they utilize various tools to
isolate out the success factors.
After deciding on the candidate and the individual accepting the offer, the human resources
professional with vendors to provide cross-cultural training prior to departure and plans all the
logistical details for the relocation. The human resources professional also assists the individual
and his family by providing contacts and setting up meetings with other expatriates in the host
country to orientate the expatriate before country, ie career deveploment, potential roles, personal
transition, etc. In this scenario, which of the following actions items were forgotten to ensure a
successful international assignment?
A. Plan for a successful repatriation
B. Provide ongoing support, while on assignment
C. Plan the international assignment as part of a process, not an activity
D. Provide appropriate training
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following stages of globalization is an organization likely in if it is pursuing a
polycentric staffing approach?
A. Domestic
B. Global
C. Multinational
D. Transnational
70-357 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following BEST identifies the stages in the strategic planning process ?
A. Mission & Vision -> Determine Strategic Issues by performing a Gap Analysis, SWOT Analysis,
& Benchmarking -> Strategy Formulation -> Strategy Implementation -> Evaluation & Control
B. Strategy Development -> Strategy Formulation -> Strategy Implementation -> Strategy
Evaluation
C. Mission & Objectives -> Strategy Formulation -> Environmental scanning -> Strategy
Implementation -> Evaluation & Control
D. Mission & Objectives -> Determine Action Plans -> Strategy Implementation -> Evaluation &
Control
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
When assessing the gaps between actual and desired organizational performance, which of
following measures would NOT considered ?
A. Benchmarked results
B. Training and development
C. Individual assessment
D. Task assessment
70-357 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following would a trainer emphasize in order to ensure that a training program
focused on developing skills for a particular job is valid ?
A. Survey comparable off-the-shelf programs
B. Interview incumbent
C. Interview managers
D. Analyze the job description and job specifications
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
You are preparing an on-assignment checklist for an individual going on an international
assignment. Which of the following items is the LEAST important to pursue ?
A. Creating avenues for communication
B. Identify school for children
C. Cross-cultural training
D. Moving/relocation services
70-357 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following is NOT likely an issue a human resources professional would help a dual
career family to work though to determine the appropriateness of an international assignment for
the family at that time ?
A. How will the host country workers respond to a same sex family?
B. Will the accompanying spouse be able to find a job easily?
C. Will the employee consider commuting instead of moving the whole family to the host country?
D. How will the loss of income from one spouse impact the family and their finances?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following is a difference between the recruitment and selection of an individual for a
position in the home country vs. For an international assignment?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Interviewing of family
C. Review of previous work samples, experience, etc.
D. Reference checking
70-357 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
The HR Manager is creating an interactive training program on recruiting for a group of 20 R&D
managers as well as one for a group of 20 production line leads. Which of the following is NOT a
factor to consider bearing in mind these target audiences ?
A. R&D managers have probably had similar training in the past
B. Production line leads are probably kinesthetic learners
C. For the production line lead group, the best media to present this information is a video
D. The facilitator for the group of R&D managers should be a subject matter expert that can
express content as “A” causes “B” incidents
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
In which of the following situations do HR managers have the greatest impact on organizations?
A. Assume management roles on cross-functional projects
B. Actively participates in the long-term organizational strategic planning process
C. Providing legal counsel to managers
D. Evaluate and implement process improvements throughout an organization
70-357 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:

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